Bio 2 Flashcards
What are the 7 classifications of a living things, in order
Domain (3)
Kingdom - based on how they obtain their food, types of cells that make up their body, and #of cells they contain.
Phylum - physical similarities
Class - Humans belong to the Mammal Class because we drink milk as a baby.
Order - taxonomy key
Family - related to each other. Humans are in the Hominidae Family.
Genus - generic name for an organism
Species - can reproduce, Most specific
What are the three domains?
Bacteria
Archaea
Eukarya
Define Taxonomy
System for naming living organisms
Describe: Prion Virus Archaebacteria Eubacteria Eukaryotic cell
Prion - non living - misfold protein (5nm)
Virus - non living - 10-300nm
Archaebacteria - extreme climates (.1-15 um)
Eubacteria - ridged cell wall, true bacteria (.2-50um)
Eukaryotic cell - contain a nucleus, organelles, and are enclosed by a plasma membrane. Includes protozoa, fungi, plants and animals. (10-100um)
Genotype describes -
whereas,
Phenotypes describe -
Genotype describes - chromosomes
whereas,
Phenotypes describe - product of gene
Ex: Pea plant flower can be purple or white.
Phenotype- Dom (purple) Recessive (white)
What is an allele?
1 form of gene
Polymorphism
a gene that has multiple alleles, corresponding to distinct forms for a phenotype
Gene Pool
total of all alleles
Evolution
Change in gene pool
Speciation
Evolution into new species
Inbreeding
increase in # homozygous individuals in population without changing allele frequency
Outbreeding
maintains genetic flow
What are the 5 principles of Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium
- A large breeding population.
- Random mating.
- No change in allelic frequency due to mutation.
- No immigration or emigration.
- No natural selection.
Equation :
p^2+2pq+q^2 = 1
Viruses have the ability to transfer genetic material. They have a protein coat called a :
caspid
What type of genetic material does a virus contain
single strand DNA or RNA
or
double strand DNA or RNA
NEVER BOTH
What is a mature virus outside a host cell called?
Viron or viral particle
What is Bacteriophage
When a virus penetrates into cell, injecting nucleic acid into host cell via tail
What are three ways a virus can enter a cell?
- attaches to receptor specific glycoprotein on host cell membrane
- Bacteriorphage
- get engulfed by endocytosis into cell.
Once a virus is in a cell, it can take one of two pathways. What are the pathways?
- Lysogenic infection
2. Lytic infection
What is the difference between viruses with viral envelope and a virus with no envelope?
Viral envelope formed at exocytosis from cell, it protects the virus from being detected by the body.
non envelope do not lyse and cause cell death on their release
What is a Lysogenic infection?
viral DNA incorporated into host genome. when cell replicates DNA, replicated viral DNA is also replicated. this is called a Tempeate virus - no s/s. stays dormant/latent, activated under stress.
reduced to Provirus
patient, hitch a ride, ride it out, combining viral DNA with cells and reproducing that way
What is a Lytic infection?
virus takes over synthetic machinery and infects protein production, all new proteins have virus in them. cell burst (lyses) from time of infection to lyses = latent period
impatient, attacks, burst, cycle
The Sodium potassium ATPase hydrolyzes ATP to pump three sodium outside the cell and two potassium into the cell . Which of the following is true about the sodium potassium ATPase?
1. It is an example of secondary active transport
2. Sodium is pumped against its concentration gradient
3. Postassium is pumped against its concentration gradient
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
C
Intestinal epithelium uses the diffusion of sodium down its concentration gradient to power the translocation of glucose inside of a cell. This is an example of: A) primary active transport B) secondary active transport C) passive diffusion D) facilitated diffusion
B
Which of the following is least likely to require a protein to be transported into a cell? A) protein B) Glucose C) Amino acids D) carbon dioxide
D
A protein hormone is least likely to act by which of the following mechanisms? A) Binding to a receptor in the nucleus B) Opening a membrane bound channel C) Activating a membrane bound enzyme D) Activating a G protein
A
Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning tight junction?
1. They connect adjacent cells
2. They may form a barrier to extracellular fluids
3. They have the greatest strength of all cellular adhesions
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 , 2 , and 3
B
What would be the likely consequence of adding pure water to a petri dish of human red blood cells? A) The cell would stay the same size B) The cells would expand C) the cells would burst D) the cells should shrink
C
A neuron in an adult human is in which stage of the cell cycle? A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2
A
Which of the following is not involved in cell to cell communication? A) gap junction B) desmosomes C) Membrane receptors D) nuclear receptors
B
Which of the following events does NOT play a role in the life cycle of a typical retrovirus?
