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F9 > Big 89 > Flashcards

Big 89 Flashcards

1
Q

When is an alternate required?

A

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2
Q

Explain Flaps optimized between 3 and 4?

A

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3
Q

Explain method one vs method two? Standard strategy vs Obstacle? Procedures for both? Where would we see it listed?

A

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4
Q 
Explain the following modes:
A. Normal
B. Alternate
C. Direct
D. Flare
E. Pitch/bank protections
F. High/low speed and high AOA protections
G. Alpha Lock
A

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5
Q

Explain Ground Speed mini

A

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6
Q

Preliminary Cockpit Prep
a. What is the minimum battery voltage and what does that voltage
ensure?
b. What indications do you get when conducting an engine fire test
with AC power?
c. Reference b above what indications are lost when performing with
DC power?

A

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7
Q

If brake accumulator pressure is out of green band, how can it be charged?

A

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8
Q

At the gate with engines off, you turn on the yellow electric hydraulic pump. Will this action pressurize the green hydraulic system?

A

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9
Q

How do you perform an alternate brake check?

A

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10
Q

What is the minimum engine oil quantity for flight?

A

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11
Q

When performing the brake check during taxi, the FO announces “pressure zero” indicates that green pressure has taken over yellow pressure. T or F

A

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12
Q

During single engine taxi, the # 2 engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?

A

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13
Q

What temp and conditions must the engine ice be turned on and in what phase of flight?

A

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14
Q

Limitations (all of them and have understanding of all of Vol. 2 sec 2

A

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15
Q

Memory items

A

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16
Q

Performance problem with brake MEL.

A

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17
Q

Walk thru a MEL problem

A

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18
Q

Weight and Balance (what ways can you get a valid W&B?)

A

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19
Q

Lights and Switches/ and systems

A

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20
Q

What do the FACs do?

A

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21
Q

When is a TO alternate required?

A

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22
Q

What is the time and distance for a TO alternate

A

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23
Q

When is the A/P required for an approach?

A

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24
Q

When is an auto-land required?

A

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25
Q

In flight, when will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A

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26
Q

What does centering the beta target with the bank index do?

A

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27
Q

If you lose the Blue Hydraulic system fluid, is the RAT available?

A

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28
Q

What protections are available in Normal Law, Alternate Law, Direct Law?

A

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29
Q

Is alpha floor available inn Alternate Law? Direct Law?

A

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30
Q

Why should the Captain wait to call for the “after start” checklist until after visually confirms that the tow bar has been disconnected?

A

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31
Q

What color is the “NW STRG DISC”

A

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32
Q

Do you have A/Skid if you lose your normal braking?

A

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33
Q

What powers the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS Bus if both engine driven gens are lost and the airspeed is above 100kts?

A

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34
Q

What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the A/C to move on the ramp?

A

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35
Q

How do you get out of “TOGA LOCK” is triggered by “A FLOOR”?

A

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36
Q

What flight control is left when in mechanical back up law?

A

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37
Q

If the pilot manually tunes a freq thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the auto tuning of the FMGC?

38
Q

What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?

39
Q

What are the 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

40
Q

What is the required response to “SINK RATE” aural warning?

41
Q

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less that ¾ m, or RVR 4000?

42
Q

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is ½ m or RVR 2400 ft or less?

43
Q

What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?

44
Q

What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning light during CAT II/III approach?

45
Q

How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evacuation?

46
Q

What are the maneuvering speeds in the Airbus? Green dot, S, F for selected flap position?

47
Q

What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?

48
Q

What should the settings be on RMP 3 (if installed)?

49
Q

When is an exterior inspection required?

50
Q

When is a crew briefing required?

51
Q

When is a DDA required?

52
Q

While conducting an ECAM procedure what are the 5 things the Pilot Flying is responsible for?

53
Q

Who is the pilot flying on the ground?

54
Q

Is F9 authorized to fly circle to land approaches? Is F9 authorized to perform circle to land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?

55
Q

How long is the aircraft airworthiness signoff good for?

56
Q

Who normally performs the Engine fire Warning test on the preliminary set up flow?

57
Q

When do we use the flight path vector/director for approaches?

58
Q

If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?

59
Q

When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?

60
Q

An RNAV GPS approach has LPV as well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums, which minimums can F9 use?

61
Q

What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?

62
Q

How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

63
Q

First flight of the day, elec. system is supplied with ac power, is the bat voltage check required?

64
Q

Does bat 1 & 2 need to be in auto for bat start?

65
Q

During cockpit preparation, when turning bat 1 & 2 off then on, what are we looking for?

66
Q

During cockpit prep, setting QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 & 2?

67
Q

During engine start with the thrust levers out of the idle position, will the engines start?

68
Q

After engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?

69
Q

During engine start, elec. power supply is interrupted, what is our action?

70
Q

After landing when do we perform a residual ground speed check? What are the limits?

71
Q

After landing when do we perform a residual ground speed check? What are the limits?

72
Q

After landing when do we perform a drift check? What are the limits?

73
Q

Which leading edge devices are ice protected? Is the tail ice protected?

74
Q

What is the lowest RVR you could use for DEN 34R, assuming all lights are working?

75
Q

What is the definition of marginal wx?

76
Q

What does “RNAV 1” mean?

77
Q

How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed you RNP of 1.0?

78
Q

When may we fly to a published MDA?

79
Q

If you were preparing for a CAT IIIB approach and the standby altimeter failed, would it affect your CAT status or capability in any way?

80
Q

Flaps 3 is required in certain abnormal situations. Do you select Config 3 on the PERF APP page?

81
Q

In case of a Dual Engine Failure, what action do you apply first: ECAM or QRH?

82
Q

For abnormal procedures during take-off, which checklist is read first: After Takeoff Checklist or the Abnormal checklist?

83
Q

When may a single engine auto-land be done, and in what configuration?

84
Q

When do you select flaps Full on a single engine approach?

85
Q

What colors are verbalized when confirming mode changes on the FMA?

86
Q

When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?

87
Q

What action is taken at minimums, when landing from a non-precision approach?

88
Q

What do you do if the acft starts to move with the parking brake on?

89
Q

Is it OK to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?

90
Q

Explain Captain/Dispatcher joint responsibility.

F9 (1 decks)

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