Belonio General Knowledge Area 1 Flashcards

1
Q

A hand operated tractor which is suitable for both primary and
secondary tillage used when field has been soaked for at least half
a day to soften the soil.

a. power tiller
b. puddling-type floating tiller
c. reaper
d. none of the above

A

puddling-type floating tiller

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2
Q

Optimum axle speed for puddling-type floating tiller.

a. 100 rpm
b. 250 rpm
c. 340 rpm
d. none of the above

A

250 rpm

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3
Q

It is the ratio of the drawbar power and the wheel axle power.

a. lugging efficiency
b. traction efficiency
c. mechanical efficiency
d. none of the above

A

traction efficiency

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4
Q

The sum of all resistance acting on the tractor

a. coefficient of traction
b. running resistance
c. rolling resistance
d. none of the above

A

running resistance

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5
Q

Running resistance of a tractor includes

a. rolling resistance
b. air and acceleration resistance
c. slope resistance
d. all of the above

A

rolling resistance
air and acceleration resistance
slope resistance

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6
Q

Weight transfer means

a. to move paddy from the field to the granary
b. to transfer torrens title from the landlord to the tenant
c. to shift implement’s weight to the tractor’s drive wheel in
order to improve traction
d. none of the above

A

to shift implement’s weight to the tractor’s drive wheel in
order to improve traction

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7
Q

A tractor pulls a 1.0 meter wide heavy duty offset disk harrow at
an operating speed of 6 kph. What is the theoretical field capacity
of the machine?

a. 0.6 ha/hr
b. 0.06 ha/hr
c. 6 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.6 ha/hr

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8
Q

Automatic Draft Control in a modern farm tractor:

a. automatically controls the amount of air passing through the
radiator to regulate the operating temperature of the engine
b. positions the implement at a constant height or depth relative to
the tractor
c. is the hydraulic implement hitch system which automatically
raises or lowers a soil engaging implement to maintain its draft
at a pre-selected value
d. none of the above

A

is the hydraulic implement hitch system which automatically
raises or lowers a soil engaging implement to maintain its draft
at a pre-selected value

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9
Q

An international testing center for tractor.

a. International Rice Research Institute
b. NEBRASKA
c. International Farm Machinery Institute
d. none of the above

A

NEBRASKA

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10
Q

When a machine is driven directly from the shaft of a power
source, the power is transmitted using:

a. gear drive
b. sprocket and chain drive
c. direct drive
d. none of the above

A

direct drive

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11
Q

Belt size designation for agricultural V-belt is:

a. A, B, C, D, E
b. HA, HB, HC, HD, HE
c. AA-BB-CC-DD-EE
d. none of the above

A

HA, HB, HC, HD, HE

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12
Q

It is a gripping device between power source.

a. clutch
b. chain
c. springs
d. none of the above

A

clutch

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13
Q

Machine element that transmit torque and power.

a. pulley
b. bearing
c. shaft
d. none of the above

A

shaft

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14
Q

It is used to fasten shaft pulleys and hubs of gears together.

a. bolt
b. springs
c. keys
d. none of the above

A

keys

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15
Q

A universal joint is:

a. a connector which can be used on all brands of tractor
b. used to transmit power between two intersecting shafts usually
when the angle between them is variable
c. a prohibited drug used universally
d. none of the above

A

used to transmit power between two intersecting shafts usually
when the angle between them is variable

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16
Q

A diesel engine that operates at 2500 rpm will be used to drive an
irrigation pump which should turn at 1000 rpm. The pulley
diameter for the pump is 4 inches. What is the recommended
pulley for the engine?

a. 2 in.
b. 4 in.
c. 10 in.
d. none of the above

A

2 in.

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17
Q

An irrigation pump shall be driven by a single cylinder engine.
The set-up has the following data: Engine rpm=2200, Pump
rpm=1800, Diameter of Engine Pulley=25 cm, what should the
diameter of the second pulley be?

a. 35.05 cm.
b. 30.55 cm
c. 53.05 cm
d. none of the above

A

30.55 cm

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18
Q

The length of a flat-belt pulley drive with the following data is:
Diameter of first pulley=300 mm, diameter of second pulley=400
mm, center distance of the pulley shaft=10 meters.

a. 20.15 m
b. 21.05 m
c. 25.01 m
d. none of the above

A

21.05 m

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19
Q

A corn sheller cylinder will be driven by 10 hp diesel engine thru
a V-belt drive. The engine has a speed of 1800 rpm while the
required speed of the corn sheller is 650 rpm. The effective
diameter of the driver pulley is 12 inches. What should be the
diameter of the driven pulley?

a. 25 in.
b. 33 in.
c. 42 in.
d. none of the above

A

33 in.

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20
Q

In the given problem in item above, what is the required length of
V-belt if the center distance between pulleys is 60 in.

a. 169 in.
b. 192.5 in.
c. 210 in.
d. none of the above

A

192.5 in.

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21
Q

If the belt has a capacity rating of 4.5 hp per belt, how many belts
are recommended for the drive?

a. 1 belt
b. 2 belts
c. 4 belts
d. none of the above

A

2 belts

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22
Q

What is the recommended shaft diameter for the drive in item

a. 1⁄2 in.
b. 3⁄4 in.
c. 1 in.
d. none of the above

A

3⁄4 in.

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23
Q

A type of plow that is widely adapted in breaking different types
of soil for turning and covering crop residues.

a. rotary plow
b. moldboard plow
c. disk plow
d. all of the above

A

moldboard plow

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24
Q

The power required in pulling an implement.

a. wheel power
b. brake power
c. drawbar power
d. none of the above

A

drawbar power

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25
Q

A tillage equipment which displaces and shatters soil, used to
reduce soil strength and to bury or mix plant materials and
fertilizers in the tilled layer.

a. primary tillage equipment
b. secondary tillage equipment
c. seeding and planting equipment
d. none of the above

A

primary tillage equipment

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26
Q

A tillage implement consisting of two or four gangs of concave
disks.

a. disk plow
b. disk harrow
c. cultivator
d. none of the above

A

disk harrow

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27
Q

A tillage implement which shatters the soil without complete
burial or mixing of surface materials.

a. chisel plow
b. lister plow
c. disk plow
d. none of the above

A

chisel plow

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28
Q

Mechanical manipulation of soil for any purpose.

a. land grading
b. tillage
c. earth moving
d. none of the above

A

tillage

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29
Q

A procedure in which planting is made directly into an essentially
unprepared seedbed.

a. zero tillage
b. no-tillage planting
c. reduced tillage
d. none of the above

A

zero tillage

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30
Q

The pushing or rolling of soil by a steeply inclined blade.

a. bulldozing
b. chiselling
c. subsoiling
d. none of the above

A

bulldozing

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31
Q

A secondary tillage operation which pulverizes, smoothens, and
packs the soil during seedbed preparation and also controls weeds.

a. harrowing
b. listing
c. chiselling
d. none of the above

A

harrowing

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32
Q

A tillage and land forming operation using a tool which splits the
soil and turns two furrows laterally in opposite directions, thereby
providing a ridge-and-furrow soil configuration.

a. listing
b. harrowing
c. chiselling
d. none of the above

A

listing

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33
Q

Minimum soil manipulation necessary for crop production or for
meeting tillage requirements under existing soil condition.

a. no-tillage planting
b. much tillage
c. minimum tillage
d. none of the above

A

minimum tillage

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34
Q

A tool which cuts plants materials and soil ahead of another tool.

a. coulter
b. jointer
c. injector
d. two of the above

A

d. two of the above

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35
Q

The force to propel an implement in the direction of travel.

a. draft
b. drawbar horsepower
c. side draft
d. none of the above

A

draft

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36
Q

The angle, in a vertical plane perpendicular to the direction of
travel, between a centralized tool or reference axis and the soil
surface.

a. tilt angle
b. lift angle
c. side angle
d. none of the above

A

tilt angle

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37
Q

It is deep chiselling below 16 in. for the purpose of loosening soil
for root growth and/or water movement.

a. ridging
b. chiselling
c. subsoiling
d. none of the above

A

subsoiling

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38
Q

It is the part of the moldboard plow that receives the furrow slice
from the share and turns to break, crush, and pulverize the soil.

a. share
b. shin
c. moldboard
d. all of the above

A

moldboard

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39
Q

The part of the moldboard plow which is used to cut the soil.

a. share
b. shin
c. moldboard
d. all of the above

A

share

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40
Q

It is a part of the plow bottom which helps to counteract the side
pressure exerted by the furrow slice.

a. shin
b. landside
c. share
d. none of the above

A

landside

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41
Q

A type of implement which is directly attached to the tractor and
its power lift is dependent upon the tractor engine for its general
operation.

a. semi-integral
b. integral-mounted
c. training or pull
d. none of the above

A

integral-mounted

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42
Q

A type of implement type which is supported by two or three
wheels and is hitched to the drawbar of the tractor where it is
being pulled.

a. integral-mounted
b. trailing
c. semi-integral
d. none of the above

A

trailing

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43
Q

A type of plow which is equipped with plow bodies which turns
the furrow slice to one side only.

a. one-way plow
b. two-way plow
c. two of the above
d. none of the above

A

one-way plow

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44
Q

A type of plow which has two sets of bodies mounted
symmetrically on a share frame which can be rotated over 180
degrees along the longitudinal axis.

a. reversible plow
b. one-way plow
c. lister plow
d. none of the above

A

reversible plow

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45
Q

The draft of a plow is dependent on the:

a. size of the plow
b. plowing depth
c. type of soil
d. all of the above

A

size of the plow
plowing depth
type of soil

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46
Q

The factors that affect the draft of the plow:

a. soil condition
b. hitch to the tractor
c. topography
d. all of the above

A

soil condition
hitch to the tractor
topography

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47
Q

Percentage of work done in pulling an average plow.

a. 50 %
b. 18 %
c. 30%
d. none of the above

A

18 %

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48
Q

Percentage of work of plow used in cutting furrow slice.

a. 43%
b. 58%
c. 24%
d. none of the above

A

43%

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49
Q

Percentage of work of plow used in turning slice of soil.

a. 34%
b. 25%
c. 60%
d. none of the above

A

34%

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50
Q

A point in which all the horizontal and vertical forces in the plow
meets.

a. side draft
b. center of resistance
c. center of gravity
d. none of the above

A

center of resistance

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51
Q

Drawbar horsepower is a factor of:

a. force exerted by plow
b. speed of plow
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

force exerted by plow
speed of plow

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52
Q

What is the force required to pull a single moldboard plow on a
clay loam soil having a width and depth of cut of 30 cm and 15
cm, respectively. Soil draft is 8 psi.

a. 314 kg
b. 253 kg
c. 157 kg
d. none of the above

A

253 kg

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53
Q

If the plow above has an average speed of 5 km/hr, what is the
drawbar horsepower of the plow.

a. 4.6 hp
b. 3.4 hp
c. 5.1 hp
d. none of the above

A

4.6 hp

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54
Q

A type of plow designed to reduce friction by making a rolling
bottom instead of slides along the furrow.

a. moldboard
b. rotary plow
c. disk plow
d. none of the above

A

disk plow

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55
Q

A primary-tillage plow used for small rice farm.

a. moldboard
b. rotary
c. spiral
d. all of the above

A

moldboard
rotary
spiral

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56
Q

A primary- tillage plow for rice farming that is attached in
replacement to the cage wheel of a power tiller.
a. rotary
b. spiral
c. disk
d. all of the above

