Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fundamentals of Success in Business > Best Practices in Management: Projects, Staffing, Scheduling, and Budgeting > Flashcards

Best Practices in Management: Projects, Staffing, Scheduling, and Budgeting Flashcards

1
Q

The 4 Steps of Strategic Management Process

A
  1. strategic objectives and analysis
  2. strategic formulation
  3. strategic implementation
  4. strategic evaluation and control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Strategy/Action Plan

A
  • defines an organizations competitive advantage

- bridges the gap between long term vision and short terms decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Objectives

A

a series of short, measurable actions that state what/when/ and how much will be done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Negotiator (managerial role)
A

negotiating budget, labor, and other formal disputes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Resources allocator (managerial role)
A

making decisions of who gets what, how much, and when

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Disturbance handler (managerial role)
A

involuntarily reacting to conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Entrepreneur (managerial role)
A

seeking to improve business, adapt to changing markets, and react to opportunities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Spokesperson (managerial role)
A

present info to people outside the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Disseminator (managerial role)
A

processing specific privileged info to people outside the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Monitor (managerial role)
A

continuously scanning environment for info, and talking with liaisons and subordinates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Liason (managerial role)
A

establish and maintain contacts outside the chain of command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Leader (managerial role)
A

being able to influence others towards a goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Figurehead (managerial role)
A

ceremonial duties i.e. welcoming official visitors and signing legal documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The 3 Managerial Roles Categories

A
  1. interpersonal: relational interaction and management
  2. informational: gathering, analyzing, storing, and disseminating info
  3. decisional: the responsibility of making choices on behalf of the organization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The 10 Most Common Managerial Roles

A
  1. figurehead
  2. leader
  3. liason
  4. monitor
  5. disseminator
  6. spokesperson
  7. entrepreneur
  8. disturbance handler
  9. resource allocator
  10. negotiator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Role

A

an organized set of behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Organizational Heirarchy

A

top, middle, frontline, and team leaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Business Indicators

A

numbers indicating a positive or negative trend like revenue, profit margin, and amount of debt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The 5 Fundamental Management Functions

A
  1. planning
  2. organizing
  3. leading
  4. coordinating
  5. controlling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Efficiently vs. Effectively

A

Max level of productivity vs. achieving best results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Contingency Leadership

A

theorizes that effective group performance depends on the match between the leader’s style of interacting with subordinates and the degree to which the situation allowed the leader to control and influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The 2 Types of Behavioral Dimensions

A
  1. consideration: emphasis on employee’s feelings and relationships
  2. initiating structure: a focus on tasks to achieve goals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Manager vs. Leader

A
  • leaders may not have formal power, but followers give the leader power through compliance
  • managers have to relay on formal power to get subordinates to accomplish goals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The 4 Major Components of Leadership

A
  1. idealized influence
  2. inspirational motivation
  3. intellectual stimulation
  4. individualized consideration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Full-range Theory of Leadership

A

a component of transactional leadership which enhances morale and motivation by connecting the employees sense of identity to a project and the collective identity of the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Transactional Theories of Leadership

A
  • leadership based on an exchange between the leader and follower
  • relationship is positive and benefits both parties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Low LPC Score

A

suggests that a leader relies more on the nature of the tasks to drive leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

High LPC Score

A

suggests that a person has a positive orientation towards human relations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

LPC Scale

A

least preferred coworker to determine which traits a leader likes least in a coworker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Contingency Models 3 Key Areas

A
  1. Personality of leader
  2. Task
  3. Whether the leader can exert control over the group
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Situational Control

A

the interaction of leadership style and the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Contingency Theory

A

predicts that effective leaders are those with personal traits that match the needs of the situation in which they find themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Behavioral Theory of Leadership

A
  • a theory that is based on the premise that behaviors are conditioned as a result of experiences within the environment
  • anyone can be trained to behave in a preferred way
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The 7 Core Traits of a Successful Leader

