Benzodiazepines (Exam I) Flashcards

1
Q

Differentiate sedatives and hypnotics.

A
  • Sedatives: induce calm/sleep
  • Hypnotics: induce hypnosis/sleep
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2
Q

When is anesthesia awareness most common?
What are the rates of this occurring?

A
  • During sedation cases and during emergence.
  • 1:1000 (or 1:10,000 per some studies)
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3
Q

What two things are associated with EEG activity?

Neuro

A
  • Less cerebral blood flow (CBF) and cerebral metabolic requirement of oxygen (CMRO₂) = less metabolism = less EEG activity.
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4
Q

What was the first compressed EEG?
Give the details of the study exploring its use.

A
  • Bispectral analysis
  • 1500 subjects w/ 5000 hours of EEG signaling
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5
Q

What drugs were utilized in the bispectral analysis study?

A
  • Isoflurane/ O₂
  • Propofol/nitrous
  • Propofol/alfentanil
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6
Q

Which drugs exhibit a strong correlation between BIS change and patient movement?
Which drugs do not exhibit this correlation?

A
  • Hypnotic drugs
  • Narcotics
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7
Q

In the BIS study, what reading/number indicated that a patient was for sure unconscious?

A
  • <58
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8
Q

In the BIS study, a reading of <65 indicated a ___% of return to consciousness within the minute.

A
  • 5%
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9
Q

What is a normal BIS range?

A
  • 40-60
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10
Q

What does a BIS closer to 60 indicate?

A

The patient is more likely to move if there’s no synergistic drug given

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11
Q

What does a BIS closer to 40 indicate?

A

Their sedation may be getting too deep and they could begin to see side effects of the drug

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12
Q

What number do we never want on BIS?

A

0 (that indicates brain death)

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13
Q

What are the four parameters (other than the BIS itself) noted on a BIS monitor?

A
  • SQI
  • EMG
  • EEG
  • SR
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14
Q

What should not display on the BIS if the patient is fully paralyzed?

A

EMG

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15
Q

What is the SR noted on a BIS monitor?
What would an SR of 0 indicate?

A
  • Suppression Ratio (how many seconds per minute that the EEG is flat)
  • SR of 0 means EEG is completely flat (could be brain death).
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16
Q

What would an SR of 100 indicate?

A

The patient is awake

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17
Q

Name drugs that could suppress EEG activity.

A
  • Hypnotics, volatiles, NMBDs, Opioids
  • β-blockers
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18
Q

Name drugs that could enhance EEG activity.

A
  • Ketamine, epinephrine
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19
Q

What are the five main functions of a benzodiazepine?

A
  • Anxiolysis
  • Sedation
  • Anterograde amnesia
  • Anticonvulsant
  • Spinal-cord mediated muscle relaxation
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20
Q

What is the only “thing” that can cause retrograde amnesia?

A
  • ECT (electroconvulsive therapy)
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21
Q

Why are written instructions given to a patient after waking up from benzodiazepine sedation?

A
  • Anterograde amnesia effects last longer than sedative effects.
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22
Q

Can benzodiazepines be substituted for NMBs due to their spinal-cord mediated skeletal muscle relaxation?

A
  • No; not adequate for true paralysis
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23
Q