A

spiral

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57
Q

An angle of the disk plow in reference to the vertical plane.
a. tilt angle
b. disk angle
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

tilt angle

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58
Q

An angle of the disk plow in reference to the direction of travel of
the plow.
a. tilt angle
b. disk angle
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

disk angle

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59
Q

A plow that combines the primary and secondary tillage at the
same time. It is used to cut and to pulverize the soil.
a. disk plow
b. rotary plow
c. chisel plow
e. all of the above

A

rotary plow

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60
Q

The power requirement of a rotary tiller for primary tillage.
a. 50 kW/m
b. 30 kW/m
c. 70 kW/m
d. all of the above

A

30 kW/m

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61
Q

A plow primarily for loosening the soil.
a. lister plow
b. disk plow
c. chisel plow
d. all of the above

A

chisel plow

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62
Q

A plow that is used to break up plow sole.
a. chisel plow
b. lister plow
c. subsoiler
d. none of the above

A

subsoiler

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63
Q

A secondary-tillage implement which stirs the soil using multiple
number of disk blade arranged on a gang.
a. spike tooth harrow
b. disk harrow
c. two of the above
d. none of the above

A

disk harrow

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64
Q

A gang arrangement on a disk harrow consisting of two gangs of
disk placed end to end which throws the soil in opposite direction.
a. double-action
b. single-action
c. offset
d. none of the above

A

single-action

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65
Q

A gang arrangement often called as “tandem harrow”.
a. double-action
b. single-action
c. offset
d. none of the above

A

double-action

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66
Q

A gang arrangement in which the harrow is not centrally located
with respect to the tractor position.
a. double-action
b. single-action
c. offset
d. none of the above

A

offset

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67
Q

Factors that influence the depth of penetration of disk harrow.
a. angle of disk
b. angle of hitch
c. size of disk
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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68
Q

A trailing harrow that is hitched too high to the drawbar of the
tractor will…
a. have too deep penetration
b. have too shallow penetration
c. have right penetration
d. none of the above

A

have too shallow penetration

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69
Q

The actual coverage rate by an implement based on the total field
time.
a. field efficiency
b. effective field capacity
c. theoretical field capacity
d. none of the above

A

effective field capacity

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70
Q

A moldboard plow has:
a. lower draft than disk plow
b. higher draft than disk plow
c. equal draft than disk plow
d. all of the above

A

higher draft than disk plow

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71
Q

By increasing the disk angle, the penetration of a disk plow,
a. will be improved
b. will be the same
c. will become poor
d. none of the above

A

will be improved

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72
Q

The disk angle that will give the minimum draft for a disk plow
for a given width of cut is:
a. 30-35 deg.
b. 40-45 deg.
c. 45-50 deg.
d. none of the above

A

40-45 deg

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73
Q

Seeding directly into previously undisturbed soil.
a. much tillage
b. no-till
c. minimum tillage
d. none of the above

A

no-till

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74
Q

A tillage operation traditionally performed in preparing a seedbed
for a given crop grown in a given geographical area.
a. conventional tillage
b. conservation tillage
c. strip tillage
d. none of the above

A

conventional tillage

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75
Q

A primary tillage operation which manipulates the soil to a greater
depth than 300 mm.
a. reservoir tillage
b. deep tillage
c. ridge tillage
d. none of the above

A

deep tillage

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76
Q

An implement with integral power unit designed to provide both
mobility and power for performing agricultural operation.
a. mounted implement
b. self-propelled machine
c. trailed-mounted implement
d. none of the above

A

self-propelled machine

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77
Q

A rotary tiller has 2 m operating width. If the tractor runs at a
speed of 2 km/hr, the theoretical field capacity of the machine is:
a. 4.0 ha/hr
b. 0.4 ha/hr
c. 0.04 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.4 ha/hr

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78
Q

The field capacity of the rotary tiller was measured at 0.23 ha/hr.
If the operating width and speed of the machines are 1.5 m. and 2
kph, respectively, the field efficiency of the tiller is:
a. 64%
b. 77%
c. 85%
d. none of the above

A

77%

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79
Q

The effective field capacity of the rotary tiller tilling theoretically
at 0.4 ha/hr for an efficiency of 85% is:
a. 0.34 ha/hr
b. 0.24 ha/hr
c. 0.43 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.34 ha/hr

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80
Q

The effective field capacity of 2 moldboard plows having 25 cm
width each plowing at a speed of 7 km/hr for a field efficiency of
80% is:
a. 0.20 ha/hr
b. 0.28 ha/hr
c. 0.32 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.28 ha/hr

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81
Q

A single-bottom moldboard plows on a clay loam soil (8 psi draft)
having an effective width of cut of 0.3 m. and a depth of cut of 15
cm. What is the force exerted by a plow?
a. 230 kg
b. 253 kg
c. 310 kg
d. none of the above

A

253 kg

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82
Q

What is the drawbar horsepower of the plow in item above if the
plowing speed is 5 kph?
a. 4.6 hp
b. 3.4 hp
c. 7.4 hp
d. none of the above

A

4.6 hp

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83
Q

A 3-bottom plow is plowing at a speed of 8 kph. The effective
width per plow bottom is 25 cm. If the plowing efficiency is
80%, what is the theoretical field efficiency?
a. 0.4 ha/hr
b. 0.6 ha/hr
c. 0.7 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.6 ha/hr

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84
Q

The effective field capacity of the plow in item above is:
a. 0.48 ha/hr
b. 0.53 ha/hr
c. 0.72 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.48 ha/hr

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85
Q

What is the required drawbar pull for a 5-meter tractor drawn
spike tooth harrow with a specific draft of 89 kg/m?
a. 345 kg
b. 445 kg
c. 500 kg
d. none of the above

A

445 kg

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86
Q

What is the drawbar-horsepower of the implement in item above
if it is running at a speed of 6 kph.
a. 8 hp
b. 10 hp
c. 23 hp
d. none of the above

A

10 hp

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87
Q

Headland is:
a. the strip of the land at the ends of the field used for turning by
field machinery
b. a piece of land owned and tilled by the head of family
c. land at the top of the hill
d. none of the above

A

the strip of the land at the ends of the field used for turning by
field machinery

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88
Q

In a 200-hectare corn project, the field has to be tilled in 30 days.
What size of heavy-duty offset-disk harrow should be selected if
the tractor to be used operates at 5 kph. Assume a 75% field
efficiency and an 8-hour working day.
a. 1.5 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 2.0 m
d. none of the above

A

2.2 m

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89
Q

An equipment used to place seed in a furrow.
a. planter
b. seeder
c. broadcaster
d. all of the above

A

seeder

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90
Q

An equipment used to place plant parts to a prepared furrow.
a. planter
b. seeder
c. broadcaster
d. all of the above

A

planter

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91
Q

A machine that prepares the soil, meters the seed, and positions
the seed in one operation.
a. broadcaster
b. drill
c. field distributor
d. none of the above

A

drill

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92
Q

A machine, which is cylindrical in shape, designed for planting
pre-germinated rice seed in rows.
a. broadcaster
b. drum seeder
c. jab planter
d. none of the above

A

drum seeder

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93
Q

Determine the number of plants for a 2-hectare farm planted with
corn with a spacing of 25 cm x 45 cm.
a. 150,000 plants
b. 177,777 plants
c. 185, 877 plants
d. none of the above

A

177,777 plants

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94
Q

A scattering of seeds on the surface of prepared soil.
a. drill seeding
b. hill dropping
c. broadcasting
d. none of the above

A

broadcasting

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95
Q

It is a planting method wherein seeds are deposited, either singly
or in group, in a water soluble tape under controlled condition.
a. precision planting
b. seed-tape planting
c. hill dropping
d. none of the above

A

seed-tape planting

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96
Q

It is a machine that places rice seedlings at a proper spacing on a
well-prepared paddy soil.
a. rice seeder
b. rice transplanter
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

rice transplanter

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97
Q

When Agricultural Engineer calibrates a sprayer, he:
a. measures the diameter of a sprayer tank
b. cleans the nozzles.
c. measures and adjust its application rate
d. none of the above

A

measures and adjust its application rate

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98
Q

In the Philippines, rice is usually transplanted
a. for weed control reasons as the seedlings have a head start
over the weeds
b. to give employment to landless farm workers
c. to prevent rats and birds from eating the seeds.
d. none of the above

A

for weed control reasons as the seedlings have a head start
over the weeds

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99
Q

A mechanically-operated machine that removes weeds or grasses
from the crops.
a. seeder
b. weeder
c. cultivator
d. none of the above

A

weeder

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100
Q

It is the ratio between the number of weeds removed by the
weeder to the number of weeds present per unit area.
a. weeding index
b. weeding rate
c. weeding capacity
d. none of the above

A

weeding index

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101
Q

A machine that breaks the liquid droplets of effective size and
distributes them uniformly over the surface or space to be
protected, and regulates the amount of chemical solution to avoid
excessive application that might prove harmful or wasteful.
a. duster
b. sprayer
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

sprayer

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102
Q

Primary factor that affects the performance of the sprayer.
a. spray-particle size
b. spraying time
c. spray materials
d. none of the above

A

spray-particle size

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103
Q

It is a sprayer apparatus consisting of pressure source and controls
and specifically employing an over-the-crop boom with automizer
arranged to provide uniform coverage of the treated surfaces.
a. boom sprayer
b. knapsack sprayer
c. compressed-air sprayer
d. none of the above

A

boom sprayer

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104
Q

A field sprayer that is being carried at the back by means of a
shoulder straps.
a. compressed-air sprayer
b. knapsack sprayer
c. power sprayer
d. none of the above

A

knapsack sprayer

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105
Q

A mechanical or thermal device that produces a liquid dispersion
having a volume median diameter of less than 50 um.
a. knapsack sprayer
b. aerosol generator
c. compressed-air sprayer
e. none of the above

A

aerosol generator

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106
Q

An apparatus, which consists of a hopper, a metering unit, and a
distribution device, that uses either gravity, centrifugal force, or
pendulum action to spread granules to the surface of the entire
area to be treated.
a. broadcast spreader
b. granular applicator
c. power sprayer
d. none of the above

A

broadcast spreader

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107
Q

A machine that cuts rice stalks and places them on a windrow
where they are gathered and bound into sheaves and carried to a
thresher.
a. scythe
b. stripper harvester
c. reaper
d. combines

A

reaper

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108
Q

A machine that involves the combing the grain from the plant
while the plant remain anchored.
a. reaper
b. stripper harvester
c. combine harvester
d. all of the above

A

stripper harvester

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109
Q

A machine that detaches the grain from a panicle.
a. reaper
b. thresher
c. sheller
d. all of the above

A

thresher

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110
Q

A machine used in separating the kernels from the cob.
a. grader
b. sheller
c. thresher
d. none of the above

A

sheller

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111
Q

The part of a rice thresher which encloses the threshing cylinder
and allows the separation of the grains from the panicle.
a. threshing cylinder
b. oscillating screens
c. concave
d. none of the above

A

concave

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112
Q

A type of a mechanical thresher in which rice stalks are fed into
the threshing chamber while the stalks are either mechanically- or
manually-held during threshing operation.
a. hold-on thresher
b. throw-in thresher
c. axial-flow thresher
d. none of the above