A
  1. drive
  2. leadership motivation
  3. honesty and integrity
  4. self-confidence
  5. cognitive ability
  6. knowledge of the business
  7. charisma, creativity, and flexibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

“Great-man” theory of Leadership

A
  • the theory that certain traits produce certain behaviors, and patterns of behavior.
  • patterns of behavior are consistent in different circumstances and people are born with these traits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Making Leadership a Movement Steps

A
  1. decide you cause
  2. set your vision
  3. make the vision a reality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mission Statement

A

what an organization needs to do in present time to achieve the vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Vision Statement

A

where the organization wants to be in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Leadership

A

the ability to effectively communicate your vision to people and unite them behind a shared mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Vision

A
  • A clear, distinctive, and specific view of what a company would like to achieve in the future
  • broad description instead of specific targets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Balance Sheet

A

shows a list of assets, liabilities, and stockholders equity–usually at the end of the month, quarter, or year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Income Statement

A

shows the change in the financial status of an organization over a specified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Managerial Accounting

A

prepares financial statements and report for internal use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Financial Accounting

A

the subdivision of the organization’s accounting department that prepares financial reports for people external to the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Budget

A

a tool managers use to plan and control the use of the scarce resources, and reveals the company’s objectives and how management intends to acquire and use resources to attain objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Net Income

A

the “bottom-line”–an individual’s income after taking taxes and other deductions into account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Master Budget

A

an overall budget an organization uses to make sure its expenses in all areas fall within its financial parameters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Income Statement

A

a summary of all of an organization’s revenues and expenses during a predefined period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

KPI (Key Performance Indicator)

A

a measurement of how effectively a company is achieving its key business objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Balanced Scorecard

A

semi-standardized strategic management tool used to analyze and improve key performance indicators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Performance Metric

A

data that is obtained to measure an organization’s behavior, activities, and performance relating to a range of a stakeholder needs including shareholders, customers, and employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What’s the difference between a goal, objective, strategy, and tactic?

A

goal: the overarching success an organization is striving for–more general that objectives
objective: the devices used to measure the success and failure of an organization
strategy: the “how” to meet objectives–not as specific as tactics
tactics: one more level of specificity as to what to do implement strategies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SMART Goals

A 
goals that are: 
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Relevant to the mission 
Time-bound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Tactical Plans

A
  • 1 year or less
  • translate strategic plans into specific proposals for actions that need approval from up and down an organization
  • short term, emphasizes current operations of various parts of an organization
  • answers the what, who, and how
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Strategic Goals

A
  • 3-5 years
  • long term, has lasting consequences, are expensive, have high levels of resource commitment, and include decision involving tech usage, labor and equipment organization, and capacity to meet customer demands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Long-term Strategy vs. Short-term Strategy

A

long-term: equates to strategic goals

short-term: equates to tactical plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Economies of Scale

A

a savings in costs to produce a product and the ability to produce it in large amounts of numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Market Segmentation (competitive strategy)
A

a cross between cost leadership and differentiation–targets finding specific market segments which are not otherwise tapped by larger firms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Differentiation (competitive strategy)
A

refers to an organization’s ability to create a good that is hard to replicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Cost leadership (competitive strategy)
A

pertains to an organization’s ability to create economies of scale through extremely efficient operations that produce a large volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

3 Strategies of Competitive Strategy

A
  1. cost leadership
  2. differentiation
  3. market segmentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Core Competencies

A

the skills and area of knowledge shared across business units that distinguish a firm and provides competitive advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Customer-Drive Strategies

A

any activities a company needs to undertake in order to meet the few needs of many customers, or the broad needs of customers in a narrow market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Market Position

A

the customer’s perception of a brand or product in relation to its competition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Centralized System of Administration

A
  • decisions are made by a few key people and passed down to employees
  • more consistency and control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Decentralized System of Administration

A

decision making is spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Return on Investment

A

the profit received for investing, which is calculated by dividing the amount of money gained by the cost of investment in a percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