A) viral DNA is injected into the host cell
B) Viral DNA is integrated into the host genome
C) The gene for reverse transcriptase is transcribed and the mRNA is translated inside the host cell
D) Viral DNA incorporated into the host genome may be replicated along with the host DNA
A
If two species are members of the same order, they must also be members of the same: A) habitat B) family C) class D) biome
C
Most viruses that infect animals:
A) enter the host cell via endocytosis
B) do not require a receptor protein to recognize the host cell
C) leave their capsid outside the host cell
D) can reproduce independently of a host cell
A
Which of the following structures is (are) in prokaryotes? 1. a cell wall containing peptidoglycan 2. a plasma membrane lacking cholesterol 3. Ribosomes A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1 , 2 and 3
D
Prior to infecting a bacterium, a bacteriophage must:
A) reproduce, making copies of the phage chromosome
B) integrate its genome into the bacterial chromosome
C) penetrate the bacterial cell wall completely
D)attach to a receptor on the bacterial cell membrane
D
DNA from phage resistant bacteria is extracted and placed on agar with phage - sensitive E. Coli are now also resistant to phage attack. The most likely mechanism for their acquisition of resistance is: A) transduction B) sexual reproduction C) transformation D) conjugation
C
Which of the following would least likely disrupt the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?
A) Emigration of part of a population
B) A predator that selectively targets the old and sick
C) A massive flood killing 15% of a large homogeneous population
D) Exposure of the entire population to intense radiation
C
Penicillin interferes with peptidoglycan formation. Penicillin most likely inhibits bacterial growth by disrupting the production of: A) bacterial plasma membranes B) prokaryotic cell walls C) the bacterial nucleus D) bacterial ribosomes
B
All of the following are composed of microtubules EXCEPT: A) the tail of a sperm cell B) the spindle apparatus C) the cilia of the fallopian tubes D) the flagella of bacteria
D
Which of the following is true concerning the nucleolus?
A) It is bound by a phospholipid membrane
B) It disappears during prophase
C) It is the site of translation of ribosomal RNA
D) It is found in most bacteria
B
In some specialized cells, glucose is transported against its concentration gradient via an integral protein using the energy of the sodium ion electrochemical gradient. If no ATP is used for this transport, it most likely: A) active transport B) facilitated transport C) passive transport D) osmosis
A
Which of the following cells would be expected to contain the most smooth endoplasmic reticulum? A) a liver cell B) An islet cell from the pancreas C) a mature sperm D) A zygote
A
Which of the following is not a membrane bound organelle? A) the golgi body B) the nuclues C) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) the ribosome
D
One function of the liver is to detoxify alcohol taken into the body. The organelle within the liver cell that most directly affects this process is: A) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) the nucleus C) the golgi apparatus D) the rough endoplasmic reticulum
A
When a primary lysosome fuses with a food vesicle to become a secondary lysosome:
A) its pH drops via active pumping of protons into its interior
B) its pH drops via active pumping of protons out of its interior
C) its pH rises via active pumping of protons into its interior
D) its pH rises via active pumping of protons out of its interior
A
Which of the following cells would be expected to have a well - developed rough endoplasmic reticulum? A) Pancreatic cell B) Adipocyte C) Muscle cells D) Neurons
A
Which of the following gives the normal direction of signal transmission in a neuron?
A) From the axon to the cell body to the dendrites
B) From the dendrites to the cell body to the axon
C) From the cell body to the axon and dendrites
D) From the dendrites to the axon to the cell body
B
Novocaine is a local anesthetic used by many dentists. Novocaine most likely inhibits the action potential of a neuron by:
A) stimulating calcium voltage gated channels at the synapse
B) increasing chloride ion efflux during an action potential
C) uncoiling Schwan cells wrapped around axon
D) blocking sodium voltage gated channels
D
If a neuronal membrane were to become suddenly impermeable to potassium ions but retain an active Na+/K+ ATPase, the neuron’s resting potential would:
A) becoming more positive because potassium ion concentration would increase inside the neuron.
B) becoming more positive because potassium ion concentration would increase outside the neuron.
C) becoming more negative because potassium ion concentration would increase inside the neuron.
D) becoming more negative because potassium ion concentration would increase outside the neuron.
A
What is the ratio of sodium ions to potassium ions transferred by the Na+/K+ pump out of and into the cells?
A) 2 Sodium ions in; 3 potassium ions out
B) 3 Sodium ions in; 2 potassium ions out
C) 3 Sodium ions out; 2 potassium ions out
D) 2 Sodium ions in; 3 potassium ions in
C
Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system is: A) faster and more specific B) faster and more generalized C) slower and more specific D) slower and more generalized
A
The Nernst equation, when used to determine the resting membrane potential of a neuron, indicates that as intracellular K+ increases, the membrane potential: A) stays the same B) changes, but not in a predictable way C) becomes more positive D) becomes more negative
D
Which of the following changes to the neuron at rest would be LEAST likely to prevent the formation of the normal resting membrane potential?