A

hold-on thresher

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113
Q

A type of mechanical rice thresher which detaches and separates
the grains from the panicles by feeding the rice-in-stalks into the
machine.
a. axial-flow thresher
b. throw in thresher
c. hold-on thresher
d. none of the above

A

throw in thresher

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114
Q

A type of throw-in thresher wherein rice-in-stalks are fed in
between the cylinder and the concave and go directly out of the
threshing chamber.
a. axial-flow thresher
b. through-flow thresher
c. hold-on thresher
d. all of the above

A

through-flow thresher

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115
Q

A type of throw-in thresher which moves the materials being
threshed in a helical manner around the threshing cylinder.
a. axial-flow-thresher
b. through-flow thresher
c. hold-on thresher
d. all of the above

A

axial-flow-thresher

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116
Q

Factors affecting the power requirement of a rice thresher.
a. feeding rate
b. moisture content
c. length of straw
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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117
Q

It is the ratio of the weight of clean threshed grain to the grain
input.
a. threshing efficiency
b. threshing recovery
c. threshing output
d. all of the above

A

threshing recovery

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118
Q

The ratio of knife velocity to forward velocity of rice reaper.
a. 1.35
b. 2.55
c. 0.55
d. none of the above

A

1.35

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119
Q

In a field demonstration of a rice reaper with 1.2-m cutter bar
performance showed that the average travel speed of the machine
is 3 kph. The average width of cutter bar actually utilized is 1.0 m.
Time lost in crossing the dike is 5 min/ha and 10 min/ha for
repair. Turning and other idle time is 10 % of the effective
operating time while removing field obstruction and clogging is
15 min/ha. What is the field capacity of the machine?
a. 0.36 ha/hr
b. 0.25 ha/hr
c. 0.18 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.36 ha/hr

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120
Q

What is the effective field capacity of the machine in item above?
a. 0.25 ha/hr
b. 0.30 ha/hr
c. 0.35 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

0.30 ha/hr

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121
Q

What is the time lost in turning and other idle time per hectare of
the reaper in item above?
a. 10 min
b. 17 min
c. 20 min
d. none of the above

A

20 min

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122
Q

It is the ratio between the mass of fuel consumed per unit of time
and the corresponding measured power.
a. specific fuel consumption
b. fuel to mass ratio
c. fuel consumption rate
d. none of the above

A

specific fuel consumption

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123
Q

A tillage or soil preparation in which plant residues are
specifically left on or near the surface.
a. strip tillage
b. mulch tillage
c. optimum tillage
d. none of the above

A

mulch tillage

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124
Q

A steel containing 0.035-0.4 % carbon and is widely used for
production of steel plate, structural steel, bars, etc.
a. mild steel
b. hard steel
c. soft-centered steel
d. all of the above

A

mild steel

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125
Q

The center to center distance between overlapping broadcast
applications.
a. effective width
b. swath
c. broadcasting width
d. all of the above

A

swath

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126
Q

The portion of a combine comprising the mechanism for gathering
crops.
a. crop gatherer
b. star wheel
c. header
d. all of the above

A

star wheel

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127
Q

The horizontal distance, perpendicular to the direction of travel,
an implement performs its intended function in one pass.
a. implement width
b. operating width
c. side draft
d. none of the above

A

implement width

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128
Q

A gas, a liquid, or a solid used to propel or transport chemical.
a. spray material
b. spray nozzle
c. carrier
d. all of the above

A

carrier

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129
Q

The portion of an implement designed to connect the implement
to the power source.
a. connector
b. clutch
c. hitch
d. all of the above

A

hitch

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130
Q

The draft of implement in terms of force per unit area of tilled
cross-section.
a. implement draft
b. specific draft
c. line draft
d. all of the above

A

specific draft

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131
Q

Factor of Safety engineering science refers to:
a. the excess amount of materials designed into a machine to
ensure that it does not break down
b. the ratio of the ultimate strength of a material or component to
the working stress it is expected to be subjected to
c. the safety of workers in the factory
d. none of the above

A

the ratio of the ultimate strength of a material or component to
the working stress it is expected to be subjected to

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132
Q

A name given by a manufacturer to its product to distinguish them
from the ones produced by other manufacturers.
a. trade mark
b. manufacturer’s name
c. brand name
d. none of the above

A

brand name

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133
Q

Raise ridge formed when plowing starts in the middle of strip.
a. back furrow
b. dead furrow
c. furrow wall
d. none of the above

A

back furrow

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134
Q

Open trench left during plowing when the strips are finished.
a. dead furrow
b. back furrow
c. furrow wall
d. none of the above

A

dead furrow

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135
Q

One-thousand gallons per minute (1000 gpm) of water is to be
pumped from a river to a farm 150-ft above the river. What is the
required horsepower to drive the pump considering a pumps
efficiency of 70 % and the friction and other losses of 20 % of the
static head.
a. 64.8 hp
b. 68.4 hp
c. 48.6 hp
d. none of the above

A

64.8 hp

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136
Q

What is the total head loss in meters of the pump system in item
above.
a. 54.8 m
b. 48.5 m
c. 84.5 m
d. none of the above

A

54.8 m

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137
Q

If a diesel engine will be used to drive the pump in item above,
what is the recommended horsepower for the engine? (80%
engine efficiency)
a. 80.9 hp
b. 85.5 hp
c. 60.8 hp
d. none of the above

A

80.9 hp

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138
Q

If a gasoline engine will be used to drive the pump in item above,
what is the power requirement? (70% engione efficiency)
a. 97.2 hp
b. 102.6 hp
c. 125.7 hp
d. none of the above

A

97.2 hp

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139
Q

A farmer wishes to spray his cotton plantation at a rate of 300
gallons per hectare. Sixteen nozzles, 18 inches apart will be used.
The froward speed of the tractor will be 5 kph. Compute the field
capacity of the sprayer in hectare per hour.
a. 5.6 ha/hr
b. 3.6 ha/hr
c. 4.7 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

3.6 ha/hr

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140
Q

What is the required pump capacity for the sprayer above?
a. 23.5 gpm
b. 18.3 gpm
c. 20.6 gpm
d. none of the above

A

18.3 gpm

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141
Q

In trade circles, CIF stands for
a. Cash-In-Fist
b. Cost, Insurance, and Freight
c. Cost-In Freight
d. None of the above

A

Cost, Insurance, and Freight

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142
Q

A clutch that is used to drive a machine element in only one
direction is
a. slip clutch
b. overrunning clutch
c. friction clutch
d. none of the above

A

overrunning clutch

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143
Q

A clutch that limits the amount of torque or power that is
transmitted through the shaft to the driven member.
a. slip clutch
b. overrunning clutch
c. friction clutch
d. none of the above

A

slip clutch

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144
Q

The unbroken side of furrow is called
a. dead furrow
b. furrow wall
c. back furrow
d. none of the above

A

furrow wall

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145
Q

It is a distinguishing symbol affixed to products by a manufacturer
in order to identify them as his goods.
a. trade name
b. trade mark
c. brand name
d. all of the above

A

trade mark

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146
Q

A tractor operating at 3.5 mph develops a drawbar pull of 3000
pounds. Estimate the required drawbar horsepower for the tractor.
a. 28.0 hp
b. 20.9 hp
c. 19.8 hp
d. none of the above

A

28.0 hp

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147
Q

The specific fuel consumption of a tractor is 0.3 lbs per BHP-
hour. If the heating value of the fuel is 19500 BTU/lb, what is the

brake thermal efficiency?
a. 35.4 %
b. 54.3 %
c. 43.5 %

A

43.5 %

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148
Q

A corn plantation requires a population of 37,000 plants per
hectare. The average emergence is 90 % and the row spacing is to
be 1.2 meters. If the seed are to be drilled, what should be the seed
spacing?
a. 0.4 m
b. 0.3 m
c. 0.2 m
d. none of the above

A

0.2 m

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149
Q

What is the theoretical field capacity of a tandem disk harrow
pulled by 1.5 m wide tractor running at a speed of 10 kph?
a. 1.5 ha/hr
b. 2.5 ha /hr
c. 5.1 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

d. none of the above

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150
Q

Operating width of the implement minus the overlap is
a. implement width
b. effective width
c. operating width
d. all of the above

A

effective width

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151
Q

A soil-handling implement which turn uniform ridges of soil to
predetermined shape.
a. furrower
b. bed shaper
c. middle breaker
d. none of the above

A

bed shaper

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152
Q

When middle breaking will be carried out on the field
a. a lister is needed to form a furrow between rows of plant
b. a ridge and furrow soil is made prior to planting
c. hard soil is broken at the middle to reduce its size
d. none of the above

A

a lister is needed to form a furrow between rows of plant

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153
Q

When a material is to be inserted into the soil, the tillage to be
used is
a. jointer
b. coulter
c. injector
d. all of the above

A

injector

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154
Q

When a disk plow is set on vertical position, the plow will
a. penetrate
b. will not penetrate
c. remain in the position
d. none of the above

A

penetrate

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155
Q

A tillage system which consist of fewer or less energy intensive
optimum compared with conventional tillage.
a. minimum tillage
b. no-till tillage
c. reduce tillage
d. all of the above

A

reduce tillage

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156
Q

When 30 % or less of the soil surface is tilled, the tillage operation
employed is
a. minimum tillage
b. strip tillage
c. ridge tillage
d. all of the above

A

strip tillage

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157
Q

A soil-tool reaction in which soil slides over the surface of the
tillage tool without significant adhesion.
a. sliding
b. scouring
c. soil cutting
d. none of the above

A

scouring

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158
Q

Agricultural tractors, self-propelled machines, implement
designed for field operation are examples of
a. farmstead equipment
b. agricultural field equipment
c. agricultural implement
d. none of the above

A

agricultural field equipment

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159
Q

A self-propelled implement
a. requires a tractor in order to do its function
b. requires a stationary engine in order to do its function
c. does not require a tractor to operate
d. none of the above

A

does not require a tractor to operate

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160
Q

A booklet provided by manufacturers in which the step-by-step
procedure for repair or disassembly of parts are given.
a. operator’s manual
b. technical manual
c. product catalog
d. all of the above

A

technical manual

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161
Q

A booklet form provided by manufacturers in which adjustment,
care and maintenance procedure, and safety of the machine are
indicated.
a. operator’s manual
b. technical manual
c. product catalog
d. none of the above

A

operator’s manual

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162
Q

If hitch of a plow is placed above the vertical line of pull,
a. there will be lifting action at front of the plow and its bottom
will tend to run shallow particularly to hard ground
b. the plow share will tend to worn out easily
c. the plow bottom will penetrate deeply
d. none of the above

A

there will be lifting action at front of the plow and its bottom
will tend to run shallow particularly to hard ground

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163
Q

It is the line of pull that is straight from the center-of-load through
the point where the drawbar of the draft is attached to the drawbar
of the tractor.
a. horizontal line draft
b. vertical line draft
c. side draft
d. none of the above

A

vertical line draft

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164
Q

It is the line of draft that is straight line from the center of
resistance or load to the point where plow drawbar is attached to
the tractor drawbar.
a. horizontal line draft
b. vertical line draft
c. side draft
d. none of the above

A

horizontal line draft

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165
Q

When the center-of-load of a plow is not on the same line of the
center of power
a. there will be a side draft.
b. tractor will be partly pulled sideways.
c. forces on the tractor will be carried by the rear of the tractor
wheel.
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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166
Q

