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Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver > Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver > Flashcards

Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general pathology name for nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome?

A

Glomerulopathy

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2
Q

What happens to the GFR and urine output with nephrosis or nephritic syndrome?

A

Decreased GFR, decreased urine output

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3
Q

What happens to plasma creatinine and urea levels with glomerulopathy?

A

Both are elevated

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4
Q

What region of the nephron is damaged with nephrotic syndrome?

A

The glomerular membrane.

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5
Q

What change occurs regarding endothelial/epithelial cells with nephrotic syndrome?

A

There is an enlargement of the fenestrations between endothelial cells and/or slit pores of epithelial cells.

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6
Q

How is nephrosis detected?

A

Greater than 3.5g or more of protein in the urine per day

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7
Q

What are the 3 main causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A

1) Hypertension
2) Diabetes
3) Type III immune disorders (lupus, RA)

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8
Q

Does nephrosis or nephritic syndrome have these symptoms:

1) Edema (face, eyes)
2) Hypotension

A

nephrosis

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9
Q

Anscara means?

A

Edema

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10
Q

In nephritic syndrome, what happens to the glomerulus?

A

It is inflamed

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11
Q

The causes of nephritic syndrome include:

1) _________ abnormalities
2) drugs/toxins
3) ________ disorders
4) systemic diseases
5) viral causes
6) _______ infection

A

1) __IMMUNOLOGICAL_ abnormalities
2) drugs/toxins
3) __VASCULAR______ disorders
4) systemic diseases
5) viral causes
6) __STREP_____ infection

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12
Q

With nephritic syndrome, how much protein would be in the urine per day?

A

Less than 3.5 g per day (slight proteinuria)

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13
Q

Hematuria is a symptom of nephrosis or nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome (RBC casts appear in urine)

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14
Q

Azotemia means increased what?

A

Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine

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15
Q

Hypertension is a symptom of nephrosis or nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome

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16
Q

What are the 3 types of nephrosis?

1) _______ ________ Disease
2) Focal _______ _____________
3) M________ ______________

A

1) Minimal Change Disease
2) Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
3) Membranous Glomerulonephritis

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17
Q

What type of nephrosis is commonly in children, has few histological changes (except loss of foot processes), and has a good prognosis?

A

Minimal Change Disease

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18
Q

What type of nephrosis has scarring of glomerulus and a poor prognosis?

A

Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis

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19
Q

What causes secondary focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

Three H’s: HIV, Heroin, Hypertension

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20
Q

Membranous glomerulonephritis is caused by ________ activation of ________ complex.

A

AUTOIMMUNE activation of IMMUNE complex

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21
Q

What kidney disease has increased glomerular basement membrane permeability and thickening?

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis (caused by antibodies being deposited in basement membrane)

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22
Q

What distinguishes membranous glomerulonephritis from being a type of nephritis?

A

There is large amounts of protein in urine.

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23
Q

What kidney disease is caused by diabetes?

A

Nephrosis

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24
Q

What kidney disease is caused by a viral or step infection?