A) Disruption of the electrochemical gradient of chlorine
B) Disruption of the electrochemical gradient of sodium
C) Disruption of the electrochemical gradient of potassium
D) A change to the membrane resulting in impermeability to potassium
A
During an action potential, the neuronal membrane:
A) depolarizes, then hyperpolarizes, then repolarizes
B) depolarizes, then repolarizes, then hyperpolarizes
C) hyperpolarizes, then depolarizes, then repolarizes
D) hyperpolarizes, then repolarizes, then depolarizes
B
If an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor were administered into a cholinergic synapse, what would happen to the activity of the postsynaptic neuron?
A) It would decrease, bc ach would be degraded more rapidly than normal
B) It would decrease, bc ach would bind to postsynaptic membrane receptors less strong
C) It would increase, bc ach would be produced more rapidly than normal
D) It would increase, bc ach would be degraded more slowly than normal
D
White matter in the brain and spinal cord appears white bc:
A) it contains large amounts of myelinated axons
B) it does not contain any myelinated axons
C) it is composed primarily of cell bodies
D) it contains a high concentration of white blood cells to protect the CNS from infection
A
Which of the following is found in vertebrates but NOT in invertebrates?
A) A dorsal, hollow nerve chord
B) Myelination to increase the speed of nervous impulse transmission along the axon
C) Axon through which the nervous impulse is conducted
D) An Na+/K+ pump in the neuronal membrane
B
Which of the following activities is controlled by the cerebellum?
A) Involuntary breathing movements
B) Fine muscular movements during a dance routine
C) Contraction of the thigh muscles during the knee jerk reflex
D) Absorption of nutrients across the microvilli of the small intestine
B
If an acetylcholine antagonist were administered generally into a person, all of the following would be affected EXCEPT:
A) the neuroeffector synapse in the sympathetic nervous system
B) the neuroeffector synapse in the parasympathetic nervous system
C) the neuromuscular junction in the somatic nervous system
D) the ganglionic synapse in the sympathetic nervous system
A
Which of the following occurs as a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
A) Vasodilation of the arteries leading to the kidneys
B) increased rate of heart contraction
C) Piloerection of the hair cells of the skin
D) Contraction of the abdominal muscles during exercise
A
Reflex arcs:
A) involve motor neurons exiting the spinal cord dorsally
B) require fine control by the cerebral cortex
C) always occur independently of the CNS
D) often involve inhibition as well as excitation of muscle groups
D
Which of the following structures is NOT part of the CNS? A) A parasympathetic effector B) the medulla C) the hypothalamus D) the cerebral cortex
A
Pressure waves in the air are converted to neural signals at the: A) retina B) tympanic membrane C) cochlea D) semicircular canals
C
Which of the following physical stimuli cannot be converted to electrical signals by the chemoreceptors of the human body? A) light B) taste C) smell D) blood chemistry
A
As light enters the eye, what is the correct order of the layers through which it passes before being converted into an electrical signal?
A) lens –> retina –> cornea –> aqueous humor –> vitreous humor
B) cornea –> aqueous humor –> lens –>vitreous humor –> retina
C) cornea –> vitreous humor –> lens –> retina –> aqueous humor
B
Which of the following is NOT true of the olfactory system?
A) the olfactory system makes use of chemoreceptors that bind odorants
B) Olfactory information does not reach the amygdala and hippocampus until after it undergoes processing in the cortex
C) Unlike other sensory system , the olfactory system does not create a “map” of olfactory information in the environment
D) Olfactory information does not pass though the thalamus before reaching cortical area for higher level processing
B
Which types of sensory receptor is primarily associated with the sensation of pain? A) Chemoreceptors B) Mechanoreceptors C) Photoreceptos D) Nociceptors
D
The vestibular system carries out which of the following functions?
A) Converting sound waves into auditory signals
B) Maintaining balance and detecting changes in body postion
C) Detecting and interpreting touch sensation
D) conveying information about pheromones in the environment to the amygdala
B
Which of the following correctly describes a component of the visual system and its function?
A) the optic nerve carries out “what and where” processing of visual stimuli
B) the lateral geniculate nucleus conveys visual information of the brain for processing
C) Photoreceptors respond to the stimulus of photons by triggering signaling in the eye that ultimately causes visual information
C
The process of sensory adaptation can be described as:
A) the adaptation of sensory receptors to become more sensitive to a single type of stimulus
B) the temporal and spatial combination of multiple inputs
C) the experience of a decreased response to a repetitive stimulus
D) the adaptation of physical stimuli into electrical stimuli
C
Aldosterone exerts its effects on target cells by:
A) binding to a receptor at the cell surface, setting off a second messenger cascade.