The rate of planting, or pounds of seeds planted per acre that gives
a desired quality of plants without thinning is
a. seeding rate
b. planting to stand
c. planting capacity
d. none of the above

A

planting to stand

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167
Q

A type of power sprayer where the spray pressure is built up by
the direct action of the pump on the liquid spray material
a. hydraulic sprayer
b. blower sprayer
c. hydro-pneumatic sprayer
d. all of the above

A

hydraulic sprayer

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168
Q

The size of a moldboard plow is determined
a. from the distance measured at the wing of the share to the land
side
b. from the width of the plow measured at the intersection of the
share an the moldboard
c. from the width of the moldboard
d. non of the above

A

from the distance measured at the wing of the share to the land
side

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169
Q

Tractor tire used to propel as well as to provide good floatation is,
a. implement tire
b. traction tire
c. steering tire
d. all of the above

A

steering tire

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170
Q

Bearings used for disk plow bottom are
a. tapered roller bearing
b. spherical roller bearing
c. ball bearing
d. none of the above

A

tapered roller bearing

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171
Q

A type of implement that is used to be attached to the three-point
hitch and hydraulic lift system of a tractor.
a. trailing implement
b. semi-mounted implement
c. mounted implement
d. all of the above

A

mounted implement

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172
Q

A compartment provided for the harrow to aid in penetration.
a. weight boxes
b. ballast
c. ballast compartment
d. all of the above

A

weight boxes

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173
Q

If a sprocket is used for a chain, a sheave is used for …
a. flat belt
b. gear
c. v-belt
d. all of the above

A

v-belt

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174
Q

Substance added to spray as stickers, stabilizers and conditioning
agent
a. water
b. petroleum gas
c. gelatin
d. all of the above

A

petroleum gas

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175
Q

Pump recommended for a sprayer that is used for abrasive spray
materials
a. centrifugal pump
b. diaphragm pump
c. gear pump
d. all of the above

A

diaphragm pump

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176
Q

Approximate pressure used in spraying weedicide.
a. 10-25 psi
b. 25-40 psi
c. 40-60 psi
d. none of the above

A

25-40 psi

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177
Q

To reduce the size of spray particle,
a. increase the operating pressure of the sprayer.
b. adjust the control valve opening of the sprayer.
c. adjust the opening of the spray nozzle.
d. none of the above

A

adjust the opening of the spray nozzle.

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178
Q

A machine used to kill weed seeds by microwave heating during
weeding operation
a. zapper
b. microwave oven
c. flame thrower
d. all of the above

A

zapper

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179
Q

A device used to hold spray nozzle close to the soil so those
chemicals can be sprayed on young grass in the plant row.
a. spray shield
b. spray boom
c. spray holder
d. none of the above

A

spray shield

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180
Q

It is used between the cultivator sweep and the plant row to
prevent soil from covering small young plants.
a. shield
b. fender
c. spread bar
d. none of the above

A

fender

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181
Q

When soil is thrown to the plant during cultivation, the operation
is
a. hilling-up
b. barring-off
c. listing
d. all of the above

A

hilling-up

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182
Q

When soils are thrown away from the plants during cultivation,
the operation is
a. hilling-up
b. barring-off
c. sweeping
d. none of the above

A

barring-off

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183
Q

It is the true point of hitch or center-of-pull of an implement.
a. center of power
b. center of resistance
c. center of load
d. all of the above

A

center of power

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184
Q

The effective drawbar pull of the tractor is reduced for every
percent of grade by
a. 0.1 %
b. 1 %
c. 10 %
d. none of the above

A

1 %

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185
Q

An instrument used to measure the draft of a plow
a. dynamometer
b. spring scale
c. pressure gauge
d. all of the above

A

dynamometer

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186
Q

The maximum friction in the moldboard plow is
a. at the point of share
b. between the share and the moldboard
c. at the moldboard
d. none of the above

A

at the point of share

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187
Q

A secondary tillage implement consisting of one or two in-line
gang rollers used for crushing soil clods and compacting the soil.
a. roller tiller
b. packer
c. roller harrow
d. none of the above

A

packer

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188
Q

A primary or secondary tillage implement used for broadcast or
for strip tillage and also used as chemical incorporators prior to
planting.
a. roller tiller
b. roller harrow
c. packer
d. none of the above

A

roller tiller

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189
Q

It is a plow consisting of a strongly constructed frame and a
vertical leg drawn to a subsoil and the bullet-shape attachment
creates a tube like cavity acting as a drainage channel.
a. subsoiler
b. bullet plow
c. mole plow
d. all of the above

A

mole plow

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190
Q

In designing a rice thresher, the most important factors affecting
threshing efficiency is
a. rpm of the cylinder
b. peripheral speed of the cylinder
c. diameter of the cylinder
d. none of the above

A

peripheral speed of the cylinder

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191
Q

A kind of chemical used for spraying which form a finely-divided
solid particles when mixed with water.
a. emulsion
b. suspension
c. solution
d. all of the above

A

suspension

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192
Q

An insecticide that kills insects when insects suck on plant tissues
a. contact
b. stomach
c. systemic
d. all of the above

A

systemic

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193
Q

A hitch system for a tractor suitable for large, heavy implement
for trailer
a. three-point hitch system
b. drawbar hitch system
c. semi-mounted hitch system
d. all of the above

A

drawbar hitch system

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194
Q

A tractor drive wheel under load rotates at 1200 revolution in
passing a newly cultivated field. At no load, the tractor drive
wheel is able to rotate at 1125 revolution. What is the percent
slippage of the tractor drive wheel?
a. 5.6 %
b. 6.2
c. 8.1 %
d. none of the above

A

6.2

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195
Q

Growing of more than one crop on the same land in one year
a. mixed crop
b. multiple cropping
c. inter-cropping
d. none of the above

A

multiple cropping

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196
Q

Growing of two or more crops simultaneously and intermingled
with no row arrangement.
a. mixed cropping
b. inter cropping
c. multiple cropping
d. none of the above

A

mixed cropping

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197
Q

Growing of two or more crops in alternate rows.
a. inter-planting
b. inter-cropping
c. inter-culture
d. all of the above

A

inter-cropping

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198
Q

It is a practice of planting short term annual crop with long-term
annual or biennial crops.
a. inter-planting
b. inter-cropping
c. inter-culture
d. all of the above

A

inter-planting

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199
Q

It is the cultivation of one crop underneath a perennial crop.
a. inter-planting
b. inter-cropping
c. inter-culture
d. all of the above

A

inter-culture

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200
Q

Application of chemical to a small restricted area, usually to
control the spread of pest.
a. spot treatment
b. space application
c. direct application
d. all of the above

A

spot treatment

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201
Q

Dispersion of liquid or dry particles in air in such a manner that
target pest are exposed to chemical.
a. spot treatment
b. space treatment
c. direct application
d. all of the above

A

space treatment

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202
Q

Application of chemical to the stem, fruit, leaves, needles, or
blades of a plant.
a. direct application
b. foliar application
c. space application
d. all of the above

A

foliar application

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203
Q

Application of chemical to a specific area such as row, bed, or at
base of the plant
a. direct application
b. spot treatment
c. space application
d. none of the above

A

direct application

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204
Q

Application of chemical over entire area to be treated.
a. basal application
b. band application
c. broadcast application
d. none of the above

A

broadcast application

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205
Q

Application of chemical to the base of a tree around the trunk or
by injection into slasher or cuts.
a. basal application
b. broadcast application
c. band application
d. none of the above

A

basal application

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206
Q

Application of chemical in parallel strips leaving the area between
strips free of chemicals.
a. basal application
b. broadcast application
c. band application
d. none of the above

A

band application

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207
Q

Soil blocks or masses that are cut, sheared or broken loose by
tillage tool.
a. furrow slice
b. clod
c. loose soil
d. none of the above

A

clod

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208
Q

It is a change in the value of a machine.
a. cost reduction
b. depreciation
c. lost of value
d. none of the above

A

depreciation

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209
Q

Actual rate performance of machine on land or crop processed in a
given time based upon total field time.
a. theoretical field capacity
b. effective field capacity
c. field efficiency
d. all of the above

A

effective field capacity

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210
Q

The rate of performance obtained if a machine performs its
function 100 % of the time of a given operating speed using 100
% of its theoretical width.
a. theoretical field capacity
b. effective field capacity
c. field capacity
d. none of the above

A

theoretical field capacity

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211
Q

The amount paid for hiring equipment and operating services to
perform a certain task.
a. custom cost
b. operating cost
c. variable cost
d. none of the above

A

custom cost

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212
Q

The ratio of engine power used in performing an operation to
engine power available.
a. field load tractor
b. engine efficiency
c. engine performance ratio
d. all of the above

A

field load tractor

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213
Q

A sprayer designed to charge the spray droplet so that there is a
powerful attraction between the plants and the charged droplet.
a. electromagnetic sprayer
b. electrolytic sprayer
c. electrostatic sprayer
d. all of the above

A

electrostatic sprayer

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214
Q

It is used to protect tractor operator from dust, noise, rain and
heat.
a. operator’s shield
b. chassis
c. cab
d. none of the above

A

cab

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215
Q

A device that transfer seed from the seedbox to the coulter tube at
a fixed rate
a. seed feeder
b. seed distributor
c. seed metering device
d. all of the above

A

seed metering device

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216
Q

A device at the header of a combine for severing the plant stalk.
a. cutting mechanism
b. star wheel
c. pickup
d. none of the above

A

cutting mechanism

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217
Q

A device for gathering crops on a windrow of a combine.
a. header
b. pickup
c. star wheel
d. none of the above

A

pickup

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218
Q

A transport machine used in agriculture suitably designed for
coupling to an agricultural tractor or self-propelled combine.
a. agricultural wagon
b. agricultural loader
c. agricultural trailer
d. none of the above

A

agricultural trailer

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219
Q

A harvest residue discharged from cleaning devices of a combine.
a. foreign matters
b. cut straw
c. chaffs
d. none of the above

A

chaffs

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220
Q

What is the application rate of a granular broadcast spreader
required to apply 1 ton of manure at a distance of 1000 meters.
The machine swath is 2 meters.
a. 500 kg/ha
b. 5000 kg/ha
c. 50,000 kg/ha
d. none of the above

A

5000 kg/ha

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221
Q

An external shaft on an agricultural tractor other than the PTO
which provides rotational power to implements that are usually
front and side mounted.
a. belt drive shaft
b. secondary PTO
c. auxiliary PTO
d. none of the above

A

auxiliary PTO

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222
Q

A rotating device located inside the hopper of gravity flow
applicator and broadcast spreaders to enhance delivery of granules
to the adjustable orifice of the machine.
a. mixer
b. stirrer
c. agitator
d. none of the above

A

agitator

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223
Q

In ASAE, safety code for laboratory equipment and typical
application, the safety yellow color stands for
a. danger stop
b. warning
c. caution
d. none of the above

A

caution

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224
Q

A safety gray color at the ASAE safety code is used for
a. floor or work area around machines and equipment
b. traffic and housekeeping areas
c. areas with radiation hazard
d. all of the above

A

floor or work area around machines and equipment

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225
Q

When pipeline is painted with green and white color, the safety
code means that the pipe contains
a. liquid of inherently low hazard
b. fir extinguishing materials
c. flammable or explosive materials
d. all of the above

