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Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver > Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver > Flashcards

Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general pathology name for nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome?

A

Glomerulopathy

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2
Q

What happens to the GFR and urine output with nephrosis or nephritic syndrome?

A

Decreased GFR, decreased urine output

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3
Q

What happens to plasma creatinine and urea levels with glomerulopathy?

A

Both are elevated

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4
Q

What region of the nephron is damaged with nephrotic syndrome?

A

The glomerular membrane.

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5
Q

What change occurs regarding endothelial/epithelial cells with nephrotic syndrome?

A

There is an enlargement of the fenestrations between endothelial cells and/or slit pores of epithelial cells.

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6
Q

How is nephrosis detected?

A

Greater than 3.5g or more of protein in the urine per day

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7
Q

What are the 3 main causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

1) Hypertension
2) Diabetes
3) Type III immune disorders (lupus, RA)

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8
Q

Does nephrosis or nephritic syndrome have these symptoms:

1) Edema (face, eyes)
2) Hypotension

A

nephrosis

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9
Q

Anscara means?

A

Edema

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10
Q

In nephritic syndrome, what happens to the glomerulus?

A

It is inflamed

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11
Q

The causes of nephritic syndrome include:

1) _________ abnormalities
2) drugs/toxins
3) ________ disorders
4) systemic diseases
5) viral causes
6) _______ infection

A

1) __IMMUNOLOGICAL_ abnormalities
2) drugs/toxins
3) __VASCULAR______ disorders
4) systemic diseases
5) viral causes
6) __STREP_____ infection

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12
Q

With nephritic syndrome, how much protein would be in the urine per day?

A

Less than 3.5 g per day (slight proteinuria)

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13
Q

Hematuria is a symptom of nephrosis or nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome (RBC casts appear in urine)

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14
Q

Azotemia means increased what?

A

Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine

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15
Q

Hypertension is a symptom of nephrosis or nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome

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16
Q

What are the 3 types of nephrosis?

1) _______ ________ Disease
2) Focal _______ _____________
3) M________ ______________

A

1) Minimal Change Disease
2) Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
3) Membranous Glomerulonephritis

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17
Q

What type of nephrosis is commonly in children, has few histological changes (except loss of foot processes), and has a good prognosis?

A

Minimal Change Disease

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18
Q

What type of nephrosis has scarring of glomerulus and a poor prognosis?

A

Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis

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19
Q

What causes secondary focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

Three H’s: HIV, Heroin, Hypertension

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20
Q

Membranous glomerulonephritis is caused by ________ activation of ________ complex.

A

AUTOIMMUNE activation of IMMUNE complex

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21
Q

What kidney disease has increased glomerular basement membrane permeability and thickening?

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis (caused by antibodies being deposited in basement membrane)

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22
Q

What distinguishes membranous glomerulonephritis from being a type of nephritis?

A

There is large amounts of protein in urine.

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23
Q

What kidney disease is caused by diabetes?

A

Nephrosis

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24
Q

What kidney disease is caused by a viral or step infection?

A

Nephritic syndrome

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25
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis would cause which kidney disease?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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26
Q

What are the evaluation techniques for breast lumps?

A

Ultrasound, mammography, needle aspiration

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27
Q

What type of change results in hyperplasia of breast epithelium?

A

Proliferative fibrocystic change

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28
Q

What type of breast change results in increased stroma?

A

Nonproliferative fibrocystic change

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29
Q

What type of breast change results in dilation of ducts and the formation of cysts?

A

Nonproliferative fibrocystic change

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30
Q

If breast cell atypia is present, there is a 5x increased risk of cancer for what change?

A

Proliferative fibrocystic change

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31
Q

True or false, fibrocystic changes (nonproliferative and proliferative) are associated with cancer and are not very common.

A

False

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32
Q

What hormone stimulates fibroadenomas?

A

Estrogen

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33
Q

What is the normal age for fibroadenomas?

A

20 yrs

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34
Q

A fibroadenoma is a _______, discrete, _____ mass.

A

SOLITARY, discrete, MOVEABLE

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35
Q

What happens to the ducts and lobules with fibroadenomas?

A

They are compressed

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36
Q

75% of breast carcinoma patients are older than what age?

A

50 yrs

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37
Q

What is the most common cancer in women?

A

Breast carcinoma. (It is the 2nd deadliest. Lifetime risk is 1/8.)

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38
Q

Breast carcinoma risk is heightened due to: 1) age 2) family history 3) increased ______ exposure 4) ______ consumption 5) ________ and high sugar diet

A

1) age 2) family history 3) increased _estrogen__ exposure 4) alcohol consumption 5) _obesity__ and high sugar diet

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39
Q

What does adipose tissue have to do with breast carcinomas?

A

Adipose tissue is an active endocrine organ which secretes VEGF, TNFalpha, and estradiol (estrogen)

40
Q

DCIS stands for?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

41
Q

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) has what appearance?

A

Wide variety of appearances and architectural patterns

42
Q

LCIS stands for?

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

43
Q

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) has what appearance?

A

Monomorphic with round nuclei

44
Q

Are DCIS and LCIS invasive or non-invasive carcinomas?

A

Non invasive

45
Q

What is the most common form of breast carcinoma?

A

Ductal

46
Q

What carcinomas are fixated to the skin?

A

Ductal and lobular

47
Q

What type of carcinoma has cells like LCIS, which spread from lobules?

A

Lobular

48
Q

What carcinoma has the “peau d’orange” look?

A

Inflammatory

49
Q

What are “peau d’orange” areas made of?

A

Dermal lymphatic spaces

50
Q

Invasive carcinomas are what 3 carcinomas?