B)diffusing into adrenal cortical cells, where it influences transcription of certain DNA sequences
C) flowing across the synapse, where it binds and initiates an action potential
D) entering into target cells, where it increases the rate of production of sodium potassium pump proteins
D
A patient develops an abdominal tumor resulting in the secretion of large quantities of aldosterone into the blood stream. Which of the following will most likely occur?
A) Levels of renin secreted by the kidney will increase
B) Levels of oxytocin secreted by the pituitary will increase
C) Levels of aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex will decrease
D) Levels of aldosterone secreted by the tumor will decrease
C
Which of the following is true for all endocrine hormones?
A) they act through a second messenger system
B) they bind to a protein receptor
C) they dissolve in the blood
D) they are derived from a protein precursor
B
All of the following act as second messengers for hormones EXCEPT: A) cyclic AMP B) calmodulin C) acetylcholine D) cyclic GMP
C
Which of the following is true of all steroids?
A) The target cells of any steroid include every cell the the body
B) steroids bind to receptor proteins on the membrane of their target cells
C) steroids are synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) Steroids are lipid soluble
D
The pancreas is a unique organ because it has both exocrine and endocrine function. The exocrine portion of the pancreas releases:
A) digestive enzyme directly into the blood
B) digestive enzyme through a duct
C) hormones straight into the blood
D) hormones through a duct
B
Most steroid hormones regulate enzymatic activity at the level of : A) replication B) transcription C) translation D) the reaction
B
Which of the following side effects might be experienced by a patient who is administered a dose of thyroxine?
A) An increase in endogenous TSH production
B) A decrease in endogenous TSH production
C) An increase in endogenous thyroxine production
D) A decrease in endogenous parathyroid hormone production
B
Sympathetic stimulation results in responses most similar to the effects of which of the following hormones? A) insulin B) acetylcholine C) epinephrine D) aldosterone
C
When compared with the actions of the nervous system, those of the endocrine system are:
A) quicker in responding to changes and longer lasting
B) quicker in responding to changes and shorter lasting
C) slower in responding to changes, and longer lasting
D) slower in responding to changes and shorter lasting
C
Insulin shock occurs when a patient with diabetes self administers too much insulin. Typical symptoms are extreme nervousness, trembling, sweating, and ultimately loss of consciousness. The physiological effects of insulin shock most likely include:
A pronounced increase in gluconegenesis by the liver
B) a rise in blood fatty acid levels, leading to atherosclerosis
C) a dramatic rise in blood pressure
D) dangerously low blood glucose levels
D
Vasopressin, a hormone involved in water balance is produced in the : A) hypothalamus B) posterior pituitary C) anterior pituitary D) kidney
A
Osteoporosis is an absolute decrease in bone tissue mass, especially trabecular bone. All of the following might be contributory factors to the disease EXCEPT :
A) increased sensitivity to endogenous parathyroid hormone
B) defective intestinal calcium absorption
C) menopause
D) abnormally high blood levels of calcium
D
All of the following hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary EXCEPT: A) thyroxine B) growth hormone C) prolactin D) luteinizing hormone
A
Which of the following hormonal and physiological effects of stress would NOT be expected in a marathoner in the last mile of the marathon?
A) increased glucose secretion
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased ACTH secretion
D) decreased blood flow to the small intestines
C
Parathyroid hormone is an important hormone in the control of blood calcium ion levels, parathyroid hormone directly impacts: 1. bone density 2. renal calcium reabsorption 3. blood calcium concentration A) 1 B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1,2, and 3
D
A drug that causes increased secretion of testosterone from the interstitial cells of a physically mature male would most likely:
A) cause the testes to descend preamturely
B) delay the onset of puberty
C) cause enhanced secondary sex characteristics
D) decrease core body temperature
C
During the female menstrual cycle, increasing levels of estrogen cause:
A) a positive feedback response, stimulating LH secretion by the anterior pituitary
B) a positive feedback response, stimulating FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary
C) a negative feedback response, stimulating a sloughing off of the uterine lining
D) a negative feedback response, stimulating decreased progesterone secretion by the anterior pituitary
A
The function of the epididymis is to:
A) store sperm until they are released during ejaculation
B) produce and secrete testerone
C) conduct the ovum from the ovary to the uterus
D) secrete FSH and LH to begin the menstrual cycle
A
Decreasing progesterone levels during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle are associated with:
A) thickening of the endometrial lining in preparation for implantation of the zygote
B) increased secretion of LH, leading to the luteal surge and ovulation
C) degeneration of the corpus luteum in the ovary
D) increased secretion of estrogen in the follicle, leading to the flow phase of the menstrual cycle
C
The inner linings of the Fallopian tubes are covered with a layer of cilia. The purpose of this layer is to:
A) remove particulate matter that becomes trapped in the mucus layer covering the fallopian tubes
B) maintain a layer of warm air close to the inner lining, protecting the ovum from temperature changes occurring in the external environment
C) kill incoming sperm, thus prevent fertilization
D) facilitate movement of the ovum towards the uterus
D
Which of the following endocrine glands produces testosterone? A) the anterior pituitary B) the pancreas C) the adrenal cortex D) the adrenal medulla
C
Which of the following does NOT accurately describe cleavage in human embryos?