A

liquid of inherently low hazard

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226
Q

The standard length of stroke of hydraulic remote control
cylinders for trailing-type agricultural implement is
a. 6 to 12 inches
b. 8 to 16 inches
c. 10 to 20 inches
d. none of the above

A

8 to 16 inches

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227
Q

Assume that you are the Agricultural Engineer of a 500-hectare
corn farm with soil type that gives 10 psi draft when plowing at a
speed of 4 km/hr. Compute the drawbar horsepower required to
pull a three-disk plow with effective cut of 12 inches per disk at a
plowing depth of 6 inches.
a. 14.3 hp
b. 23.4 hp
c. 34.5 hp
d. none of the above

A

14.3 hp

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228
Q

How many hectares in item above does a tractor pulling a three
disk plow would be able to plow in one day (16 hours operation)
assuming a total time loss of 30%?
a. 2 ha/day
b. 4 ha/day
c. 6 ha/day
d. none of the above

A

4 ha/day

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229
Q

How many days in item above are required to plow the 500-
hectare farm using ten units of the same kind of tractor and plow?
a. 8.3 days
b. 12.5 days
c. 15.4 days
d. none of the above

A

12.5 days

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230
Q

What is the amount of fuel consumed in liters per 16 hours day in
item above, of one tractor unit if the specific fuel consumption is 1
lb/dhp-hr and the specific gravity of the fuel is 0.8?
a. 69.7 liters
b. 130.0 liters
c. 95.1 liters
d. none of the above

A

130.0 liters

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231
Q

The perpendicular distance between the upper hitch point and the
common axis of the lower hitch point of a tractor.
a. mast height
b. hitch vertical height
c. stud height
d. none of the above

A

mast height

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232
Q

The distance between lower hitch point measured at the base of
the lower hitch stud, or the distance between the inner most
restraining means provided on the implement.
a. lower hitch-point spread
b. lower hitch point distance
c. lower hitch point clearance
d. none of the above

A

lower hitch-point spread

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233
Q

ASAE classification for slow moving vehicle such as animal-
drawn or motorize conveyance, including implements in tow

should not exceed a travel speed of
a. 30 kph
b. 40 kph
c. 50 kph
d. none of the above

A

40 kph

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234
Q

For safety purposes, slow-moving vehicle such as agricultural
machines must be provided with
a. rear bumper to protect the machine from impact
b. identification emblem to guide motorist that the machine is
slow-moving
c. signal light when travelling
d. none of the above

A

identification emblem to guide motorist that the machine is
slow-moving

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235
Q

What is the cutting width of the single disk harrow set at 18
degree working angle containing 20 disks spaced at 30 cm? Disk
diameter is 40 cm.
a. 553.5 cm
b. 453.7 cm
c. 540.6 cm
d. none of the above

If the harrow in item above is a tandem disk harrow, what is the
cutting width of the machine?
a. 589.5cm
b. 567.4 cm
c. 530.6 cm
d. none of the above

A

553.5 cm

589.5cm

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236
Q

A 30-disk double-offset-disk harrow is travelling at a speed of 10
kph. If the disk diameter is 40 cm spaced at 30cm, what is the
cutting width of the harrow?
a. 860.5 cm
b. 875.4 cm
c. 850.3 cm
d. none of the above

What is the theoretical field capacity of the harrow in item above?
a. 8.6 ha/hr
b. 8.7 ha/hr
c. 8.5 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

860.5 cm

8.6 ha/hr

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237
Q

The identification of the given tire with its maximum
recommended load when used in specific type service.
a. tire rating
b. tire lug rating
c. ply rating
d. all of the above

A

ply rating

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238
Q

A machine that is used with small plow and harrow designed for
rice farming operation.
a. puddling-type floating tiller
b. power tiller
c. hydro tiller
d. all of the above

A

power tiller

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239
Q

A ribbed type v-belt where the ribs are positioned along the belt
length.
a. V-ribbed belt
b. Cogged belt
c. Timing belt
d. None of the above

A

V-ribbed belt

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240
Q

The center of resistance of moldboard plow is located
a. at the center of moldboard
b. at the intersection of moldboard and share
c. at the center of share
d. none of the above

A

at the intersection of moldboard and share

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241
Q

ASAE stands for
a. American Society of Automotive Engineers
b. American Society of Agricultural Engineers
c. American Society of Air-conditioning Engineers
d. All of the above

A

American Society of Agricultural Engineers

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242
Q

The optimum puddler speed for puddling-type floating tiller is
a. 100-150 rpm
b. 200-250 rpm
c. 300-350 rpm
d. none of the above

A

200-250 rpm

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243
Q

Part of soil profile exploited by the roots of the plant.
a. root bed
b. root zone
c. tillage zone
d. none of the above

A

root zone

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244
Q

The soil profile modified by tillage or amendments for use by
plant roots
a. root bed
b. root zone
c. tillage zone
d. none of the above

A

root bed

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245
Q

When plowing requires for the soil to be incorporated or mixed
with grasses and weeds, as an Agricultural Engineer you will
recommend
a. disc plow
b. rotary plow
c. moldboard plow
d. all of the above

A

rotary plow

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246
Q

Manual transplanting of rice is advantageous over mechanical rice
transplanter in terms of
a. intelligence
b. dexterity
c. cost
d. none of the above

A

dexterity

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247
Q

If soil clods are needed to be inverted during plowing, the
agricultural engineer will recommend a
a. disc plow
b. moldboard plow
c. all of the above

A

moldboard plow

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248
Q

An agricultural engineer will recommend in order to loosen the
soil during plowing, a
a. subsoiler
b. field cultivator
c. chisel plow
d. none of the above

A

chisel plow

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249
Q

It is a factor which consider the physical condition, heart-beat
ratio, and body weight of a person when operating a machine.
a. humanistic factor
b. mechanical operation factor
c. ergonomic factor
d. all of the above

A

ergonomic factor

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250
Q

Ten-hectares of rice farm is to be harvested manually in 2 days
using sickle (8hr/day). If the field efficiency is 80 % and the man-
hour/hectare for harvesting is 60, how many persons will be
needed to harvest the rice?
a. 27 persons
b. 37 persons
c. 47 persons
d. none of the above

A

47 persons

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251
Q

Compute the power developed by 600 kg horse pulling 80-kg load
at a speed of 0.9 m/sec.
a. 0.94 hp
b. 0.87 hp
c. 0.99 hp
d. none of the above

A

0.94 hp

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252
Q

It is a part of seeder that eventually distributes seed in rows.
a. metering device
b. drive wheel
c. seed hopper
d. none of the above

A

metering device

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253
Q

It is a machine which has one or more elements that rotates about
a vertical axis and cut grass by impact.
a. rotary mower
b. grass cutter
c. power scythe
d. all of the above

A

rotary mower

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254
Q

The pivotal point of connection of hitch to the tractor or a center
of the articulated connection between link and the implement.
a. link point
b. hitch pin
c. hitch point
d. all of the above

A

hitch point

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255
Q

A part of mechanism that they may be added to a functional
power unit, not utilizing its mechanical power for the purpose of
enhancing the performance of that unit.
a. auxillary unit
b. spare parts
c. accessory
d. none of the above

A

accessory

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256
Q

Power take-off rpm of lawn mower and garden ride-on tractors.
a. 1000 rpm
b. 540 rpm
c. 2000 rpm
d. none of the above

A

2000 rpm

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257
Q

A frame for protection of operators of compact utility tractors to
minimize the possibility of serious crushing injury to the operator
resulting from accidental upset.
a. roll bar
b. tractor shield frame
c. roll-over protection structure
d. none of the above

A

roll-over protection structure

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258
Q

Maximum tire inflation pressure for agricultural implement.
a. 40 psi
b. 60 psi
c. 100 psi
d. none of the above

A

60 psi

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259
Q

A sprayer containing 100 liters of mixture operates at a nozzle
discharge of 0.2 liters per minute per nozzle. If the sprayer boom
consist of 6 nozzles, what time does the sprayer mixture be
changed?
a. 2.5 hrs
b. 1.39 hrs
c. 6.8 hrs
d. none of the above

A

1.39 hrs

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260
Q

It is a structural member of an implement where tillage tool to be
a beam attached.
a. boom
b. shank
c. gang
d. none of the above

A

shank

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261
Q

Warranty of parts and services for heated-air mechanical grain
dryer based on PAE Standard is within ____ after the acceptance of
the machine.
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
e. None of the above

A

12 months

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262
Q

It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel of a heated air
mechanical dryer to the theoretical heat available from the fuel.
a. Burner efficiency
b. Furnace efficiency
c. Combustion efficiency
d. None of the above

A

Combustion efficiency

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263
Q

In testing agricultural machines as prescribed in the PAES standard
of test, it should be operated by ______.
a. Farmers
b. Traders/Cooperatives
c. Manufacturer(s) representative
d. Accredited Testing Organization
e. None of the above

A

Manufacturer(s) representative

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264
Q

Holding capacity of mechanical dryer during testing as prescribed
by PAES should be based on the _____ and other accompanying
information such as moisture content and purity
a. volume
b. weight
c. density
d. None of the above

A

weight

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265
Q

Milling test of samples during the test of mechanical grain dryer
based on the PAES standard test should be conducted at least _____
after drying test.
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 36 hours
d. None of the above

A

48 hours

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266
Q

Thermometer sensors during testing of agricultural machines
should be partially shielded to minimize ______.
a. mechanical damage of thermometer sensor
b. error from heat of radiation effect
c. error from conduction of heat from wall of the machine
d. None of the above

A

error from heat of radiation effect

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267
Q

The minimum number of trial(s) required in testing heated air
mechanical grain dryer as specified in PAES.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. None of the above

A

two

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268
Q

Time interval of measurement of test parameters in heated air
mechanical dryer as specified in the PAES Test Method.
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes

A

30 minutes

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269
Q

Commonly used threshing cylinder for axial flow rice thresher.
a. peg-tooth
b. rasp bar
c. wire loop
d. None of the above

A

peg-tooth

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270
Q

The shaft rpm of a rice thresher will need to be _____ if the
diameter of the threshing cylinder is reduced.
a. increased
b. reduced
c. remain the same
d. None of the above

A

increased

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271
Q

Warranty for the construction and durability of mechanical rice
thresher according to PAES standard shall be within _____ after the
purchased of the machine.
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
e. None of the above

A

6 months

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272
Q

All rotating parts of agricultural machines as provided in the PAE
Standards should be _______
a. rigid
b. dynamically balanced
c. uniform in speed
d. None of the above

A

dynamically balanced

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273
Q

Which of the following parts are treated to be dangerous as stated
in Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards for ensuring
safety in agricultural machineries.
a. Pulleys
b. clutches
c. coupling
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

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274
Q

Recommended material in the manufacture of pin sleeve and hitch
pin for walking type power tiller.
a. mild steel
b. cold-rolled steel
c. Spring steel
d. None of the above

A

cold-rolled steel

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275
Q

A centrifugal pump that develops a vacuum sufficient enough for
atmospheric pressure to force the liquid though the suction pipes
into the pump casing with out initially feeding the pump to create
suction.
a. pressure pump
b. self-priming pump
c. mixed flow pump
d. None of the above

A

self-priming pump

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276
Q

A type of pump which develop most of the suction and discharge
head by propelling or lifting action of the impeller vanes on the
water.
a. axial flow pump
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Mixed flow pump
d. None of the above