A

1) Ductal 2) Lobular 3) Inflammatory …4) could also be “other”

51
Q

Tumor prognosis is based on:

1) Size
2) ______ ____ development
3) Distant __________
4) Grade of tumor
5) Histological type of tumor

A

1) Size
2) Lymph node development
3) Distant __metastases_
4) Grade of tumor
5) Histological type of tumor

52
Q

Male breast cancer is called?

A

Gynecomastia; over-development of the breast tissue in males

53
Q

Causes of gynecomastia include:

1) _______ alterations (idiopathic disorders, drugs, neoplasms)
2) hypogonadism (Kleinfelter)
3) ________

A

1) HORMONE alterations (idiopathic disorders, drugs, neoplasms)
2) hypogonadism (Kleinfelter)
3) OBESITY

54
Q

Bleeding from any of the lower GI tract is called what?

A

Hematochezia

55
Q

What are the 4 parts of the “lower” GI tract?

A

Jejunum, ileum, colon, rectum

56
Q

What region(s) does ulcerative colitis affect?

A

Colon only

57
Q

What region(s) does Crohn’s affect?

A

Anywhere along GI tract from mouth to anus

58
Q

Which GI disease has continuous lesions?

A

Ulcerative colitis

59
Q

Which GI disease is found in the superficial (mucosa) region of colon?

A

Ulcerative colitis

60
Q

What GI disease has poor response to surgery?

A

Crohn’s

61
Q

Where are Crohn’s lesions found in the tissue?

A

They are transmural; they move from submucosa to mucosa

62
Q

Which GI disease is caused by an autoimmune reaction?

A

Ulcerative colitis

63
Q

Which GI disease is caused by a combination of genetics and environment?

A

Crohn’s

64
Q

Which statement is true?

1) Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease result in an increased risk of cancer.
2) Ulcerative colitis can be caused by h. pylori, while Crohn’s disease cannot.

A

1-True

2-False; neither is caused by h. pylori

65
Q

Treatment for Inflammatory Bowel Diseases includes:

1) Anti-inflammatory drugs (____________)
2) Immune suppressors
3) Antibiotics
4) ___________ pull through

A

1) Anti-inflammatory drugs (CORTICOSTEROIDS)
2) Immune suppressors
3) Antibiotics
4) ILEOANAL pull through

66
Q

An ileoanal pull through is a surgically constructed internal reservoir. Where is it located?

A

Where the rectum would normally be

67
Q

What GI condition affects 7-20% of people, mainly women 20-40 yrs?

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

68
Q

Irritable Bowel Syndrome may arise from:

1) Abnormal ____________
2) Allergies/sensitivities
3) Gut _____

A

1) Abnormal MOTILITY
2) Allergies/sensitivities
3) Gut BACTERIA

69
Q

What is another word for fatty liver?

A

Steatosis

70
Q

NASH of the liver stands for?

A

Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

71
Q

What does NASH of the liver with fibrosis look like?

A

Scarred

72
Q

What does cirrhosis of the liver look like?

A

Scarred and inflamed

73
Q

Progression of liver dysfunction is:

1) Steatosis
2) _____
3) _____ with fibrosis
4) ________
5) Cancer

A

1) Steatosis
2) NASH
3) NASH with fibrosis
4) CIRRHOSIS
5) Cancer

74
Q

Cirrhosis means decreased hepatic function due to what tissue change?

A

Fibrosis

75
Q

Portal hypertension is caused when the ______ channels become ______.

A

Biliary, obstructed

76
Q

Portal hypertension causes blood to be shunted _____ from the _____.

A

away, liver

77
Q

What type of necrosis develops as a result of cirrhosis?

A

Hypoxic necrosis

78
Q

What is abnormal during portal hypertension?

A

Pressure; it is higher than normal in the hepatic portal venous system (>10mm Hg)

79
Q

What is the most common type of portal hypertension?

A

Intrahepatic (e.g. cirrhosis)

80
Q

What is the consequence of portal hypertension characterized by CNS disturbances, impaired cognition, tremors, and EEG changes?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

81
Q

Which condition, characterized by swelling in peritoneal cavity, almost always accompanies cirrhosis?

A

Ascites

82
Q

Ascites means increased/decreased hepatic vessel hydrostatic pressure?

A

Increased

83
Q

Ascites means increased/decreased oncotic pressure?

A

Decreased

84
Q

How does cirrhosis and ascites affect blood pressure?

A

Decreased blood pressure (due to decreased volume of blood in vessels)

85
Q

How does cirrhosis and ascites affect heart rate?

A

Increased heart rate (due to decreased blood volume)

86
Q

What is the precursor to bilirubin?

A

Heme

87
Q

Glucuronyl transferase conjugates what complex?

A

Bilirubin-albumin complex

88
Q

Intestinal bacteria converts bilirubin to _________.

A

Urobilinogen

89
Q

Jaundice is either caused by 1) Excess bilirubin production (RBC destruction) 2) Decreased bilirubin _______

A

Excretion

90
Q

Normal/light feces and light urine is a result of which type of jaundice?

A

Intrahepatic obstructive jaundice

91
Q

Decreased ______ of the bilirubin-albumin complex would lead to decreased secretion of bilirubin from the liver.

A

Conjugation

92
Q

Liver functional tests include albumin, which should be _______, and is elevated/reduced with liver problems.

A

4-5; reduced

93
Q

Liver functional tests include looking at transaminases such as ALT. This should be _____, and is elevated/reduced with liver problems.

A

10-50, elevated

94
Q

Liver functional tests include looking at transaminases such as AST. This should be _____, and is elevated/reduced with liver problems.

A

4-45, elevated

95
Q

What happens to the tongue with alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Glossitis

Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver (1 decks)

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