__________ drugs can induce CYP450’s.

A

Barbiturates

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

A
  • Enhancement of GABA binding by changing receptor affinity. Allows for greater Cl⁻ influx and thus hyperpolarization.
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25
Which GABA site do benzodiazepines bind to?
- Trick question. Benzo's **do not** bind directly to GABA sites.
26
How many subunits are present in a GABA receptor? Where do GABA molecules bind on said receptor?
- Five - In-between the α1 & β2 subunits.
27
What subunits do Benzodiazepines bind to on the GABA receptor?
- In-between α1 & γ2
28
GABA receptors with α1 subunits exhibit what properties when bound?
- Sedation, amnesia, & anticonvulsion
29
GABA receptors with α2 subunits exhibit what properties when bound?
- Anxiolysis & skeletal muscle relaxation
30
What other drugs bind to GABA receptors besides benzodiazepines? What is the result if one of these drugs is given in conjunction with benzodiazepines?
- Barbiturates, Etomidate, Propofol, & EtOH - Risk of overdose & cross-tolerance
31
Benzodiazepines are highly _____ soluble and highly _______ bound.
- Lipid; protein
32
What factors cause differing effects amongst benzodiazepines?
- Potency - Lipid solubility - Redistribution (to peripheral tissues) - Pharmacokinetics
33
List EEG waves from greatest activity to least activity.
- Gamma → Βeta → Αlpha → Theta → Delta
34
What general effect(s) do benzodiazepines have on EEG activity?
- Decreased αlpha activity
35
What platelet effects do benzodiazepines have?
- Inhibitory towards platelet aggregation (very slight, only in vitro studies)
36
What structural characteristic of midazolam stabilizes structure and allows for rapid metabolism?
- Imidazole Ring (lots of nitrogens)
37
What two situations is midazolam primarily used for?
- Preop anxiolysis & conscious sedation
38
How much more/less potent is midazolam than diazepam? Why is this?
- 2-3x **more** potent due to greater receptor affinity.
39
What facilitates water solubility of midazolam?
- pH dependent ring opening - pH < 3.5 = open ring = water soluble & protonated. - pH > 4 = closed ring = lipid soluble & unprotonated.
40
Why is midazolam non-irritating upon injection?
- No propylene glycol needed for stabilization
41
Onset of midazolam occurs in ____ _______. Peak effect occurs in ___ _______
- Onset: 1-2 minutes. - Peak: 5 minutes
42
Why is midazolam's duration of action short?
Short due to rapid redistribution.
43
What is the Elimination ½-time of midazolam? How does this change in elderly patients?
- 2 hours - Doubled in elderly patients (4 hours-ish)
44
What is the Vd (volume of distribution) of midazolam?
- 1-1.5 L/kg (large due to lipid-solubility)
45
What metabolizes midazolam? What is the primary metabolite and it's significance?
- CYP3A4 - 1-hydroxmidazolam (½ the activity of midazolam)
46
What clears the active metabolite of midazolam?
- Kidneys
47
What drugs will inhibit CYP450's?
- Cimetidine - Erythromycin - CCBs - Antifungals - Fentanyl
48
What is midazolam's clearance in comparison to lorazepam and diazepam?
- 5x faster than lorazepam and 10x faster than diazepam.
49
How does midazolam produce an isoelectric EEG?
- Trick question. No isoelectric EEG capabilities.
50
Midazolam inhibits/preserves the vasomotor response to CO₂. What does this mean?
- Preserves: (↑CO₂ = vasodilation; ↓CO₂ = vasoconstriction)
51
Why is midazolam a good choice for neuro cases?
- No change in ICP with administration
52
What are the pulmonary effects of midazolam?
- Dose-dependent respiratory depression (increased with COPD). - Swallow reflex depression (aspiration) - Upper airway depression (aspiration)
53
What are the cardiovascular effects of midazolam?
- Dose-dependent ↑HR & ↓BP
54
How much does midazolam depress cardiac output?
- Trick Question. No CO depression; ↓SVR = ↓BP
55
Significant hypotension can occur with midazolam administration in the presence of _____________.
hypovolemia
56
What is the preop/intraop sedation dosing for midazolam in pediatric populations? When do effects peak and what is the consequence of this?
- 0.25 - 0.5 mg/kg PO route - Peaks in 20-30 min (give 30 min prior to OR)
57
What is the preop/sedation dosing of midazolam in adult populations? When does the effect peak?
- 1-5mg IV - Peaks in 5 minutes
58
What is the induction dose for midazolam? What drug is usually 2-3 minutes prior to this?
- 0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV over 30-60seconds - Fentanyl 50-100mcg
59
What is the postoperative sedation dose of midazolam? How long should midazolam be used for long-term sedation? Why is this?
- 1-7 mg/hr IV. - 2-3 days due to unclear effects on T-cell response.
60
Why does diazepam burn on injection? Is there a better formulation?
- insoluble in water so it's dissolved in propylene glycol. - Soybean formulation available but more expensive.
61
What is the onset of diazepam? What is the E ½ time of diazepam? What is the Vd of diazepam?
- Onset: 1-5 minutes - E ½ = 20-40 hours (very protein-bound) - Vd = 1-1.5 L/kg
62
What metabolizes diazepam? What are its primary metabolites and what is it's significance?
- CYP3A4 - Desmethyldiazepam & oxazepam - Metabolites are nearly as potent as diazepam and hit 6-8 hours after administration.
63
What is the seizure dosing for diazepam? What seizures is it utilized for?
- 0.1 mg/kg IV - DT's, status epilepticus, lidocaine toxicity seizures.
64
What are the EEG effects of diazepam?
- Can produce isoelectric EEG.
65
What are the pulmonary effects of diazepam?
- Minimal; any depressant effects are reversed by surgical stimulation.
66
What are diazepam's effects on the cardiovascular system? What effects would be seen with adjunct opioids?
- Minimal decreases in BP, CO, and SVR (used be agent for cardiac cases) - Additive BP changes when used with opioid.
67
What are diazepam's effects on the musculoskeletal system?
- Decreases skeletal muscle tone
68
What is the induction dose of diazepam? When would one decrease the dose by 50%?
- 0.5-1 mg/kg IV - 50% cut with elderly, liver patients, and with concurrent opioid use.
69
Of midazolam, diazepam, and lorazepam, which is the most potent sedative/amnestic?
- Lorazepam
70
Which benzodiazepine has the slowest onset of action?
- Lorazepam
71
When is peak effect seen with lorazepam?
- 20-30 min with IV dose (1-4mg)
72
What is the E ½ time of lorazepam?
- 14 hours
73
Which benzodiazepine's metabolism is less dependent on CYP450's?
- Lorazepam (better drug for liver patients)
74
When is lorazepam most useful?
- Post-operative sedation
75
What is flumazenil (Romazicon)?
- Competitive antagonist for benzodiazepine receptor. (preventative and reversal)
76
What metabolizes flumazenil? What are its metabolites?
- CYP450's - No active metabolites
77
What is the dosing of flumazenil?
- 0.2mg IV titrated to consciousness (repeat 0.1mg q1min til 1mg total)
78
What is the sedation reversal dose range of flumazenil?
- 0.3 - 0.6 mg
79
What is the complete reversal dose range of flumazenil?
- 0.5 - 1 mg
80
If the patient is still unconscious after 0.5 - 1mg of flumazenil has been given, what should be considered?
- Other intoxicants (opioids, EtOH, etc)
81
What is the duration of flumazenil?
- 30 - 60 min
82
When is flumazenil contraindicated?
- When needed antiepileptics are being given - If it precipitates acute EtOH withdrawal.