4 Essential Components of Corporate Strategy

A
  1. allocation of resources
  2. organizational design
  3. portfolio management
  4. strategic trade-offs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The 4 Categories of Operational Strategy

A
  1. developing a well-integrated company using corporate strategies
  2. producing products and services with a focus on customer service
  3. maximizing the organization’s core competencies
  4. creating a system to measure competitive priorities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Operational Strategy

A

the methods companies use to reach their goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Kaplan/Norton 6 Stage Strategy Execution Approach

A
  1. develop the strategy
  2. plan the strategy
  3. align organization with strategy
  4. plan operations
  5. monitor and learn
  6. test and adapt strategy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

2 Types of Organizational Change

A
  • first order: incremental, piecemeal change

- second order: nonlinear and reflects a movement different than anything seen before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. Continuous Leader
A

works to create an agile and responsive organization that can quickly anticipate threats and seize opportunities as change initiatives occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. Integrated Leader
A

searches for ways to use the structure and discipline as individual change projects are created and implemented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. Bolt-on Leader
A
  • strives to gain control of a changing situation by attaching change management techniques to projects to pressure for change
  • more concerned about helping others change than creating change itself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. Panacea Leader
A

believes that the way to respond to pressure for change is to communicate and motivate, understanding that resistance to change is inevitable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. Rational Leader
A

focuses on how to control change with logical planning and clearly defined steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. Anti-change Leader
A

seeks to avoid change as much as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

6 Leadership Styles Related to Change

A
  1. anti-change
  2. rational
  3. panacea
  4. bolt-on
  5. integrated
  6. continuous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Decentralized Operations

A

daily operations decision-making responsibilities are delegated by top managers to middle or low management so top-level managers can focus on strategical planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Cultural Change

A

refers to adjustments to the typical patterns of thinking and behaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Technological Change

A

adjustment to existing, or implementation of new tech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Structural Change

A
  • changes in overall formal relationships
  • changes should be made to support broader objectives to centralize or decentralize operations, empower employees, or find greater efficiencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Types of Changes

A
  1. Structural
  2. Technological
  3. Cultural
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

POLC (BPR Steps)

A

plan: need for new strategy
organize: create new design
lead: decision making
control: requires change management skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Business Processing Re-engineering (BPR)

A

a business management strategy that focuses on the analysis of workflows and processes to encourage full scale recreation of processes rather than optimization of sub processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Change Management

A

all processes involved to prepare, support, and lead individual’s groups, or organizations in making a change to a desired future state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

5 Steps of Project Management

A
  1. define the project
  2. list all tasks associated with the project
  3. estimate resources needed
  4. identify constraints and considerations
  5. develop implementation plans
89
Q

Project Management

A

leading the work of a team to achieve goals within a defined time frame

90
Q

2 Approaches that Help Early Stage Budget Process

A
  • accounting for early uncertainty

- creating stakeholder buy-in

91
Q

Job vs Process Costing

A
  • different jobs with different production requirements vs. single product produced over time
  • accumulates cost by individual jobs vs. accumulates cost by process or department
92
Q

Job Costing

A
  • the total cost and revenue estimation by job or project

- usually used when an organization can identify separate products or produce goods to meet a customer’s specific need

93
Q

Contingency Plan

A

defines alternate paths for the project in case various difficulties are encountered i.e errors in estimates and inevitable delays

94
Q

Opportunity Cost

A

any time a decision is made to spend money on one course of action

95
Q

Sunk Cost

A

any cost resulting from a missed opportunity that cannot be recovered

96
Q

Cash-flow Forecast

A

“early warning system” that includes cash on hand, expected receipts, and expected disbursements

97
Q

Optimal Cash Balance Determined by 4 Reasons for Holding Money

A
  • transactions: holding $ to cover outstanding debts
  • precautionary measures: maintaining $ for unexpected disbursements
  • speculative measures: if an organization is planning to invest, it will hold a speculative amount to take advantage of opportunity
  • financial measures: to acquire assets, an organization must accumulate and hold a certain amount of $
98
Q

