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BIO 2200 Final > BIO 2200 Final > Flashcards

BIO 2200 Final Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

True or False: Bacterial endospores have only been found in a few genera of gram positive bacteria

A

true

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2
Q

True or False: The flagella is a filamentous structure found on gram positive bacteria, that allow movement by its rotation in either clockwise or counter-clockwise direction.

A

could be true or false

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3
Q

True or False: The capsule and the endospore both protect the cells from desiccation, however the endospore allows for the cell to remain in a vegetative state, while the capsule does not.

A

false

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4
Q

True or False: Microbiologists believe that we have isolated and cultured most of the bacteria and archaea statins in the world.

A

false

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5
Q

True or False: Transmission electron microscopy requires that the sample be very thin (20-60 nm) and stained, which allows for the visualization of the structures at the molecular level.

A

true

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6
Q

What class of transport systems chemically modifies the transported substance into the cell? It is driven by phosphoenolpyruvate.

A

Group translocation

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7
Q

Who was the first scientist that was able to determine the link between microbes and infectious diseases (HINT: anthrax and tuberculosis)?

A

Robert Koch

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8
Q

What is the protein that surrounds the basal body of the flagella in the cytoplasmic membrane that functions to generate charges used to rotate the flagella?

A

Mot proteins

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9
Q

According to the Endosymbiotic Theory, mitochondria and chloroplasts are derived from bacterial cells. What evidence is there to support this belief? (3)

A

Molecular phylogenetic analysis of DNA, the fact that each contain their own DNA, and the DNA is arranged in a circle like in bacteria

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10
Q

Some prokaryotes can have small amounts of circular, extrachromosomal DNA, that confer antibiotic resistance to cells that take them up. What are these particles called?

A

Plasmids

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11
Q

Microbial sub disciplines can be divided into Basic and Applied applications. What is an example of an area that would be considered a sub discipline with Basic emphases?

A

Bacterial genetics

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12
Q

Suppose a student added too little alcohol to a sample containing known gram-negative bacteria, then counterstained with safranin. What would they observe?

A

All cells would be purple

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13
Q

If the magnification of an ocular lens of a particular microscope is 5x and the magnification of the objective lens on the same microscope is 45x, the total magnification achieved is what?

A

225x

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14
Q

The periplasmic space exists as the space between what and what in what type of bacteria?

A

as the space between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.

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15
Q

Which class of extremophile would you use to describe the organism Natronobacterium gregoryi, that inhabits environments in which the pH can range from 8.5 to 12.

A

alkaliphile

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16
Q

Antibiotics such as Penicillin target bacterial cell walls and kill cells. Why is Penicillin ineffective against killing Mycoplasma infection?

A

absence of cell walls

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17
Q

What are three examples of biosynthetic processes of microorganisms industrial microbiology looks to exploit?

A

bioremediation, food processing, and antibiotic production

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18
Q

When is carrier mediated transport necessary? (3)

A

1) when movement into the cell is against a concentration gradient
2) when diffusion will not allow the adequate amounts of a substance to enter the cell
3) when the level of nutrients in nature is very low

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19
Q

What are the 3 ways one can describe the shape of a cell?

A

cocci, rod, and spirillum

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20
Q

What type of flagella organization describe “flagella located in many places around the surface of the cell?”

A

peritrichous

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21
Q

What cell characteristic would you use to distinguish prokaryotes from eukaryotes?

A

presence of nucleus

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22
Q

What type of cells are chemoorganotrophs?

A

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

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23
Q

What gene would you analyze in order to determine if an unknown organism was bacterial, archaeal, or eukaryotic?

A

ribosomal DNA

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24
Q

Who is credited with the statement “the role of the infinitely small in nature is infinitely large?”

A

Louis Pasteur

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25
Q

In the bacterial cell, what are the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A

energy conservation, permeability barrier, and protein anchor

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26
Q

Cell inclusions function as reservoirs or energy reserves of structural building blocks for cells. What are the products that can be found packaged into cellular inclusion? (3)

A

poly-beta-hydroybutyric acid, polyphosphate, and magnetosomes

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27
Q

What is a property of just some cells?

A

communication

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28
Q

What is the cell surface structure that allows for sex to occur (conjugation) between bacteria?

A

pili

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29
Q

What are three discoveries that were credited to Louis Pasteur?

