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Biology 201 > Bio 201- final > Flashcards

Bio 201- final Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

which of the following statement about cells is correct?

A

both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organism are made up of cells

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2
Q

to understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecular structure of DNA. this is an example of the application of which concept to the study of biology?

A

reductionism

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3
Q

a double-stranded DNA molecule with 3 guanine and 5 thiamine nucleotides (in 5 3 strand) has how many nucleotides in total?

A

16 (5+3=8, 8x2=16)

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4
Q

ecological organization

A

organism - population - community - ecosystem - biosphere

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5
Q

description of controlled experiment

A

an experiment includes at least 2 groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment

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6
Q

good scientific hypothesis:

A

should be testable in a valid period of time and falsifiable

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7
Q

dependent variable

A

the variable being tested and measured in a scientific experiment (the outcome, depends on independent)

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8
Q

independent variable

A

the variable that is changed or controlled in a scientific experiment to test effects on dependent variable

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9
Q

all the organisms on your campus make up

A

a community

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10
Q

T or F: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and calcium are the MOST abundant elements of living matter

A

FALSE: CHON - carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen

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11
Q

T of F: all life requires the same essential elements

A

FALSE

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12
Q

T or F: some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms

A

TRUE

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13
Q

How many electrons are present in H- and H+ ions respectively?

A

2, 0 ( 1 + or -)

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14
Q

how many electrons are present in the +2 ionic form of calcium

A

18 (20-2=18)

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15
Q

molybdenum has an atomic # of 42. several common isotopes exist, with mass # from 92-100. based on this info, what is true of molybdenum?

A

molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons

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16
Q

smallest total mass

A

2 electrons (1 e + 1 n, 1 n + 1 p, 2 n)

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17
Q

Oxygen has an atomic # of 8 and, most commonly, a mass # of 16. what is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?

A

approximately 16 daltons

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18
Q

how is the bond in F2 different from the bond in KCl?

A

F2 is covalent (sharing electrons) and KCl is ionic (metal and nonmetal, held together by charge differences)

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19
Q

if an atom has a charge of -1 so…

A

it has one more electron than it does protons

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20
Q

which pair of elements is most likely to react if bought together?

A

sodium and chlorine (positive and negative ions attract each other)

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21
Q

a covalent bond is likely to be polar under what conditions?

A

one of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other atom

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22
Q

elements found in 7 of the periodic table contain outer electron shells that are __________; these elements tend to form ________ in solution

A

almost full; cations

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23
Q

what is a compound?

A

when 2 or more elements chemically combine in a fixed ration by mass (H2O, CH4 but NOT O2

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24
Q

explain why argon, which is a noble gas, does not react with other elements

A

noble gases have completely paired up and stable electron shells

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25
Q

A neutral atom has 2, 8, 8 electrons in its first, second and third energy levels. this info…

A

does not tell us abt the atomic mass of the element

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26
Q

to find out the number in an atom, we need to know the following

A

mass and atomic number

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27
Q

under what conditions will an atom be the most stable?

A

when all of the electron orbitals in the valence shell are filled

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28
Q

A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces. Therefore, a salamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to a ________

A

surface of hydrocarbons

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29
Q

how many electrons participate in a triple covalent bond?

A

6

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30
Q

how is a covalent bond formed?

A

2 atoms SHARE 2 electrons

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31
Q

what is true abt 3H2 +N2 <-> 2NH3

A

ammonia is being formed and decomposed simultaneously

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32
Q

compared with 31P, the radioactive isotope 32P has _________

A

1 more neutron

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33
Q

The reactivity of an atom arises from ________

A

the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell

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34
Q

which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?

A

the atom has more electrons than protons

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35
Q

ionic bond is formed between atoms of __________ and __________

A

metal, non-metal

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36
Q

green plant produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis

A

energy processing

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37
Q

a camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes

A

adaptation

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38
Q

when you step into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6 F

A

homeostasis

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39
Q

what is the difference between polar and non-polar bonds?