Managing Cash Flow Objectives

A
  • accelerating cash inflows
  • delaying cash outflows
  • investing cash surplus’
  • borrowing cash at best possible terms
  • maintaining optimum level of cash
99
Q

Sales Budget (master budget)

A

provides info for production budget to estimate demand for goods, and determining if realistic, attainable profit can be achieved based on demand

100
Q

Deming Cycle

A

used to organize budgeting and implementation functions consisting of 4 phases:

  1. planning
  2. doing
  3. checking
  4. acting
101
Q

Cash Disbursements

A

money allocated for purchases, wages, rent, interest, income, taxes, and cash dividends

102
Q

Cash Reciepts

A

money flowing into a business including cash from sales, cash from debtors, short terms bank financing, AR financing, and inventory financing

103
Q

Administrative Expenses

A

nonmanufacturing costs that include the costs of top administrative functions including accounting, data processing, admin salaries, and office supplies

104
Q

Selling Expenses

A

costs incurred to obtain customer order and get the finished product in the customer’s possession including ads, market research, commissions, and delivery fees

105
Q

Direct Labor Costs

A

the labor costs of all employees actually working on materials to convert them into finished goods

106
Q

Fixed Expenses

A

costs that remain the same no matter how many units are sold–the more sold, the more expense is distributed including rent, heat, insurance etc

107
Q

Variable Costs

A

change in relation to a specific variable such as how many units are sold–the higher the forecast, the higher the selling expenses including labor, materials, and shipping costs

108
Q

Overhead

A

the necessary expenses of running a business that cannot be directly linked to a good or service

109
Q

Selling, Admin, and General (SG+A)

A

support costs such as salaries

110
Q

Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)

A

all costs in material, labor, and overhead that are directly required for the production and or manufacturing of a good

111
Q

Expenses

A

the overall costs of acquiring sales revenues divided into 2 catergories: COGS and SG+A

112
Q

Opportunity Cost

A

the inability to pursue another alternative that offers a potential gain after making a choice

113
Q

Just-In-Time Inventory System

A

inventory method designed to increase efficiency, decrease waste, and cut costs by only having the inventory on hand that is currently needed to fill orders

114
Q

Production Budget

A

consists of costs inside the organization where the principle objective is to coordinate the production and sale of goods in terms of time and quantity

115
Q

Operating Budget (master budget)

A

made up of the sales plan, production plan, material purchasing plan, labor and hiring , and administrative discretionary spending data

116
Q

2 Components of the Master Budget

A
  1. Operating Budget

2. Sales Budget

117
Q

Pro forma

A

financial report based on hypothetical scenarios

118
Q

Equity

A

value of a property after debt is deducted or the value of shares of stick issued by an organization

119
Q

Liabilities

A

state of responsibility for something that an organization or individual owes

120
Q

Asset

A

resources that have economic value and from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the enterprise–“things you own”

121
Q

3 Dimensions for Assessing the Need for Change

A
  1. scope of change
  2. level of change
  3. intentionality of change
122
Q
  1. Scope of Change (dimensional change)
A

refers to the degree to which the required change will disrupt current patterns: incremental, transformational, and strategic

123
Q

Incremental Change

A

small refinements that do no challenge, but rather improve existing practices

124
Q
  1. Level of Change
A

the range of the systems that need to be changed i.e individual, group, and organizational

125
Q
  1. Intentionality of Change
A

refers to the degree to which the change is intentionally designed or purposefully implemented

126
Q

Transformational Change

A

significant shifts in an organizational system that may disrupt some aspect of the organization, its processes, or structure

127
Q

Strategic Change

A

change that is either incremental or transformational that helps align operations within its mission

128
Q

Lean (standard incremental change practice)

A

focused on customer value

129
Q

Six Sigma (standard incremental change practice)