A

axial flow pump

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277
Q

It is the formation of void spaces filled with water vapor due to
local pressure drop and collapse as soon as the vapor bubbles reach
regions of high pressure.
a. water hammer
b. cavitation
c. bubling
d. none of the above

A

cavitation

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278
Q

A type of pump with vanes or impellers rotating inside a close
housing which draws water into the pump through a central inlet
opening and forces the water out through a discharge outlet at the
periphery of the housing.
a. axial flow pump
b. centrifugal pump
c. mixed flow pump
d. none of the above

A

centrifugal pump

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279
Q

A type of pump which combines some of the feature of both the
centrifugal and axial pump and in which head is developed partly
by the centrifugal force and partly by the lift of the vanes on the
water.
a. self-priming pump
b. diffuser-type centrifugal pump
c. mixed flow pump
d. none of the above

A

mixed flow pump

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280
Q

This represents the interrelationship between capacity, head, power,
NPSH, and the efficiency of the pump.
a. pump characteristics
b. performance curve
c. pump laws
d. none of the above

A

performance curve

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281
Q

It is the filling up of water in the pump to evacuate the entrapped
air through a vent and create a liquid seal inside the casing.
a. Feeding
b. recharging
c. priming
d. None of the above

A

priming

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282
Q

The cylinder diameter of mechanical rice thresher is the measured
distance from _______.
a. the base of the threshing element passing through the shaft axis.
b. the tip of the threshing element passing though the shaft axis.
c. the outlet of the cylinder cover
d. none of the above

A

the tip of the threshing element passing though the shaft axis

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283
Q

The maximum moisture content of grain to be used for testing
mechanical thresher should not be more than _____
a. 18%
b. 24%
c. 28 %
d. None of the above

A

24%

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284
Q

The grain-straw ratio for samples to be used for testing should be at
the ranged of ________.
a. 0.35 to 0.50
b. 0.50 to 0.65
c. 0.65 to 0.80
d. None of the above

A

0.50 to 0.65

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285
Q

The minimum number of hours required in testing rice thresher
based on PAE standards.
a. 0.5 hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. None of the above

A

1 hour

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286
Q

A thresher has a capacity of 30 cavans per hour. Three men are
required to operate the thresher. The other data are as follows:
Purchase price = P40, 000 including engine
Utilization = 1, 500 hours per year, 8
hours/day
Estimated life = 7 years
What is the depreciation cost using straight line method?
a. 6, 568.35/year
b. 3, 784.56/year
c. 5, 142.86/year
d. none of the above

A

5, 142.86/year

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287
Q

What is the total fixed cost in the item above if the cost of money is
21 % per annum?
a. 10, 542.86/year
b. 13, 542.86/year
c. 12, 542.86/year
d. none of the above

A

13, 542.86/year

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288
Q

What is the total variable cost in the item above using the following
additional data?
Size of engine = 10 hp
Specific fuel consumption = 0.85 lb/BHP-hr
Cost of fuel = P13.60/liter
Fuel specific gravity = 0.76
Salary of Laborers = P100.00/day-person
a. 159, 882.00/year
b. 234, 765.00/year
c. 456,854.00/year
d. none of the above

A

159, 882.00/year

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289
Q

What is the threshing cost for the thresher above?
a. P3.85/cavan
b. P2.87/cavan
c. P2.78/cavan
d. None of the above

A

P3.85/cavan

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290
Q

It is a metallic or synthetic lining for a hole which reduces or
prevents abrasion between components of a machine.
a. bearing
b. bushing
c. gasket
d. All of the above

A

bushing

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291
Q

A heat treatment method to increase the hardness of steel by rapid
cooling.
a. tempering
b. quenching
c. annealing
d. none of the above

A

quenching

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292
Q

A gas-metallic arc welding which uses inert gas shielding to
produce a cleaner and sounder weld compared with conventional
welding.
a. gas welding
b. MIG welding
c. TIG welding
d. all of the above

A

MIG welding

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293
Q

A widely used method of welding aluminum, copper, stainless
steel, and other difficult-to-weld metals.
a. TIG welding
b. MIG welding
c. gas welding
d. all of the above

A

TIG welding

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294
Q

A device suitable for cutting stainless steel plate.
a. shear cutter
b. plasma cutter
c. acetylene gas cutter
d. all of the above

A

plasma cutter

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295
Q

Ductility which is one of the properties of metals refers to:
a. its resistance to penetration
b. how much the material is deformed
c. how much the material absorb impact before it breaks
d. all of the above

A

how much the material is deformed

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296
Q

A type of bearing used to restrain endwise motion of a turning
shaft or withstand axial load.
a. ball bearing
b. thrust bearing
c. roller bearing
d. none of the above

A

thrust bearing

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297
Q

A drive where shafts are operating on a counter clockwise
directions.
a. open drive belt
b. chain and sprocket
c. gears
d. all of the above

A

gears

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298
Q

Adrive where shafts are operating in a uni-direction.
a. gears
b. cross-belt
c. chain and sprocket
d. none of the above

A

chain and sprocket

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299
Q

A belt transmission suitable for cross-drive system.
a. v-belt
b. timing v-belt
c. flat belt
d. none of the above

A

flat belt

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300
Q

If the pulley to be driven requires to be turned in counterclockwise
direction, what drive system would you recommend?
a. open drive
b. quarter-turn drive
c. cross-drive
d. all of the above

A

cross-drive

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301
Q

When one pulley is to be driven horizontally and the other pulley
is to be driven vertically, what drive system would you
recommend?
a. open drive
b. quarter turn drive
c. cross drive
d. all of the above

A

quarter turn drive

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302
Q

It is a power transmission device used to deliver misaligned shaft.
a. gears
b. sprocket and chain
c. universal joint
d. all of the above

A

universal joint

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303
Q

It is a kind of steel used in making disk plow bottom.
a. tool steel
b. soft-centered steel
c. molybdenum steel
d. none of the above

A

soft-centered steel

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304
Q

When welding deposit is applied to strengthen peg-tooth of a rice
thresher, this method of treating metal is used.
a. heat treatment
b. welding
c. hard facing
d. none of the above

A

hard facing

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305
Q

Mixing of two or more substances wherein one of which is metal.
a. casting
b. forging
c. alloying
d. none of the above

A

alloying

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306
Q

If some belts on multiple v-belt drive are worn out, it is
recommended that
a. worn-out belts should be immediately replaced
b. wait until all belts are worn-out before replacing the belts
c. all belts should be replaced
d. none of the above

A

all belts should be replaced

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307
Q

Which of the following v-belt is larger and stronger?
a. type A
b. type B
c. type C
d. all of the above

A

type C

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308
Q

Commonly used V-belt for agricultural operation in the
Philippines.
a. type A
b. type B
c. type C
d. all of the above

A

type B

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309
Q

A service offered by manufacturers in repairing and replacing
unintentionally damaged part of a machine to its customers for a
specified period.
a. manufacturing service
b. customer’s service
c. after-sales-service
d. all of the above

A

after-sales-service

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310
Q

Cost of machine including shipment.
a. free-on-board
b. freight-on-board
c. cost-in-freight
d. none of the above

A

freight-on-board

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311
Q

The strength, durability, and service of a farm machine depends
largely on
a. cost of material
b. weight of material
c. quality of material
d. all of the above

A

quality of material

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312
Q

A substance commonly used as coating to protect iron against
corrosion.
a. tin
b. zinc
c. aluminum
d. all of the above

A

zinc

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313
Q

When buying flat belt, the common parameters used are
a. width and thickness
b. width and ply no.
c. width and weight
d. none of the above

A

width and ply no.

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314
Q

A v-belt whose specification is B-32 means.
a. type B with circumferential length of 32 inches
b. type B with circumferential length of 32 cm
c. standard type v-belt whose strength is 32 times stronger than
type B
d. none of the above

A

type B with circumferential length of 32 inches

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315
Q

In a variable-pitch sheaves, the recommended belts used are
a. double v-belt
b. timing v-belt
c. adjustable speed belt
d. none of the above

A

adjustable speed belt

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316
Q

A device that gives mechanical advantage.
a. fulcrum
b. pulley
c. wheel and axle
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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317
Q

The smallest gears that are meshing together.
a. spur
b. bevel
c. pinion
d. all of the above

A

pinion

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318
Q

A type of gear used for power-take off drive.
a. worm gear
b. spur gear
c. spline shaft gear
d. none of the above

A

spline shaft gear

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319
Q

If roller chain number 40 is to be replaced by no. 60, the strength
of chain will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain except the size
d. none of the above

A

increase

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320
Q

The ASAE designation for adjustable speed v-belt is.
a. HA to HD
b. HAA to HCC
c. HI to HO
d. All of the above

A

HI to HO

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321
Q

What is the length of arc of a v-belt on a 6 inches sheaves whose
angle subtended by the arc of belts is equal to 90 degree.
a. 4.69 in
b. 3.49 in.
c. 6.94 in.
d. none of the above

A

4.69 in

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322
Q

A component part of machine that transmits torque and speed is
a. bearing
b. shaft
c. chain
d. none of the above

A

shaft

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323
Q

If the shaft of an engine rotates at the same speed with the shaft of
the driven machine on the same axis, the transmission system is
a. belt and pulley
b. sprocket and chain
c. direct couple drive
d. none of the above

A

direct couple drive

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324
Q

A pulley that is used to tighten belt in a drive system.
a. flat pulley
b. idler pulley
c. v-pulley
d. none of the above

A

idler pulley

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325
Q

A grove that is placed on a shaft to prevent pulley from slippage.
a. keyway
b. keyhole
c. key
d. none of the above

A

keyway

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326
Q

The recommended drive to transmit power to a shaft located about
6 meters is
a. chain drive
b. gear drive
c. v-belt drive
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

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327
Q

If the desired rotation for two parallel shafts is counterclockwise,
what flat-belt drive would you recommend?
a. open drive
b. quarter turn drive
c. cross drive
d. all of the above

A

cross drive

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328
Q

If a large factor of safety is used in the design, product would tend
to be
a. reliable
b. expensive
c. efficient
d. none of the above

A

expensive

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329
Q

Standards are used in the design basically to
a. reduce cost of the product
b. minimize potential liability in designing product
c. provide easy mechanism for interchanging machinery parts
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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330
Q

A metal sheet with gauge number equal to 14 means
a. 14 mm thick
b. 14 pieces of metals sheet in a stock
c. 14 pieces in one inch thickness
d. none of the above

A

14 pieces in one inch thickness

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331
Q

A 4 feet wide x 8 feet long with 1/8-in. thick is
a. metal sheet
b. metal plate
c. metal strip
d. none of the above

A

metal plate

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332
Q

A material commonly used as axle of agricultural machines.
a. cold rolled steel shaft
b. malleable steel round bar
c. round cast iron
d. none of the above

A

cold rolled steel shaft

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333
Q

The factor that affects the horsepower requirement of a shaft.
a. torque
b. rpm shaft
c. peripheral velocity of shaft
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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334
Q

Flat pulleys are provided with crown to
a. keep the required tension of belt
b. prevent belt slippage
c. make the pulley durable
d. none of the above

A

prevent belt slippage

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335
Q

If the driver pulley diameter is increased, the speed of the driven
pulley will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. rotate at the same speed
d. none of the above