A

non-polar bonds are the sharing of electrons equally between atoms, and polar bonds are sharing electrons unequally between atoms

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40
Q

a water molecule is polar bc

A

oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen

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41
Q

2 compounds that have the same chemical formula and structure but are mirror images of each other are

A

enantiomers

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42
Q

different covalent arrangements of their atoms

A

structural isomers

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43
Q

same covalent bonds but differ in spatial arrangements

A

same covalent bonds but differ in spatial arrangements

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44
Q

functional groups of biology

A

-CH3 (Methyl Group), -COOH (Carboxyl Group), -NH2 (Amino Group), -OH (hydroxyl Group)

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45
Q

what functional group is present in all amino acids?

A

-NH2

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46
Q

Ethanol, propanol and methanol are 3 simple alc. they can be grouped together bc they ______

A

share the same functional group: a hydroxyl

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47
Q

hydroxyl group

A

-OH
- alc, ethanol
- should dissolve in water, is polar and makes compounds more soluble in water

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48
Q

carbonyl group

A

> C=O,
- Ketone (in between carbon chain) Acetone
- Aldehyde (end of carbon chain) Propanal

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49
Q

carboxyl group

A

-COOH
- Carboxylic Acid, Acetic Acid
- always found in amino acids
- behaves as acid by donating hydrogen ions

50
Q

amino group

A

-NH2
- amine, glycine
- always found in amino acids
- behaves as base by picking up hydrogen ions

51
Q

Sulfhydryl Group

A

-SH
- thiol, cysteine
- helps stabilize protein structure
- can release a hydrogen ion when in solution (make acidic)

52
Q

phosphate groups

A

-OPO3 2-
- Organic Phosphate, Glycerol Phosphate
- used in cells to transfer energy from one molecule to another (component of ATP)
- contributes negative change

53
Q

methyl group

A

-CH3
- methylated compound, 5-Methyl Cytosine
- involved in regulating DNA
- hydrophobic in nature

54
Q

if the homogenized cells are fractionated by differential centrifugation, which organelle will require the greatest centrifugation speed to form a pellet at the bottom of the tube?

A

ribosomes

55
Q

major difference between prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cells

A

eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles, while prokaryotic cells do not

56
Q

what structure is found in plant, animal and bacterial cells

A

ribosomes

57
Q

the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotic cells

A

it regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus

58
Q

examination of a cell by transmission electron microscopy reveals a high density of ribosomes in the cytoplasm. the cell actively producing large amounts of…

A

proteins

59
Q

what structure is independent of the endomembrane system in eukaryotic cells

A

chloroplast

60
Q

which structure is common to plant and animal cells

A

mitochondrion

61
Q

a characteristic of biological membranes

A

phospholipids move laterally within the plane of the membrane

62
Q

what type of molecule is most likely to be excluded from the hydrophobic portion of the phospholipid bilayer

A

peripheral membrane proteins

63
Q

what type of molecule is most likely to lack hydrophilic domains

A

cholesterol

64
Q

in what way do the membranes of eukaryotic cell vary

A

certain proteins are unique to each membrane

65
Q

what type of molecule is likely to diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane

A

small ions

66
Q

a defect in ________ would dramatically reduce the rate of diffusion of water across cell membranes

A

aquaporins

67
Q

when the interior of a cell is in equilibrium with its environment, what is the relative movement of molecules that can diffuse through the plasma membrane

A

there is a directed movement of molecules into or out of the cell

68
Q

what will happen to a RBC which has an internal ion content of abt 0.9% if it is placed into a beaker of pure water

A

the cell will shrink bc the water in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the cytoplasm of the RBC

69
Q

what would happen if a portion of an animal’s blood is replaced with distilled water

A

the animal’s red blood cells will shrivel up bc the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells

70
Q

characteristic activities of a sodium-potassium pump

A

the pump moves 3 sodium ions out of a cell and 2 potassium ions into a cell using energy from ATP hydrolysis

71
Q

the force driving simple diffusion is ______, while the energy source for active transport is _________

A

a concentration gradient; ATP hydrolysis

72
Q

what process is used by white blood cells when engulfing bacteria

A

phagocytosis

73
Q

what is produced when 2 monosaccharides are joined by a covalent bond

A

polysaccharide

74
Q

analogous to a biological polymer

A

a pearl strand necklace, an iron chain, a train

75
Q

description of a molecule of glucose

A

a hexose, an isomer of fructose, an aldose

76
Q

an amino acid is to a protein as a glucose molecule is to

A

glycogen

77
Q

what features of cooking oil and gasoline identifies why the molecules are NOT amphipathic