A

method used to increase performance and decrease variation in process

130
Q

5 External Considerations that can Motivate Change

A
  1. economics: fluctuations in economic cycles
  2. competition: mergers, new products, and bankruptcies
  3. technology: adapting to new tech
  4. globalization: catering to new demographics
  5. legislation: law changes requiring environmental change
131
Q

3 Internal Forces that can Motivate Change

A
  1. management change: new executives
  2. organizational restructuring: disrupting hierarchies
  3. intrapreneurship: capitalizing on new ideas from inside the organization
132
Q

Organizational Development (OD)

A

an organization that facilitates the learning of its members and continually transforms itself

133
Q

Lewin’s Change Model (3 Stage Model of Change)

A
  1. unfreeze: identify the need for change by clearly defining the situation, create vision, and identify forces to drive the change
  2. change: the internal movement taken in reaction to the change in the form of training
  3. refreeze: reinforcing and maintaining change
134
Q

Top-down Change

A
  • relies on mechanistic assumptions about the nature of an organization
  • small groups design processes on how to change
  • relies on formal organization to drive the change
135
Q

Bottom-up Change

A

relies on the belief that employees will be more invested in change if they play a part in the design process

136
Q

Department Silos

A

when employees focus on the local optimization at the expense of the entire system

137
Q

4 Elements of Change Management

A
  1. recognizes changes
  2. develops necessary adjustments
  3. trains employees on appropriate changes
  4. win the support of employees
138
Q

Culture

A

the overarching mentality and expectations of behavior

139
Q

3 Levels of Corporate Culture

A
  1. fundamental assumptions about human behavior that are ingrained and difficult to identify
  2. expressed values drawn from assumptions: appearing the form standards, and rules of an organization’s philosophy
  3. artifacts that are the outcome of the assumptions and values: appearing in the form of actions, and policies
140
Q

Role Modeling

A

the process by which employees modify their own behaviors and beliefs to reflect those of the leader

141
Q

Active Resistance

A

the most negative reaction to proposed change through sabotage and outspoken objectors

142
Q

Passive Resistance

A

being disturbed by changes without voicing so

143
Q

Perception

A

the organization, identification, and interpretation of sensory information to represent and understand the environment

144
Q

Factors that Determine Perceptual Organization

A
  • figure-head
  • perceptual grouping
  • closure
  • proximity
  • similarity
  • perceptual constancy
  • perceptual context
145
Q

Figure-head (perception factors)

A

stands out against background

146
Q

Perceptual Grouping (perception factors)

A

perceptions brought together in pattern

147
Q

Closure (perception factors)

A

tendency to try to create wholes out of perceived parts

148
Q

Proximity (perception factors)

A

perceptions physically close together

149
Q

Similarity (perception factors)

A

similarity between perceptions

150
Q

Perceptual Constancy (perception factors)

A

the expectations of how perceptions were perceived in the past in present time

151
Q

Perceptual Context (perception factors)

A

tendency to organize perceptions in relation to other perceptions

152
Q

Bias

A

a pattern of deviant judgement usually in a way that is considered unfair or unjust

153
Q

Bias Derivations

A

info processing shortcuts, mind’s limited processing capacity, and emotional motivations

154
Q

Heuristics

A

a problem solving approach that uses a more practical method, usually as an aid to learning

155
Q

The Types of Perceptual Distortions

A
  • confirmation bias
  • self serving bias
  • belief bias
  • framing
  • causality
156
Q

Confirmation Bias (perceptual distortion)

A

human tendency to manipulate new info until they match their preconceived notions

157
Q

Self Serving Bias (perceptual distortion)

A

the tendency to take credit for success while passing failure onto others

158
Q

Belief Bias (perceptual distortion)

A

making decisions without all the facts

159
Q

Framing (perceptual distortion)

A

ignoring relevant facts by narrowing down what is considered applicable to a given situation

160
Q

Causality (perceptual distortion)

A

analyzing past events to predict future outcomes

161
Q

Impression Management

A

a goal directed conscious or unconscious process in which people attempt to influence the perceptions of others by controlling information in social interactions