A

Nephritic syndrome

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25
Rheumatoid arthritis would cause which kidney disease?
Nephrotic syndrome
26
What are the evaluation techniques for breast lumps?
Ultrasound, mammography, needle aspiration
27
What type of change results in hyperplasia of breast epithelium?
Proliferative fibrocystic change
28
What type of breast change results in increased stroma?
Nonproliferative fibrocystic change
29
What type of breast change results in dilation of ducts and the formation of cysts?
Nonproliferative fibrocystic change
30
If breast cell atypia is present, there is a 5x increased risk of cancer for what change?
Proliferative fibrocystic change
31
True or false, fibrocystic changes (nonproliferative and proliferative) are associated with cancer and are not very common.
False
32
What hormone stimulates fibroadenomas?
Estrogen
33
What is the normal age for fibroadenomas?
20 yrs
34
A fibroadenoma is a _______, discrete, _____ mass.
SOLITARY, discrete, MOVEABLE
35
What happens to the ducts and lobules with fibroadenomas?
They are compressed
36
75% of breast carcinoma patients are older than what age?
50 yrs
37
What is the most common cancer in women?
Breast carcinoma. (It is the 2nd deadliest. Lifetime risk is 1/8.)
38
Breast carcinoma risk is heightened due to: 1) age 2) family history 3) increased ______ exposure 4) ______ consumption 5) ________ and high sugar diet
1) age 2) family history 3) increased _estrogen__ exposure 4) _alcohol_ consumption 5) _obesity__ and high sugar diet
39
What does adipose tissue have to do with breast carcinomas?
Adipose tissue is an active endocrine organ which secretes VEGF, TNFalpha, and estradiol (estrogen)
40
DCIS stands for?
Ductal carcinoma in situ
41
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) has what appearance?
Wide variety of appearances and architectural patterns
42
LCIS stands for?
Lobular carcinoma in situ
43
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) has what appearance?
Monomorphic with round nuclei
44
Are DCIS and LCIS invasive or non-invasive carcinomas?
Non invasive
45
What is the most common form of breast carcinoma?
Ductal
46
What carcinomas are fixated to the skin?
Ductal and lobular
47
What type of carcinoma has cells like LCIS, which spread from lobules?
Lobular
48
What carcinoma has the "peau d'orange" look?
Inflammatory
49
What are "peau d'orange" areas made of?
Dermal lymphatic spaces
50
Invasive carcinomas are what 3 carcinomas?
1) Ductal 2) Lobular 3) Inflammatory ...4) could also be "other"
51
Tumor prognosis is based on: 1) Size 2) ______ ____ development 3) Distant __________ 4) Grade of tumor 5) Histological type of tumor
1) Size 2) _Lymph_ _node_ development 3) Distant __metastases_ 4) Grade of tumor 5) Histological type of tumor
52
Male breast cancer is called?
Gynecomastia; over-development of the breast tissue in males
53
Causes of gynecomastia include: 1) _______ alterations (idiopathic disorders, drugs, neoplasms) 2) hypogonadism (Kleinfelter) 3) ________
1) HORMONE alterations (idiopathic disorders, drugs, neoplasms) 2) hypogonadism (Kleinfelter) 3) OBESITY
54
Bleeding from any of the lower GI tract is called what?
Hematochezia
55
What are the 4 parts of the "lower" GI tract?
Jejunum, ileum, colon, rectum
56
What region(s) does ulcerative colitis affect?
Colon only
57
What region(s) does Crohn's affect?
Anywhere along GI tract from mouth to anus
58
Which GI disease has continuous lesions?
Ulcerative colitis
59
Which GI disease is found in the superficial (mucosa) region of colon?
Ulcerative colitis
60
What GI disease has poor response to surgery?
Crohn's
61
Where are Crohn's lesions found in the tissue?
They are transmural; they move from submucosa to mucosa
62
Which GI disease is caused by an autoimmune reaction?
Ulcerative colitis
63
Which GI disease is caused by a combination of genetics and environment?
Crohn's
64
Which statement is true? 1) Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease result in an increased risk of cancer. 2) Ulcerative colitis can be caused by h. pylori, while Crohn's disease cannot.
1-True | 2-False; neither is caused by h. pylori
65
Treatment for Inflammatory Bowel Diseases includes: 1) Anti-inflammatory drugs (____________) 2) Immune suppressors 3) Antibiotics 4) ___________ pull through
1) Anti-inflammatory drugs (CORTICOSTEROIDS) 2) Immune suppressors 3) Antibiotics 4) ILEOANAL pull through
66
An ileoanal pull through is a surgically constructed internal reservoir. Where is it located?
Where the rectum would normally be
67
What GI condition affects 7-20% of people, mainly women 20-40 yrs?
Irritable Bowel Syndrome
68
Irritable Bowel Syndrome may arise from: 1) Abnormal ____________ 2) Allergies/sensitivities 3) Gut _____
1) Abnormal MOTILITY 2) Allergies/sensitivities 3) Gut BACTERIA
69
What is another word for fatty liver?
Steatosis
70
NASH of the liver stands for?
Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
71
What does NASH of the liver with fibrosis look like?
Scarred
72
What does cirrhosis of the liver look like?
Scarred and inflamed
73
Progression of liver dysfunction is: 1) Steatosis 2) _____ 3) _____ with fibrosis 4) ________ 5) Cancer
1) Steatosis 2) NASH 3) NASH with fibrosis 4) CIRRHOSIS 5) Cancer
74
Cirrhosis means decreased hepatic function due to what tissue change?
Fibrosis
75
Portal hypertension is caused when the ______ channels become ______.
Biliary, obstructed
76
Portal hypertension causes blood to be shunted _____ from the _____.
away, liver
77
What type of necrosis develops as a result of cirrhosis?
Hypoxic necrosis
78
What is abnormal during portal hypertension?
Pressure; it is higher than normal in the hepatic portal venous system (>10mm Hg)
79
What is the most common type of portal hypertension?
Intrahepatic (e.g. cirrhosis)
80
What is the consequence of portal hypertension characterized by CNS disturbances, impaired cognition, tremors, and EEG changes?
Hepatic encephalopathy
81
Which condition, characterized by swelling in peritoneal cavity, almost always accompanies cirrhosis?
Ascites
82
Ascites means increased/decreased hepatic vessel hydrostatic pressure?
Increased
83
Ascites means increased/decreased oncotic pressure?
Decreased
84
How does cirrhosis and ascites affect blood pressure?
Decreased blood pressure (due to decreased volume of blood in vessels)
85
How does cirrhosis and ascites affect heart rate?
Increased heart rate (due to decreased blood volume)
86
What is the precursor to bilirubin?
Heme
87
Glucuronyl transferase conjugates what complex?
Bilirubin-albumin complex
88
Intestinal bacteria converts bilirubin to _________.
Urobilinogen
89
Jaundice is either caused by 1) Excess bilirubin production (RBC destruction) 2) Decreased bilirubin _______
Excretion
90
Normal/light feces and light urine is a result of which type of jaundice?
Intrahepatic obstructive jaundice
91
Decreased ______ of the bilirubin-albumin complex would lead to decreased secretion of bilirubin from the liver.
Conjugation
92
Liver functional tests include albumin, which should be _______, and is elevated/reduced with liver problems.
4-5; reduced
93
Liver functional tests include looking at transaminases such as ALT. This should be _____, and is elevated/reduced with liver problems.
10-50, elevated
94
Liver functional tests include looking at transaminases such as AST. This should be _____, and is elevated/reduced with liver problems.
4-45, elevated
95
What happens to the tongue with alcoholic hepatitis?
Glossitis

Bikman-Kidney, Breast, GI, Liver (1 decks)

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