A

1) discovering that living microorganisms discriminate between optical isomers
2) development of vaccines for anthrax and rabies
3) discovering that alcohol fermentation was a biologically mediated process

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30
Q

What are three forms of taxes that are stimulants that direct movement of bacteria, either as an attractant or a repellent?

A

chemotaxis, hydrotaxis, and phototaxis

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31
Q

True or False: The optimal growth pH for microbial cells represents the pH of the internal environment.

A

false

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32
Q

True or Fasle: Taq DNA polymerase was isolated from a thermophilic eukaryote, and is used in the polymerase chain reaction technique.

A

false

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33
Q

True or False: In nature, the predominant form of DNA is supercoiled in the negative direction.

A

true

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34
Q

True or False: Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the reaction between the appropriate amino acid and ATP to form an activated amino acid: amino acid + ATP aminoacyl-AMP + P-P

A

true

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35
Q

True or False: Controlling the activity of the an enzyme is seemingly an inefficient use of the organism’s energy.

A

false

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36
Q

What are 3 examples of macronutrients? What is an example of a micronutrient?

A

Macro: sulfur, nitrogen, and phosphorus
Micro: iron

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37
Q

DNA replication always proceeds from the _____ of the incoming nucleotide to the ______ of the previously added nucleotide.

A

5’ phosphate/ 3’ hydroxyl

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38
Q

A microbial growth medium that contains yeast extract would be considered to be what kind of media?

A

Complex

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39
Q

What is the time interval required for the formation of two cells from one called?

A

generation time

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40
Q

What is the major shape determining protein called?

A

MreB

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41
Q

What is the type of RNA that is an important structural and catalytic component of the protein synthesizing system of the cell?

A

rRNA

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42
Q

Why are serial dilutions generally made? (2) What are the based on?

A

1) to reach a suitable dilution
2) when the appropriate viable count is not known ahead of time
3) based on powers of 10, although other serial dilution factors are possible.

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43
Q

What is the function of bactoprenol?

A

It is a hydrophobic alcohol that transports peptidoglycan precursors across the cytoplasmic membrane.

44
Q

What is the statistically accurate number of colonies on a agar plate between?

A

30 and 300

45
Q

What does the flow of biological information begin with?

A

RNA transcription or DNA replication

46
Q

In which type of culture does one find a closed system?

A

batch culture

47
Q

What is an organism that is capable of growth at full oxygen tensions of 21% called?

A

aerobic

48
Q

When the population doubles during a constant time interval, what is the growth said to be?

A

exponential

49
Q

What are the housekeeping genes found as part of?

A

the chromosome

50
Q

Formation of the divisome begins with the attachment of what molecule in a ring around the center of the cell?

A

FtsZ

51
Q

What is the process by which two prokaryotic cells arise from one known as?

A

binary fission

52
Q

What are the cardinal temperatures?

A

minimum, optimum, and maximum temperatures taken together

53
Q

What organisms are able to live in environments with high sugar concentrations?

A

osmophiles

54
Q

Thermal environments around hot springs are conducive to the growth of what?

A

both chemoorganotrophs and chemolithotrophs

55
Q

What is superoxide dismutase essential to?

A

aerobes

56
Q

Denaturation of a protein destroys all but what level of protein structure?

A

primary

57
Q

True or False: Proteins that bind to DNA can either block or activate transcription.

A

true

58
Q

True or False: Reverse transcriptase is only found in the retroviruses.

A

false

59
Q

True or False: Following viral infection of cells, viruses redirect host metabolic functions.

A

true

60
Q

True or False: In negative-stranded RNA viruses (Class V), the RNA genome itself, directly serves as mRNA.

A

false

61
Q

True or False: Activator proteins initiate transcription by helping RNA polymerases recognize and bind to promoter sequences.

A

true

62
Q

What is the difference between Transposons and insertion sequences?

A

Only transposons may include antibiotic resistance.

63
Q

What is not a source of ionizing electromagnetic radiation that causes mutations to occur on DNA?

A

UV radiation

64
Q

What class of viruses does not require a viral RNA Replicase to replicate their viral genomes?

A

retroviruses

65
Q

The genomes of bacteriophages are typically composed of what?

A

double-stranded DNA

66
Q

How do infectious prion particles replicate in neuronal cells?