A) the solid ball of cells produced during cleavage is called a morula
B) the size of the embryo remains constant throughout the cell divisions of cleacage
C) cell division occurs in one portion of the egg in meroblastic cleavage
D) daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells
C
The heart, bone and skeletal muscle most likely arise from which of the following primary germ layers? A) the ectoderm B) the endoderm C) the gastrula D) the mesoderm
D - the mesoderm
Alkalosis is increased blood pH resulting in a leftward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. Which of the following might cause alkalosis ? A) hypo-ventilation B) hyperventilation C) Breathing into a paper bag D) Adrenal steroid insufficiency
B
Which of the following would most likely occur in the presence of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?
A) The blood pH would increase
B) The carbamino hemoglobin concentration inside erythrocytes would decrease
C) The rate of gas exchange in the lungs would decrease
D) The oxyhemoglobin concentration inside erythrocytes would increase
C
Which of the following will most likely occur during heavy exercise?
A) Blood pH will decrease in the active tissue
B) Less oxygen will be delivered to the tissue due to increased cardiac contractions that result in increased blood velocity
C) Capillaries surrounding contracting skeletal muscles will constrict to allow increased freedom of movement
D) The respiratory system will deliver less nitrogen to the blood
A
An athlete can engage in blood doping by having blood drawn several weeks before an event, removing the blood cells, and having them re injected into her body a few days before an athletic activity. Blood doping is most likely an advantage to athletes because:
A) the increased concentration of immune cells in the blood after re injection can decrease the changes of becoming ill just before the competition
B) the increased RBC count in blood after re injection can facilitate greater gas exchange with the tissues
C) the increased blood volume after re-injection can ensure that the athlete maintains adequate hydration during the event
B
Carbon dioxide partial pressure:
A) increases in blood as it travels from the systemic venules to the inferior vena cava
B) increases in the blodd as it travels from the pulmonary arteries to the pulmonary veins
C) is greater in the blood in the systemic capillary beds than in the alveoli of the lungs
D) is greater in the blood in the systemic capillary beds than in the systemic tissues
C
At high altitude, water vapor pressure in the lungs remains the same and carbon dioxide pressure falls slightly. Oxygen pressure falls. The body of a person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks and even years will acclumatize. All of the following changes assist the body in coping with low oxygen EXCEPT:
A) increased RBC
B) decreased vascularity of the tissues
C) increased pulmonary ventilation
D) increased diffusion capacity of the lung
B
In an asthma attack, a patient suffers from difficulty breathing due to constricted air passage. The major causative agent is a mixture of leukotrienes called slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis. During an asthma attack, slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis most likely causes:
A) smooth muscle spasm of the bronchioles
B) cartilaginous constriction of the trachea
C) edema in the alveoli
D) skeletal muscle spasm in the thorax
A
Sustained heavy exercise results in all of the following changes to blood chemistry except: A) lower pH B) raised CO2 tension C) increased temperature D) decreased carboxyhemoglobin
D
The atrioventricular node:
A) is a parasympathetic ganglion located in the right atrium of the heart
B) conducts an action potential from the vagus nerve to the heart
C) sets the rhythm of cardiac contractions
D) delays the contraction of the ventricles of the heart
D
Cardiac output, which is the product of the heart rate and the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped per contraction by either the left or the right ventricle) would most likely be:
A) greater if measured using the stroke volume of the left ventricle
B) greater if measured using the stroke volume of the right ventricle
C) the same regardless of which stroke volume is measured
D) dependent on the viscosity of the blood
C
Which of the following is responsible for the spread of the cardiac action potential from one cardiac muscle cell to the next? A) gap junctions B) desmosomes C) tight junctions D) acetylcholine
A
In the congenital heart defect known as patent ductus arteriosis, the ductus arteriosus, which connects the aorta and the pulmonary artery during fetal development, fails to close at birth. This will likely lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) equal, or increased oxygen concentration in the blood that reaches the systemic tissue
B) increased oxygen concentration in the blood that reaches the lungs
C) increased work load imposed on the left ventricle
D) increased work load imposed on the right ventricle
A