162
Q

Impression Management Theory

A

states that any individual or organization must establish and maintain impressions that are congruent with the perceptions it wants to convey

163
Q

Self-efficacy

A

describes whether a person is confident about being able to convey the intended impression successfully

164
Q

The 5 Personality Traits

A
  1. Openness: curiosity and open to new ideas
  2. Conscientiousness: self disciplines and dependable
  3. Extraversion: positive emotions and sociability
  4. Agreeableness: showing compassion and cooperativeness
  5. Neuroticism: vulnerability to unpleasant emotions
165
Q

Human Capital

A

the economic value of a worker’s experience and skills

166
Q

2 Types of Forecasting

A
  1. determining the quantity and quality of people needed to provide trained staffing for future opportunity
  2. estimating the internal supply of people currently employed who have the skills to fill anticipated future jobs
167
Q

Job Analysis

A

the process of collecting info about the specifics of each job in the manager’s department or unit

168
Q

Human Capital Management

A

a strategic process that ensures decisions and proposals are backed with data derived from research and analysis of organizational activities

169
Q

Value-added Ratios

A

the time spent adding value to a good or service divided by the total time from the receipt of the order until it’s delivery

170
Q

Restructuring (internal hiring strategy)

A

reducing staff, or regrouping tasks to design better positions

171
Q

Training (internal hiring strategy)

A

current employees taking on new roles

172
Q

McClelland’s Theory on the Motives for Learning

A

achievement, power, and affiliation

173
Q

How Learning Takes Place

A

trial and error, self taught, observation, and adapting previous knowledge to new circumstances

174
Q

Career Path Management

A

refers to the structured planning and active management of an employee’s professional career

175
Q

Short-term goal

A

usually specific and limited in scope and are easier to formulate–1 to 3 years

176
Q

Intermediate goal

A

tend to be less specific, more open ended, and harder to formulate–3 to 5 years

177
Q

Long-term goal

A

most fluid, lack knowledge and experience, and are difficult to formulate–over 20 years

178
Q

Performance Appraisals (PA)

A

the process of assessing an employee’s job performance and productivity conducted based on previously established criteria

179
Q

Feedback model

A

start: what should employee improve?
stop: what should employee stop doing?
continue: what does employee excel in and keep doing?

180
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

the process of looking at the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats when strategizing the best path to meet the organization’s mission

181
Q

Goals vs. Objectives

A
  • not easily measured vs. specific and measurable

- goal vs. a series of objectives to meet a goal

182
Q

Career Development

A

A process developed to help people manage their career, learn new things, and take steps to improve

183
Q

The 4 Steps in Employee Training Processes

A
  1. orientation
  2. in-house training
  3. mentoring
  4. external training
184
Q

Types of Training Methods

A
  • on the job coaching
  • mentoring
  • brown bag lunches
  • job shadowing
  • job swapping
  • vestibule (conference/classroom)
  • web based
185
Q

Substantive (type of conflict)

A

deals with aspect of a team’s work or how they work together involving disagreements over policies and procedures

186
Q

Perception Checking

A

a strategy to help monitor reactions and perceptions about people and communication

187
Q

Kolb Learning Cycle

A

experience, reflection, conceptualization, reframe understanding, and experimenting with new perspective

188
Q

Gibbs Reflective Cycle

A

Experience, feelings, evaluation, analysis, conclusion, and action plan

189
Q

Passive Listening

A

Listening to someone but don’t verify that you understand what is being said

190
Q

3 Distinct Types of Messages

A

Primary: intentional content both verbal and nonverbal

Secondary: unintentional content both verbal and nonverbal

Auxiliary: intentional and unintentional Waze a primary message is communicated including voice inflection and gestures

191
Q

Triple Bottom Line

A

How decision might affect an organization economically, socially, and environmentally

192
Q

3 Models of Communication

A
  1. Transmission: One-way process were center intentionally transmits message
  2. Interaction: Two-way process when participants alternate positions at sender and receiver
  3. Transaction: When communications generate social realities
193
Q