A

direct conversion of native PrP^SC

67
Q

The stringent response in cells is activated when the RecA protein is induced to generate ppGpp and pppGpp in cells that have _____.

A

deficiency of charged tRNAs

68
Q

What is reverse transcriptase?

A

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

69
Q

Where does viral replication occur?

A

intracellularly

70
Q

The sex pilus is used to transfer ____ DNA from ____ cells to ____ cells.

A

plasmid/F+/F-

71
Q

After conjugation, what are the cells in which the F plasmid is transferred and integrated into the host chromosome called?

A

Hfr

72
Q

What is a mutation in the DNA that always causes a complete loss of gene function called?

A

nonsense mutation

73
Q

What has one of the highest mutation rates?

A

viral RNA genome

74
Q

Where on the DNA does transcriptional regulatory protein binding occur?

A

major groove

75
Q

What are infectious RNA particles that lack a protein coat called?

A

viroids

76
Q

What are hosts for most enveloped viruses?

A

animals

77
Q

What mutagen is classified as an intercalating agent that inserts between base pairs?

A

ethidium bromide

78
Q

During the 1920’s, what process did Fredrick Griffith use Streptococcus pneumoniae to describe?

A

transformation

79
Q

The Ames Test uses bacterial cells to detect if compounds are what?

A

mutagenic

80
Q

During “quorum sensing,” what do bacterial cells detect and produce to measure the density of neighboring cells?

A

Acyl Homoserine Lactone

81
Q

What are viral infections in animal cells that release virions from infected host cells, without cell lysis, called?

A

persistent infections

82
Q

Metabolically, what occurs after arginine is added to culture that has been growing exponentially in a media without arginine?

A

growth continues, but the production of enzymes required for the synthesis of arginine ceases

83
Q

What genome composition makes viruses most susceptible to destruction by prokaryotic restriction endonucleases?

A

dsDNA

84
Q

What step is not part of the two component regulatory system for chemotaxis?

A

stringent response

85
Q

True or False: The first commercialized product from genetic engineering was interferon.

A

false

86
Q

True or False: The genes encoding luciferase, green fluorescent protein (GFP), and beta-galactosidase are typically used in cloning as transcription regulators.

A

false

87
Q

True or False: Ergosterol inhibitors specifically target fungi.

A

false

88
Q

True or False: The decrease or loss of virulence of a pathogen is referred to as aging.

A

false

89
Q

True or False: In the agar diffusion method of studying antimicrobial action, the diameter of the individual microbial colonies is measured.

A

false

90
Q

How were antibiotics discovered?

A

assaying microorganisms obtained from nature for diffusible antibacterial materials

91
Q

Overtime, how can the action of some bacteriolytic chemical agents be observed?

A

by noting a decrease in the turbidity of bacteria in the culture medium

92
Q

What are semisynthetic antibiotics?

A

natural antibiotics that have been chemically modified in the laboratory

93
Q

What is the complete elimination of all microorganism, including viruses called?

A

sterilization

94
Q

What bacterial cell surface protein structure functions in the attachment process?

A

fimbriae and pili

95
Q

What is a gene from one organism that had been inserted into another organism called?

A

transgene

96
Q

Secondary metabolites appear during what stage?

A

at, or near, the stationary phase

97
Q

What are the most common infectious diseases?

A

colds

98
Q

An infection of what virus is serum hepatitis caused by?

A

hepatitis B virus

99
Q

What process follows fermentation to obtain higher concentrations of ethanol in high alcohol content beverages?

A

distillation

100
Q

What is the organism of choice for most molecular cloning?

A

E. coli

101
Q

What are capsules particularly important for?

A

protecting bacteria from host defense mechanisms

102
Q

What are important targets of antibiotics in Bacteria?

A

the cell wall, the cytoplasmic membrane, and DNA replication and transcription elements

103
Q

What pathogen causes tuberculoid Hansen’s disease?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

104
Q

What pathogenic organism produces an A-B exotoxin that prevents the release off the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from neurons to muscle?

A

Clostridium botulinum

105
Q

What are the most prevalent human infectious diseases caused by?

A

viruses

106
Q

What is the pH (in general terms) of the vagina of a healthy adult female?

A

weakly acidic

107
Q

What is the time required for a tenfold reduction of the viability of a microbial population at a given temperature called?

A

decimal reduction

BIO 2200 Final (1 decks)

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