A

increase

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336
Q

If the two shafts are perpendicular with each other, what type of
driven system would you recommend?
a. flat belt
b. v-belt
c. sprocket and chain
d. all of the above

A

flat belt

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337
Q

The transmission ratio of power tiller ranged from
a. 1:2 to 1:4
b. 1:7 to 1:10
c. 1:12 to 1:16
d. all of the above

A

1:7 to 1:10

338
Q

A gauge 20 metal sheet in a 2-inch pile of sheet has
a. 20 sheets
b. 40 sheets
c. 60 sheets
d. none of the above

A

40 sheets

339
Q

An alloy basically consist of
a. one metal
b. two metal or more metals
c. one metal and non-metal
d. none of the above

A

two metal or more metals

340
Q

Steel bars which are commonly used in the construction of
agricultural machines.
a. spring steel
b. mild steel
c. cold rolled steel
d. none of the above

A

mild steel

341
Q

A steel bar used as machine axle is
a. hot rolled steel
b. cold rolled steel
c. mild steel
d. none of the above

A

cold rolled steel

342
Q

It is a welding process that uses an electrode.
a. gas welding
b. resistance welding
c. arc welding
d. none of the above

A

arc welding

343
Q

The standard length of bars available at the hardware is.
a. 10 ft
b. 20 ft
c. 30 ft
d. none of the above

A

20 ft

344
Q

The higher is the gauge number of a metal sheet, the lower is the
a. thickness
b. width
c. length
d. none of the above

A

thickness

345
Q

A welding process commonly used for thin sheets of metal.
a. brazing
b. soldering
c. spot welding
d. none of the above

A

soldering

346
Q

It is a process of making metal product by pouring melted metal
into a mold and then allowed to cool.
a. hot working process
b. casting
c. powder metallurgy
d. none of the above

A

casting

347
Q

A machine tool used to reduce the diameter of a metal
a. router
b. power drill
c. lathe
d. none of the above

A

lathe

348
Q

It is the process of cutting hole to a material by means of shearing
process.
a. drilling
b. punching
c. boring
d. none of the above

A

punching

349
Q

A sand paper with a number of C-300 is finer than
a. C-120
b. C-400
c. C-600
d. None of the above

A

C-120

350
Q

A screw used to fix metal parts together.
a. self-tapping screw
b. cap screw
c. lag screw
d. none of the above

A

self-tapping screw

351
Q

A screw with shield to fix material properly together.
a. cap screw
b. tex screw
c. self –tapping screw
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

352
Q

If a metal has a thickness of 1/8 inch it is called as
a. strips
b. sheet
c. plate
d. all of the above

A

plate

353
Q

When buying angle bars, the right specification is
a. thickness and width
b. thickness and length
c. width and length
d. all of the above

A

thickness and width

354
Q

Which of the following metals is stronger?
a. tool steel
b. spring steel
c. stainless steel
d. all of the above

A

tool steel

355
Q

The higher the carbon content of steel, the
a. weaker
b. stronger
c. smaller
d. bigger is the steel

A

stronger

356
Q

A tool that can cut metal bar faster.
a. shear cutter
b. band saw
c. grinding wheel
d. none of the above

A

grinding wheel

357
Q

Filing is classified as
a. cold working
b. hot working
c. casting
d. none of the above

A

cold working

358
Q

Ability of material to resist indention.
a. brittleness
b. toughness
c. hardness
d. all of the above

A

hardness

359
Q

Property of material to join together with other metal at liquid
state.
a. ductility
b. workability
c. fusibility
d. none of the above

A

fusibility

360
Q

A machine element used to tighten bolt.
a. washer
b. rivet
c. nut
d. all of the above

A

nut

361
Q

A welding process wherein current is allowed to pass through the
prongs of the welding machine which joined two metal sheets
together.
a. resistance welding
b. oxyacetylene welding
c. arc welding
d. none of the above

A

resistance welding

362
Q

A material that is resistant to salt corrosion.
a. mild steel
b. cast iron
c. stainless steel
d. all of the above

A

stainless steel

363
Q

Which of the metal sheets is thicker than from gauge 20?
a. gauge 18
b. gauge 22
c. gauge 24
d. two of the above

A

gauge 18

364
Q

Materials suitable to resist rusting.
a. GI sheet
b. BI sheet
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

GI sheet

365
Q

Paint that is most suitable for metals.
a. latex paint
b. enamel paint
c. acrylic paint
d. none of the above

A

acrylic paint

366
Q

Which of the following is used for acrylic paint.
a. paint thinner
b. lacquer thinner
c. primer epoxy
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

367
Q

A coating material to protect metal from rusting.
a. primer epoxy
b. red oxide
c. red lead
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

368
Q

It is used to keep castellated nut from loosening
a. roller pin
b. spring
c. cotter pin
d. none of the above

A

cotter pin

369
Q

Designation for standard V-belt are
a. A, B, C, D, E
b. HA, HB, HC, HD, HE
c. AA-BB-CC-DD-EE
d. None of the above

A

A, B, C, D, E

370
Q

It is used to prevent bolt and nut from loosening.
a. washer
b. spring
c. screw
d. none of the above

A

washer

371
Q

A machine element that is used to drive flat belt.
a. pulley
b. sprocket
c. shieve
d. none of the above

A

pulley

372
Q

If the belt has a capacity rating of 4.5 hp per belt, how many
numbers of belts are needed for the drive?
a. 1 to 2 belts
b. 2 to 3 belts
c. 4 to 6 belts
d. none of the above

A

2 to 3 belts

373
Q

It is used to fasten two machine parts together with the use of nut.
a. bolt
b. screw
c. rivet
d. none of the above

A

bolt

374
Q

A type of gear used to connect implement shaft to the tractor PTO
shaft
a. bevel gear
b. spline shaft gear
c. spur gear
d. none of the above

A

spline shaft gear

375
Q

A gasoline engine runs at 2500 rpm. It will be used to drive a
burr mill which should turn at 500 rpm. The pulley diameter for
the mill is 8 inches. What is the recommended pulley for the
engine?
a. 2 in
b. 4 in
c. 10 in
d. none of the above

A

2 in

376
Q

A centrifugal blower shall be driven by a gas engine. The set up
are as follows: Engine speed =2200 rpm; Blower speed=1800
rpm; Diameter of Engine Pulley=25 cm. What should the
diameter of the blower pulley be ?
a. 28 cm
b. 31 cm
c. 61 cm
d. none of the above

A

31 cm

377
Q

Compute the length of belt for the flat-belt pulley having the
following data:
Diameter of the larger pulley = 1800 mm, Diameter of the
smaller pulley = 400 mm, Center distance of the pulley shaft = 10
meters
a. 15 m
b. 23 m
c. 30 m
d. none of the above

A

23 m

378
Q

A rice thresher is to be driven by 10-hp gasoline engine using a V-
belt drive. The engine is 1800 rpm while the thresher cylinder
speed is 650 rpm. The diameter of the engine pulley is 4 inches.
What will be the recommended diameter of the thresher’s pulley?
a. 6 in.
b. 10 in.
c. 14 in.
d. none of the above

A

10 in

379
Q

What is the recommended belt size for the B-type V-belt needed
for the drive above, if its center distance is 60 in.?
a. B169
b. B192
c. C192.
d. none of the above

A

B192

380
Q

Recommend for the size of the shaft needed the thresher above.
a. 1⁄2 in.
b. 3⁄4 in
c. 1 in
d. none of the above

A

3⁄4 in

381
Q

The length of chain usually expressed in
a. inches
b. meters
c. pitches
d. none of the above

A

pitches

382
Q

A device usually used to connect two shafts on a direct drive
system.
a. clutch
b. coupler
c. pulley
d. none of the above

A

coupler

383
Q

AGMA stands for
a. American Gear Machinery Association
b. Association of Gear Manufacturers of America
c. American Gear Manufacturers Association
d. None of the above

A

American Gear Manufacturers Association

384
Q

The reason why gears are used for agricultural machinery because
a. It is expensive and durable.
b. It transmit high power and efficiency and with long service
life.
c. It is low operating and maintenance cost.
d. None of the above

A

It transmit high power and efficiency and with long service
life.

385
Q

It is the spacing of the gear teeth measured along the pitch circle.
a. Addendum
b. Dedendum
c. Circular pitch
d. None of the above

A

Circular pitch

386
Q

It is the ratio of the input power and the output power in gears
a. Gear efficiency
b. Gear ratio
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

Gear efficiency

387
Q

It is the most common type of gear used in agricultural machinery
with straight and parallel teeth to the shaft axis.
a. Worm gear
b. Bevel gear
c. Spur gear
d. All of the above

A

Spur gear

388
Q

A gear commonly used for gear reducers or gear motors.
a. Worm gear
b. Bevel gear
c. Spur gear
d. All of the above

A

Worm gear

389
Q

A gear used for intersecting shaft usually at right angles.
a. Worm Gear
b. Bevel gear
c. Spur gear
d. All of the above

A

Bevel gear

390
Q

A gear rotating at 800 rpm. It is being driven by another gear at
400 rpm. What is the speed ratio of the gear drive?
a. 2
b. 1⁄2
c. 1
d. All of the above

A

2

391
Q

The service factor used in calculating the design power for gears
includes
a. Type of load
b. Type of lubrication
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

All of the above

392
Q

A device used to transmit power by connecting shafts together.
a. Flexible coupling
b. Rigid coupling
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

All of the above

393
Q

Flat pulleys are usually provided with crown to
a. Prevent belt from slipping
b. tighten the belt
c. increase the strength of pulley
d. None of the above

A

Prevent belt from slipping

394
Q

A 4 inches wide flat belt is to be used for driving 12 inches and 24
inches flat pulleys. What width of the pulleys would you
recommend for the drive?
a. 4 inches
b. 5 inches
c. 6 inches
d. All of the above

A

5 inches

395
Q

Flat pulleys are crowned by making the center diameter larger
than the edge diameter by
a. 1/8 in per foot of face width
b. 1/8 in per foot of the pulley diameter
c. 1/8 in per foot of the belt with
d. None of the above

A

1/8 in per foot of face width

396
Q

A motor running at a speed of 1725 rpm is driving a fan at a
speed 2100 rpm. The motor pulley is 127 mm. What is the speed
of the belt that drives the fan?
a.. 688.24 m/min
b. 868.24 m/min
c. 886.24 m/min
d. None of the above

A

688.24 m/min

397
Q

Timing belt is commonly known as
a. Conventional flat belt
b. Grooved belts
c. Positive drive belt
d. All of the above

A

Positive drive belt

398
Q

It is commonly used belt drive for engine driven multi-pass rice
mill.
a. Flat belt
b. V-belt
c. Groove belts
d. None of the above

A

Flat belt

399
Q

When ordering flat belt, the parameters need to be specified
includes:
a. Width and thickness
b. width and ply
c. thickness and ply
d. None of the above

A

width and ply

400
Q

Drive used to run perpendicular shaft.
a. Open belt drive
b. Crossed drive
c. Quarter turn drive
e. None of the above

A

Quarter turn drive

401
Q

If two flat parallel pulleys is to be drive in opposite direction,
what would you recommend for this drive?
a. Open belt drive
b. Crossed drive
c. Quarter turn drive
d. None of the above

A

Crossed drive

402
Q

The length of chain is usually measured in terms of
a. feet
b. inches
c. pitches
d. None of the above

A

pitches

403
Q

RC-50 chain is stronger compared with
a. RC-60
b. RC-40
c. RC-70
d. None of the above