A

they do not have a polar or charged region

78
Q

saturated fats

A

they contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats that consist of the same # of carbon atoms

79
Q

which parts of the amino acids AA1 and AA2 are involved in the formation of a peptide bond

A

carboxyl group of AA1 and amino group AA2

80
Q

the results of dehydration reactions can be reversed by

A

hydrolysis reactions

81
Q

a molecule with the formula C55H110O55 is probably a

A

polysaccharide

82
Q

a disaccharide forms when

A

2 monosaccharides join by dehydration reactions

83
Q

what components make up a nucleotide

A

a sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group

84
Q

fatty acides are

A

composed of hydrocarbon chains and a carboxyl group

85
Q

the development of heart disease can result from a diet high in

A

saturated fats

86
Q

a phospholipid is composed of

A

1 glycerol molecule linked it 1 phosphate group and 2 fatty acids

87
Q

glucose molecules are to starch as _______ are to proteins

A

amino acids

88
Q

which of the following is an example of secondary structure in a protein

A

an alpha helix

89
Q

how are genes used by cells to build proteins

A

the genes in DNA direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule, which is used to build a protein

90
Q

DNA differs from RNA bc DNA

A

contains thymine in place of uracil

91
Q

complementary sequence of TCGATGG

A

AGCTACC

92
Q

contains only carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen and phosphorus means

A

could only be made of nucleic acids

93
Q

an organelle in a newly discovered cell contains thylakoids, DNA and ribosomes. similar to

A

chloroplasts

94
Q

mitochondria

A

production of ATP in cellular respiration

95
Q

nucleus

A

membrane bound genetic material storage and protection

96
Q

ribosomes

A

protein synthesis

97
Q

lysosome

A

contains digestive enzymes that are used to degrade macromolecules and old organelles

98
Q

chloroplast

A

photosynthesis

99
Q

cell wall

A

glues structure and support to plant cells, made of cellulose

100
Q

chromatin

A

DNA and protein complex tightly packed

101
Q

rough ER

A

membranous structure with attached granular protein-synthesizing organelles

102
Q

golgi complex

A

sorting, modifying, and packaging of proteins for export outside of the cell

103
Q

smooth ER

A

lipid synthesis and detoxification of poisons

104
Q

cytosol

A

the aqueous component of the cytoplasm of a cell, within which various organelles and particles are suspended

105
Q

in which reactions of cellular respiration does substrate-level phosphorylation occur

A

in both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

106
Q

when a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom in an oxidation-reduction reaction, the glucose molecule is _________

A

oxidized

107
Q

glycolysis results in the net production of

A

2 NADH, 2 pyruvate and 2 ATP

108
Q

what takes place in the electron transport chain

A

the harnessing of energy from redox reactions to generate a proton gradient

109
Q

in chemiosmosis, the most direct source of energy used to convert ADP + i to ATP is energy released __________

A

from movement of protons through ATP synthase, down their electrochemical gradient

110
Q

how many molecules of ATP are produces from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose in aerobic cellular respiration

A

30-32

111
Q

what metabolic processes take place in the cytosol of eukaryotic cell

A

glycolysis and fermentation

112
Q

which of the following statements best described metabolism in its entirety in all organisms

A

metabolism consist of all the energy transformation reactions in an organism

113
Q

1st law of thermodynamics

A

energy cannot be created nor destroyed

114
Q

what metabolic process normally occurs in most cells regardless of O2 availability

A

glycolysis

115
Q

why does hydrolysis reactions occur more readily in solution than dehydration reactions do

A

hydrolysis reactions are exergonic and increase entropy of the system

116
Q

when chemical, transport or mechanical work is performed by an organism, what happens to the beat that is generated

A

it is lost to the environment

117
Q

a clasping handshake may be used as an analogy for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction bc it represents the specific manner in which an enzyme

A

binds substrate

118
Q

chemical reaction for which delta G is positive

A

endergonic

119
Q

how does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction

A

by binding to an allosteric site, thus changing the shape of the active site of the enzyme

120
Q

when will increasing the substrate concentration likely result in the greatest increase in the reaction rate

A

when an allosteric inhibitor is present in the reaction

121
Q

competitive inhibitor

A

Biology 201 (1 decks)

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