8 Components of the Communication Process

A 
source
message
channel
receiver
feedback
environment
context
noise
194
Q
  1. Primary Approaches to Conflict Resolution
A

integrative: Focusing on finding resolution that meets everyone’s needs
distributive: Finds ways to divide a fixed number of positive outcomes were one side comes out ahead of the other
mediating: Brings in third-party to facilitate resolution

195
Q

Constructive Conflict Resolution

A
  • an opportunity for change, growth, and understanding

- shifting from judgements to curiosity

196
Q

Thomas-Kilman Instrument Model (TKI)

A
  1. competing: attempting to satisfy self needs
  2. collaborative: both parties win conflict
  3. avoiding: concerns of both parties are neglected
  4. accommodating: greater concern for others
  5. compromising: neither party wins or loses as an acceptable outcome
197
Q

3 Primary Tactics to Manage Conflict

A

smoothing: minimizing differences by reducing emotional intensity
yielding: the choice to give and rather than engage in conflict
avoiding: choosing to ignore all but the most contentious disagreements

198
Q

The seven most common decision making biases

A

irrational stubbornness: stick to the plan
zero-sum thinking: if you win, I lose
anchoring bias: original $3000, today $2000
framing: presentation matters
first impression bias: value on first presented data
shared negotiation: 2 parties in negotiation
overconfidence: I won once, I will win again

199
Q

4 Types of Conflict Sources

A

personality differences: different values

informational deficiencies: not sharing critical info

role incompatibility: power conflicts

environmental stresses: setting unrealistically high goals

200
Q

Intragroup (level of conflict)

A

between different individuals in the same group usually as a result of incompatible personalities

201
Q

Intergroup (level of conflict)

A

between different groups as a result of competition for resources

202
Q

Intrapersonal (levels of conflict)

A

within an individual that is psychological

203
Q

Interpersonal (levels of conflict)

A

between individuals with different goals or personality—compromise for personal growth

204
Q

Equity

A

value of a property after death is deducted or the value of shares of stock issued by an organization

205
Q

Organizational Development (employee potential improvement)

A

focuses more on strategy, roles and processes that help both the organization and its people

206
Q

Six Sigma (standard incremental change practice)

A

method used to increase performance and decrease variation in process

207
Q

The 2 Types of Conflict

A
  1. substantive or issue focused

2. affective or people focused

208
Q

The 3 Managerial Role Categories

A
  1. interpersonal: relational interaction and management
  2. informational: gathering, analyzing, storing and disseminating info
  3. decisions: the responsibility of making choices on behalf of the organization
209
Q

Strategic Goals (3–5 years)

A

Long-term, having lasting consequences, are expensive, and include decisions involving tech usage, labor, and capacity to meet customer need

210
Q

Soft Skills

A

refers to personality traits, social graces, and communication that are used to characterize relationships with others

211
Q

The 4 Categories of Operational Strategy

A
  1. developing a well-integrated company using corporate strategies
  2. producing products and services with a focus on customer service
  3. maximizing the organizations core competencies
  4. creating a system to measure competitive priorities
212
Q

Training and Development (employee potential improvement)

A

short term and focused on meeting objectives to more effectively do a job (training) and long-term and more goal oriented (development)

213
Q

3 Dimensions for Assessing the Need for Change

A
  1. scope for change
  2. level for change
  3. intentionality of change
214
Q

3 Main Types of Conflict

A
  1. simple
  2. pseudo
  3. ego
215
Q
  1. Simple (types of conflict)
A

stems from different standpoints where you understand each other but disagree

216
Q
  1. Pseudo (types of conflict)
A

misunderstanding due to miscommunication were one or both failed to convey with the other was trying to convey

217
Q
  1. Ego (types of conflict)
A

when discussion shipped from issues to personal attacks

218
Q

Affective (type of conflict)

A

arises as a result of inherent differences between team members often based on different communication or personality styles

Fundamentals of Success in Business (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions