Benzos, anxiolytics, and mood stabilizers Flashcards

1
Q

What two properties do benzodiazepines have?

A

anxiolytic and hypnotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do anxiolytics do?

A

reduces anxiety with little effect on motor function and moderates excitement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do hypnotics do?

A

produces drowsiness and promotes the onset and maintenance of sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two major subtypes of GABA?

A

GABAa and GABAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many subunits form a chloride channel and GABAa receptor?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What receptors can benzodiazepines bind to?

A

alpha 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which alpha receptor controls sleep

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which alpha receptors are responsible for anxiolytic, muscle relaxation?

A

2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which alpha receptor affects cognition?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOA of benzodiazepines?

A

increase the frequency of Cl channel opening through allosteric modulation, allowing influx of chloride ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the adverse effects of benzodiazepines?

A
  1. dose-dependent CNS depression
  2. drowsiness, impaired judgment
  3. anterograde amnesia
  4. lethargy
  5. respiratory depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the most common side effects of typical use of benzos?

A
  1. sedation
  2. drowsiness
  3. memory difficulties
  4. fatigue
  5. muscle weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the most common symptoms of benzo overdose?

A
  1. over-sedation
  2. confusion
  3. dysarthria
  4. diplopia
  5. ataxia
  6. lethargy
  7. dizziness
  8. difficulty breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the contraindications for benzodiazepines?

A
  1. hypersensitivity
  2. acute narrow angle glaucoma
  3. sleep apnea
  4. respiratory insufficiency
  5. concomitant CNS depressants
  6. Hx of drug dependence
  7. abrupt withdrawal
  8. falls and mental alertness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the withdrawal symptoms for benzos?

A
  1. anxiety
  2. agitation
  3. insomnia
  4. restlessness
  5. muscle tension
  6. irritability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is considered short term use of a benzo?

A

4-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long should a patient taper off of short term benzo use?

A

1-2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How long should a patient taper off of long term benzo use?

A

2-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long should a patient taper off of extended benzo use?

A

2-3 months (10-25% q4wks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is considered long term benzo use?

A

greater than 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which benzo has a rapid onset and distribution half life?

A

diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which benzo is highly lipophilic and crosses the BBB readily?

A

diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What benzo is the only pregnancy category X?

A

temazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the MOA of buspirone?

A

5HT1A partial agonist and 5HT2 agonist, moderate dopamine antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the onset of buspirone?

A

greater than 2 weeks (not a good prn drug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the uses for buspirone?

A

GAD and off-label MDD (adjunct therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the MOA of hydroxyzine?

A

histamine receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the approved uses of hydroxyzine?

A

pruritus and anxiety withdrawal symptoms in alcoholics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the off-label uses of hydroxyzine?

A

insomnia and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the onset of hydroxyzine?

A

15-20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is one of the favorable factors of hydroxyzine?

A

no abuse liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the adverse effects of hydroxyzine?

A

anticholinergic effects: sedation, dry mouth, and tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the black box warning on the mood stabilizers?

A

increased suicidality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which mood stabilizer does not have the black box warning?

A

lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the MOA of lithium?

A

1) It’s thought to alter cation transport across nerve and muscle cell membranes
2) influences reuptake of serotonin and/or norepinephrine
3) effect on second messenger systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the CrCl cutoff of lithium?

A

< 50 mL/min

37
Q

Since lithium is a NTI drug, when are drug levels taken?

A

8-12 hours post dose (trough)

38
Q

What is the goal lithium level for acute depression?

A

0.6-1.0

39
Q

What is the goal lithium level for maintenance/prophylaxis?

A

0.7-1.0

40
Q

What is the goal lithium level for acute mania?

A

1.0-1.5

41
Q

What is the drug level cut off for lithium toxicity?

A

> 1.5 with symptoms

42
Q

What is more important in the management of lithium toxicity?

A

treating symptoms rather than drug levels

43
Q

What should you do if a patient does not have symptoms of toxicity?

A

redraw level to make sure it was a trough

44
Q

What are the mild symptoms of lithium toxicity (1.5-2.0)?

A
  1. N/V
  2. loose stools
  3. lethargy
  4. drowsiness
  5. coarse hand tremor
  6. muscular weakness
45
Q

What are the moderate symptoms of lithium toxicity (2.1-2.5)?

A
  1. severe N/V
  2. diarrhea
  3. confusion
  4. dysarthria
  5. nystagmus
  6. ataxia
  7. myoclonic twitches
46
Q

What are the severe symptoms of lithium toxicity (> 2.5)?

A
  1. severe N/V
  2. diarrhea
  3. impaired consciousness
  4. increased deep tendon reflex
  5. seizures
  6. syncope
  7. coma
47
Q

What are the baseline labs needed before initiation of lithium?

A
  1. BUN
  2. SCr
  3. TFT
  4. ECG if > 40 yo
  5. CBC
  6. HCG (females)
48
Q

What are the common side effects of lithium?

A

thirst, increased urination, tremor, weight gain

49
Q

What are the dose related, transient, GI side effects of lithium?

A

N/V, anorexia, diarrhea, and abdominal pain

50
Q

What are the common neuro/cognitive side effects of lithium?

A

lethargy, fatigue, weakness, and cognitive slowing

51
Q

What are the other side effects of lithium?

A

hypothyroidism, arrhythmias, acne, psoriasis, increased WBCs, and weight gain

52
Q

What drugs can increase lithium levels?

A

NSAID, ACE/ARB, CCBs, and thiazides

53
Q

What drugs can decrease lithium levels?

A

loop diuretics and caffeine

54
Q

What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity?

A

coarse tremor, ataxia, confusion, and visual changes

55
Q

What are the severe symptoms of lithium toxicity?

A

seizures, delirium, coma, and death

56
Q

What is the MOA of valproate?

A

It is a voltage-sensitive sodium channel antagonist

57
Q

No matter the formulation of valproic acid, what does it circulate in the body as?

A

valproate sodium

58
Q

When do you draw a valproate trough level?

A

1 hour prior to the next dose

59
Q

What drug specifically makes it difficult to achieve therapeutic VPA levels?

A

carbamazepine

60
Q

What are the monitoring parameters for VPA?

A

CBC w/ diff, LFTs, BUN/SCr, TDM, weight, electrolytes, ammonia, prothrombin time, bone marrow suppression, and HCG if suspicion of pregnancy

61
Q

What are the common side effects of VPA?

A

N/V, anorexia, heartburn, thrombocytopenia, LFT increases, liver impairment, sedation, dizziness, headache, tremor, ataxia, weakness, hair loss, and weight gain

62
Q

What is the MOA of carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine?

A

inhibits voltage-sensitive sodium channels

63
Q

Why do carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine have so many drug interactions?

A

both agents are inducers of CYP3A4

64
Q

What other enzymes does carbamazepine induce?

A

1A2, 2C9, 2C19, 2C8, and PGP

65
Q

What unique metabolism characteristic does carbamazepine have that isn’t seen with oxcarbazepine?

A

It auto-induces its own metabolism

66
Q

What are the NTI drugs?

A

carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, and lithium

67
Q

What are the renal adjustments for carbamazepine?

A

avoid if CrCl is less than 60 mL/min

68
Q

What are the renal adjustments for oxcarbazepine?

A

start with 300mg QD instead of BID if CrCl is less than 30 mL/min

69
Q

What monitoring is crucial in the 1st 3 months with carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine?

A

Chem 7

70
Q

What monitoring is needed for carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine?

A

CBC w/ diff (not for oxcarbazepine), ECG, LFT, TFT, BUN/SCr, TDM, weight, electrolytes, rash development, and HCG if suspicion of pregnancy

71
Q

What allele requires testing due to serious skin reactions?

A

HLA-B*1502

72
Q

What are the side effects of carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine?

A

GI upsets, aplastic anemia, LFT elevations, hyponatremia, and reduced efficacy of contraceptives

73
Q

What are the main differences between oxcarbazepine and carbamazepine?

A

less sedating, less bone marrow toxicity, fewer CYP3A4 interactions, and no auto-induction

74
Q

What is the MOA of lamotrigine?

A

inhibits voltage-sensitive sodium channels

75
Q

What is the interaction between lamotrigine and oral contraceptives?

A

estrogen contraceptives can reduce lamotrigine levels

76
Q

What is the dosing regimen of lamotrigine for bipolar disorder?

A

titrated slowly to avoid skin rash (SJS). 25 mg daily x 2 weeks, then 50 mg daily x 2 weeks, the 100 mg daily x 1 week, then 200 mg/day

77
Q

What should you do to the dose of lamotrigine in the presence of valproic acid or any other substance that induces glucuronidation?

A

double the dosing schedule

78
Q

What is the most severe side effect of lamotrigine that is seen in about 10% of patients?

A

Stevens Johnson syndrome

79
Q

What is the MOA of topiramate?

A

It interferes with both calcium and sodium channels, enhances GABA, and reduces glutamate function

80
Q

What is topiramate used for?

A

adjunct in bipolar (not studied enough for monotherapy as a mood stabilizer)

81
Q

What are the side effects of topiramate?

A

Dizziness, ataxia, somnolence, psychomotor slowing, memory difficulties, fatigue, decreased concentration, and confusion

82
Q

What is the MOA of pregabalin and gabapentin?

A

alpha-2-delta ligands that binds to the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage sensitive calcium channels

83
Q

What can pregabalin be used for in psych?

A

anxiety

84
Q

What are the side effects of pregabalin?

A

dizziness and cognitive impairment

85
Q

What is gabapentin used for in psych?

A

off-label for anxiety

86
Q

What are the side effects of gabapentin?

A

dizziness, drowsiness, ataxia, fatigue, and edema

87
Q

What is the biggest therapeutic consideration for gabapentin?

A

renal dose adjustments

88
Q

What is the MOA of levetiracetam?

A

inhibition of N-type calcium channels, potassium channel blockade, GABAergic actions

89
Q

What are the major side effects of levetiracetam?

A

behavioral symptoms, somnolence, headache, and hostility