Which chambers of the heart pump oxygenated blood? A) the right and left atria B) the right and left ventricles C) the right artia and left ventricle D) the left atria and left ventricle
D
Hypovolemic shock represents a set of symptoms that occur when a patients blood volume falls abruptly. Hypovolemic shock is most likely to occur during: A) arterial bleeding B) venous bleeding C) low O2 intake D) excess sodium consumption
A
The capillary network comprises the greatest cross sectional area of blood vessels in the body with high resistance to blood flow. In a healthy individual, the highest blood pressure would most likely be found in: A) the aorta B) the venae cavae C) the systemic capillaries D) the pulmonary capillaries
A
Gas exchange between the blood and tissues occurs:
A) throughout the circulatory system
B) in the arteries, arterioles and capillaries
C) in the systemic arteries only
D) in the capillaries only
D
“Swollen glands” are often observed in the neck of a person with a cold. The most likely explanation is that:
A) blood pools in the neck in an attempt to keep it warm
B) lymph nodes swell as WBC proliferate within them to fight the infection
C)the infection sets off an inflammatory response in the neck, causing fluid to be drained from the area
B
Humoral immunity involves the action of: A) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes B) stomach acid C) pancreatic enzymes D) immunoglobins
D
Antibodies functions by:
A) phagocytizing invading antigens
B) adhering to circulation plasma cells and marking them for destruction by phagocytizing cells
C) preventing the production of stem cells in the bone marrow
D) attaching to antigens via their variable portions
D
Lymphatic vessels absorb fluid from the interstitial spaces and carry it to the:
A) kidneys, where it is excreted
B) large intestines, where it is absorbed and returned to the bloodstream
C) lungs, where the fluid is vaporized and exhaled
D) lymphatic ducts, which return it to circulation
D
Which of the following would not normally be found in a lymph node? A) B-lymphocytes B) Proteins discarded by tissue cells C) Invading bacteria D) old erythrocytes
D
An organism exposed to a pathogen for the first time will exhibit an innate immune response involving:
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) granulocytes
D) an organism exposed to a pathogen for the first time must acquire immunity before it can respond
C
Influenza is an intracellular virus. Antigens derived from influenza are mainly processed by the \_\_\_\_\_ pathwa and displayed on MHC Class \_\_\_\_. A) endogenous, 1 B) endogenous, 2 C) exogenous, 1 D) exogenous, 2
A
In type 1 DM, self reactive T cells erroneously attack and destroy pancreatic beta cells that display self antigens. This autoimmune process can be most precisely described as a failure of: A) antigen processing B) B cell activation C) positive selection D) negative selection
D
As chyme is passed from the stomach to the small intestine, the catalytic activity of pepsin:
A) increases because pepsin works synergistically with trypsin
B) increases because pepsin is activated from its zymogen form
C) decreases in response to the change in pH
D) decreases bc pepsin is digested by pancreatic amylase in the small intestine
C
Omeprazole is used to treat duodenal ulcers that results from gastric acid hyper secretion. Omeprazole blocks the secretion of HCl from the parietal cells of the stomach. Which of the following is LEAST likely to occur in a patient taking omeprazole?
A) An increase in microbial activity in the stomach
B) A decrease in the activity of pepsin
C) An increase in stomach pH
D) A decrease in carbohydrate digestion in the stomach
D
Which of the following reaction types is common to the digestion of all micro-nutrients? A) Hydrolysis B) Reduction C) Glycolysis D) Phosphorylation
A
One function of the large intestine is: A) to absorb water B) to secrete excess water C) to digest fat D) to secrete urea
A
Salivary alpha amylase begins the digestion of: A) lipids B) nucleic acids C) proteins D) carbohydrates
D
All of the following enzymes are part of pancreatic exocrine function EXCEPT: A) bile B) chymotrypsin C) pancreatic amylase D) lipase
A
In humans, most chemical digestion of food occurs in the: A) mouth B) stomach C) duodenum D) ileum
C
A stomach ulcer may increase the acidity of the stomach. The stomach cells most affected by a stomach ulcer are: A) goblet cells B) parietal cells C) chief cells D) G cells
B
Which of the following occurs mainly in the liver? A) fat storage B) protein degradation C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis
D
Dietary fat consists mostly of neutral fats called triglycerides. Most digestive products of fat:
A) enter intestinal epithelial cells as chylomicrons
B) are absorbed directly into the capillaries of the intestines
C) are degraded to fatty acids by the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of enterocytes
D) enter the lymph system before entering the bloodstream
D
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the digestive products of dietary protein?
A) They are used to synthesize essential amino acids in the liver
B) Some of the products are absorbed into the intestines by facilitated diffusion
C) Energy is required for the intestinal absorption of at least some of these products
D) Deamination of these products in the liver leads to urea in the blood
A
Cholera is an intestinal infection that can lead to severe diarrhea causing profuse secretion of water and electrolytes. A glucose- electrolytes solution may be administered orally to patients suffering from cholera. What is the most likely reason for mixing glucose with the electrolytes solution?
A) When digested, glucose increases the strength of the patient
B) The absorption of glucose increases the uptake of electrolytes
C) Glucose is an electrolyte
D) Glucose stimulates secretions of the pancreatic enzyme, amylase
B
Most of the glycogen in the human body is stored in the liver and skeletal muscles. Which of the following hormones inhibits glycogenolysis? A) cortisol B) insulin C) glucagon D) aldosterone
B
Free fatty acids do not dissolve int he blood, so they must be transported within the body bound to protein carriers. The most likely explanation for this is that:
A) blood is an aqueous solution and only hydrophobic compounds are easily dissolved
B) blood is an aqueous solution and only hydrophilic compounds are easily dissolved
C) blood serum contains chylomicrons which do not bind to fatty acids
D) blood serum is lipid based and the polar region of a fatty acid will not be dissolved
B
Essential amino acids must be ingested bc they cannot be synthesized by the body. In what form are these amino acids likely to enter the bloodstream? A) single amino acid B) dipeptides C) polypeptides D) proteins
A
Bowmans capsule assists in clearing urea from the blood by:
A) actively transporting urea into the filtrate using ATP driven pumps
B) exchanging urea for glucose in an antiport mechanism
C) allowing urea to diffuse into the filtrate under filtration pressure
D) converting urea to amino acids
C
Test reveal the presence of glucose in patients urine. This is an indication that:
A) glucose transporters in the loop of Henle are not functioning properly
B) the patient is health as glucose in normal in urine
C) the proximal tubule is over secreting glucose
D) glucose influx into the filtrate is occurring faster than it can be reabsorbed
D
The epithelial cells of the proximal convoluted tubule contain a brush border similar to the brush border of the small intestines. The most likely function of the brush border in the proximal convoluted tubule is to:
A) increase the amount of filtrate that reaches the loop of Henle
B) increase the surface are available for the absorption
C) slow the rate of at which the filtrate moves through the nephron
D) move the filtrate though the nephron with cilia like action
B
If a patient were administered a drug that selectively bound and inactivated renin, which of the following would most likely result?
A) the patients blood pressure would increase
B) platelets would be found in the urine
C) the amount of filtrate entering Bowmans capsule would increase
D) Sodium reabsorption by the distal tubule would decrease
D
Which of the following correctly orders the structures through which urine flow leaves the body?
A) urethra, bladder, ureter, collecting duct
B) collecting duct, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
B
How are the blood levels of vasopressin and aldosterone in a dehydrated individual likely to compare with those of a healthy individual ?
A) Vasopressin and aldosterone levels are likely to be lower in a dehydrated individual
B) Vasopressin and aldosterone levels are likely to be higher in a dehydrated individual
C) Vasopressin levels are likely to be higher in a dehydrated individual, while aldosterone levels are likely to be lower
D) Vasopressin levels are likely to be lower in a dehydrated individual, while aldosterone levels are likely to be higher
B
An afferent arteriole in a glomerular tuft contains microscopic fenestration which increase fluid flow. In a hypertensive patient :
A) these fenestrations would constric, resulting in decreased urinary output
B) filtrate volume would be expected to be larger d/t increased fluid pressure
C) filtrate volume would be expected to be smaller due to increased fluid pressure
D) urinary output would most likely be diminished d/t increased solute concentration
B
For an individual with highly concentrated urine, filtrate entering the loop of Henle is likely to be:
A) more concentrated than filtrate exiting the loop of Henle
B) less concentrated than filtrate exiting the loop of Henle
C) more voluminous than filtrate exiting the loop of Henle
D) less voluminous than filtrate exiting the loop of Henle
A
During a muscular contraction:
A) both the thin and thick filaments contract
B) the thin filament contracts, but the thick filament does not
C) the thick filament contract, but the thin filament does not
D) neither the thin not the thick filament contract
D
Irreversible sequestering of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum would most likely:
A) result in permanent contraction of the muscle fibers, similar to what is seen in rigor mortis
B) create a sharp increase in bone density as calcium is resorbed from bones to replace the sequestered calcium
C) prevent myosin from binding to actin
D) depolymerize actin filaments in the sarcomere
C
Muscles cause movement at joints by:
A) inciting neurons to initiate an electrical “twitch” in tendons
B) increasing in length, thereby pushing the muscles origin and insertion farther apart
C) filling with blood, thereby expanding and increasing the distance btw the ends of a muscle
D) decreasing in length, thereby bringing the muscles origin and insertion closer together
D
Shivering increases body temperature by:
A) serving as a warning that body temperature is too low, prompting the person to seek warmer location
B) causing bones to rub together, creating heat thru friction
C) increasing the activity of the muscles
D) convincing the hyopothalamus that body temperature is higher than it actually is
C
When one of a pair of antagonistic muscles contracts, what usually happens to the other muscle to produce movement?
A) It acts synergistically by contracting to stabilize the moving bone.
B) it relaxes to allow movement
C) it contracts in an isometic action
D) its insertion slides down the bone to allow a greater range of motion
B
When undergoing physical exercise, healthy adult skeletal muscle is likely to respond with an increase in all of the following except: A) glycolysis B) the citric acid cycle C) mitosis D) protein production
C
Which of the following statements regarding muscles that act as third class levers in the body is NOT true?
A) They require more force to perform the alloted work than if no lever were present
B) The force of the muscle contraction is applied btw the fulcrum and the load force
C) This arrangement increases the bulk of the body
D) This arrangement increases the precision of movement
C
Skeletal muscle contraction may assist in all of the following EXCEPT: A) movement of fluid through the body B) body temperature regulation C) posture D) peristalsis
D
The function of gap junctions in the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle is to:
A) anchor the muscle fibers together
B) ensure that an action potential is spread to all fibers in the muscle network
C) control blood flow by selectively opening and closing capillaries
D) release calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B
Which of the following muscular actions is controlled by the ANS?
A) knee jerk reflex
B) Conduction of cardiac muscle action potential from cell to cell
C) Peristalsis of the GI tract
D) Contraction of the diaphragm
C
During an action potential, a cardiac muscle cell remains depolarized much longer than a neuron. This characteristic or the cardiac muscle cell most likely functions to:
A) prevent the initiation of another action potential during contraction of the heart
B) ensure that adjacent cardiac muscle cells will contract at different times
C) keep the neuron from firing twice in rapid succession
D) allow sodium voltage gated channels to remain open long enough for all sodium to exit the cell
A
All of the following statements are true concerning smooth muscle EXCEPT:
A) smooth muscle contractions are longer and slower than skeletal muscle contractions
B) A chemical change in the environment around smooth muscle may create a contraction
C) Smooth muscle does not require calcium to contract
D) smooth muscle is usually involuntary
C
Which of the following muscle is under voluntary control?
A) the diaphragm
B) the heart
C) the smooth muscle of the large intestine
D) the iris
A
Cardiac muscle is excited by:
A) parasympathetic nervous excitation
B) constriction of T- tubules
C) increased cytosolic sodium concentration
D) increased cytosolic calcium concentration
D
When left alone, certain specialized cardiac muscle cells have capacity for self excitation. the SA node is a collection of such cells. The SA node is innervated by the vagus nerve. The frequency of self excitation of the cardiac cells of the SA node is likely to be:
A) slower than a normal heartbeat, because excitation by the vagus nerve decreases the heart rate.
B) slower than a normal heartbeat, because excitation by the vagus nerve increases the heart rate.
C) faster than normal heartbeat, bc excitation by the vagus nerve decreases the heart rate
D) faster than normal heartbeat, bc excitation by the vagus nerve increases the heart rate
C
In extreme cold, just before the onset of frostbite, sudden vasodilation occurs, manifesting in flushed skin. This vasodilation most likely results from:
A) paralysis of smooth muscle in the vascular walls
B) paralysis of skeletal muscle surrounding the vascular walls
C) sudden tachycardia with a resultant increase in blood pressure
D) blood shunting d/t smooth muscle sphincters
A
The production of which of the following cell types would most likely be increased by parathyroid hormone? A) Osteoprogenitors B) Osteocytes C) Osteoclasts D) Osteoblasts
C
In a synovial joint, the purpose of synovial fluid is to :
A) reduce friction between bone ends
B) keep bone cells adequately hydrated
A
Surgical cutting of which of the following tissue would result in the least amount of pain? A) muscle B) bone C) cartilage D) skin
C
In a synovial joint, the connective tissue holding the bones together are called:
A) ligaments
B) tendons
C) muscles
A
All of the following are functions of bone EXCEPT: A) mineral storage B) structural support C) blood temperature regulation D) fat storage
C
All of the following are found in compact bone EXCEPT: A) yellow marrow B) Haversian canals C) canaliculi D) Volkmanns canals
A
Hydroxyapatite, the mineral portion of bone, contains all of the following elements except: A) calcium B) sulfur C) phosphate D) hydrogen
B
The spongy bone of the hips is most important for: A) RBC storage B) RBC cell synthesis C) fat storage D) lymph fluid production
B