A

RC-40

404
Q

For slow speed operation, the recommended number of teeth for
sprocket is
a. 11 teeth
b. 16 teeth
c. 24 teeth
d. None of the above

A

16 teeth

405
Q

The recommended minimum number of sprocket teeth for high
speed operation.
a. 14-16 teeth
b. 18-24 teeth
c. 28-30 teeth
d. None of the above

A

18-24 teeth

406
Q

The slack strand for chain with horizontal center should be located
on
a. Upper side
b. Lower side
c. Both sides
d. None of the above

A

Lower side

407
Q

The size of chain is usually specified in terms of
a. Diameter of roller chain
b. length of chain
c. Roller chain number
d. None of the above

A

Roller chain number

408
Q

Twenty-hp engine is equal to.
a. 1524.44 kg-m/sec
b. 1254.2 kg-m/sec
c. 1425.44 kg-m/sec
d. none of the above

A

1524.44 kg-m/sec

409
Q

The amount of material needed in testing thresher should have
enough samples to run the machine for at least _____ hour
a. one-half
b. one
c. two
d. All of the above

A

one

410
Q

An engine rated at 100 pferd starke has an equal rating of ____
hp.
a. 96.8
b. 98.6
c. 101.4
d. none of the above

A

98.6

411
Q

It is a constant volume combustion cycle.
a. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle
c. Dual cycle
d. None of the above

A

Otto cycle

412
Q

It is a constant pressure combustion cycle
a. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle
c. Dual cycle
d. None of the above

A

Diesel cycle

413
Q

An engine that burns fuel inside the cylinder.
a. external combustion engine
b. internal combustion engine
c. sterling engine
d. none of the above

A

internal combustion engine

414
Q

Part of engine that which slides up and down the cylinder and
transmits power to
the crankshaft.
a. connecting rod
b. cylinder block
c. piston
d. spark plug

A

piston

415
Q

Amount of power that the manufacturer specified for an engine.
a. indicated horsepower
b. brake horsepower
c. rated horsepower
d. belt horsepower

A

rated horsepower

416
Q

Distance of movement of piston from the top dead to the bottom
dead center.
a. stroke
b. bore
c. valve clearance
d. none of the above

A

stroke

417
Q

Reduction of engine speed or flow of fuel.
a. throttling
b. clutching
c. atomization
d. none of the above

A

throttling

418
Q

A device which uses fluid power to produce mechanical force and
motion.
a. governor
b. accumulator
c. actuator
d. none of the above

A

actuator

419
Q

A mechanical breaking up of fuel into spray droplets by high
velocity of air passing through a jet.
a. atomization
b. carburetion
c. turbo charging
d. none of the above

A

atomization

420
Q

A device that is used to actuate the throttle of an engine to
increase its speed.
a. governor
b. accelerator
c. actuator
d. none of the above

A

accelerator

421
Q

Usable power delivered by the engine.
a. indicated horsepower
b. brake horsepower
c. rated horsepower
d. none of the above

A

brake horsepower

422
Q

A device that meter the fuel and air and mixes them into
harmonious mixture before the mixture enters the combustion
chamber of an engine.
a. governor
b. air injector
c. carburetor
d. all of the above

A

carburetor

423
Q

A device that permits the flow of fuel and of burned gases in one
direction only.
a. check valve
b. relief valve
c. spark plug
d. none of the above

A

check valve

424
Q

An internal combustion engine that produces power in one
revolution of the crankshaft.
a. four stroke cycle engine
b. two stroke cycle engine
c. rotary engine
d. none of the above

A

two stroke cycle engine

425
Q

A device that provides ignition to a gasoline engine.
a. flywheel
b. fuel injector
c. carburetor
d. spark plug
e. none of the above

A

spark plug

426
Q

During the power stroke, which of the following valve is open?
a. intake
b. exhaust
c. intake and exhaust
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

427
Q

Number of spark plugs for 6 cylinder diesel engine.
a. 6
b. 12
c. 4
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

428
Q

The volume displaced by a piston in making upward or downward
stroke.
a. piston displacement volume
b. clearance volume
c. total volume
d. none of the above

A

piston displacement volume

429
Q

At the downward stroke of two-stroke cycle engine, which of the
events are taking place.
a. power & intake
b. compression & exhaust
c. power & exhaust
d. none of the above

A

power & intake

430
Q

The ratio of the clearance volume from the total volume.
a. compression ratio
b. air fuel ratio
c. bore stroke ratio
d. none of the above

A

compression ratio

431
Q

Power transmitted to the pistons by the gas in the cylinder.
a. brake horsepower
b. indicated horsepower
c. drawbar horsepower
d. flywheel horsepower

A

indicated horsepower

432
Q

Suppose a 4-cylinder engine has a bore of 3.5 in. and a stroke of
4.0 in, what is the engine displacement.
a. 154 in3
b. 175 in3
c. 225 in3
d. none of the above

A

154 in3

433
Q

An engine has a piston displacement of 38.4 in3. If the clearance
volume of the cylinder is 2.5 in3, what is its compression ratio?
a. 1:12
b. 1:16
c. 1:8
e. none of the above

A

1:16

434
Q

Number of explosion of piston on a single cylinder, four stroke
cycle engine in 100 revolution of the crankshaft.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 25
d. none of the above

A

50

435
Q

A device that connects and disconnects power input to the power
output.
a. clutch
b. gear
c. pulley
d. none of the above

A

clutch

436
Q

The space when the piston is at the top dead center.
a. piston displacement volume
b. clearance volume
c. total volume
e. none of the above

A

clearance volume

437
Q

How many piston strokes are there in one revolution of a
crankshaft?
a. one
b. two
c. four
d. none of the above

A

two

438
Q

Engine having fuel injected into the combustion chamber near the
end of the combustion stroke and is ignited by heat of
compression only.
a. gasoline engine
b. diesel engine
c. steam engine
d. none of the above

A

diesel engine

439
Q

Number of times the exhaust valve opens in 2-stroke cycle engine
running at 2000 rpm.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 1500
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

440
Q

What is the indicated horsepower of a four-stroke, six-cylinder
engine having a 4” bore and 4” stroke. The engine is 1500 rpm
and the mean effective pressure is 80 psi.
a. 35 hp
b. 45 hp
c. 52 hp
d. none of the above

A

45 hp

441
Q

The sequence by which the cylinder delivers the power stroke.
a. ignition
b. firing order
c. flash point
d. none of the above

A

firing order

442
Q

Engine that burns fuel outside the cylinder.
a. spark ignition engine
b. external combustion engine
c. compression ignition engine
d. none of the above

A

external combustion engine

443
Q

At the intake stroke of a diesel engine, what comes in?
a. fuel and air
b. fuel
c. air
d. none of the above

A

air

444
Q

A device that creates ignition of fuel in a diesel engine.
a. spark plug
b. piston
c. carburetor
d. none of the above

A

piston

445
Q

Two pistons running at the same time in the same direction but
performing different strokes.
a. running mate
b. firing order
c. valve timing
d. none of the above

A

running mate

446
Q

Firing order of 4 cylinder engine.
a. 1-2-3-4
b 1-3-4-2
c 1-4-2-3
d. none of the above

A

Firing order of 4 cylinder engine.
a. 1-2-3-4
b 1-3-4-2
c 1-4-2-3
d. none of the above

447
Q

How many times the intake valve opens in 4-stroke-cycle engine
running at 2000 rpm.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 500
d. none of the above

A

1000

448
Q

A device which connects or disconnects engine crankshaft to the
or from the transmission box or driven machine.
a. differential gear
b. clutch
c. actuator
d. none of the above

A

clutch

449
Q

Two-stroke six-cylinder-internal-combustion engine has a
cylinder bore of 4 inches and a stroke of 4 inches. If the engine is
running at a speed of 1500 rpm, what is the indicated horsepower
of the engine? The mean effective stroke is 80 psi.
a. 85 hp
b. 92 hp
c. 102 hp
d. none of the above

A

92 hp

450
Q

Firing order for 6-cylinder engine straight and V-piston.
a. 1-5-3-6-2-4
b. 1-4-2-6-3-5
c. 1-2-3-4-5-6
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

451
Q

Firing order for 8 cylinder V piston.
a. 1-6-8-4-3-2-1-5
b. 1-8-7-3-6-5-4-2
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

1-8-7-3-6-5-4-2

452
Q

Engine mechanical efficiency.
a. brake hp over indicated hp
b. rated hp over indicated hp
c. friction hp over flywheel hp
d. none of the above

A

brake hp over indicated hp

453
Q

Number of times the intake valve opens in a single-cylinder four-
stroke cycle after completing 200 revolutions.

a. 200
b. 100
c. 50
d. none of the above

A

100

454
Q

What is the mechanical efficiency of an engine having a brake
horsepower of 8 hp and an indicated horsepower of 10 hp?
a. 20 %
b. 40 %
c. 60 %
d.. 80 %

A

80 %

455
Q

Part of an engine that converts reciprocating motion into rotary
motion.
a. crankshaft
b. piston
c. camshaft
d. none of the above

A

crankshaft

456
Q

Engine system that reduces the temperature of the cylinder.
a. ignition
b. carburetion
c. cooling
d. none of the above

A

cooling

457
Q

System of number indicating the ignition quality of diesel fuel.
a. octane rating
b. cetane rating
c. fuel index
d. none of the above

A

cetane rating

458
Q

Ten-hp engine is equivalent to.
a. 7.46 kw
b. 76.4 watt
c. 0.746 kw
d. none of the above

A

7.46 kw

459
Q

A substance that decreases the effect of friction and which is
commonly obtained from petroleum products.
a. lubricant
b. gear oil
c. grease
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

460
Q

Gear oil is used for
a. engine
b. transmission box
c. hydraulic system
d. all of the above

A

transmission box

461
Q

Mean effective pressure for turbo-charge engine.
a. 300 psi
b. 200 psi
c. 400 psi
d. none of the above

A

300 psi

462
Q

Engine valve that allows the entrance of fuel.
a. exhaust valve
b. intake valve
c. check valve
d. none of the above

A

intake valve

463
Q

If the compression ratio is 1:17, the piston displacement volume
for 10 cm3 piston clearance volume is

a. 160 cc
b. 170 cc
c. 200 cc
d. none of the above

A

160 cc

464
Q

Standard throttling adjustment of an engine.
a. 1/3
b. 1⁄2
c. 3⁄4
d. none of the above

A

3⁄4

465
Q

Mean effective pressure of an engine.
a. 120 psi
b. 200 psi
c. 50 psi
d. none of the above

A

120 psi

466
Q

Number of pistons for 6 cylinder four stroke gasoline engine.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. none of the above

A

6

467
Q

Fuel for compression ignition engine.
a. gasoline
b. kerosene
c. LPG
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

468
Q

A term used to describe the resistance of oil to flow.
a. viscosity
b. cetane number
c. volume weight
d. none of the above

A

viscosity

469
Q

The speed of the engine is automatically regulated by.
a. hand lever
b. governor
c. flywheel
d. none of the above

A

governor

470
Q

Ignition timing for gasoline engine.
a. 1-5 deg.
b. 5-10 deg.
c. 10-15 deg.
d. none of the above

A

5-10 deg.

471
Q

Ignition timing for diesel engine.
a. 5-12 deg.
b. 17-19 deg
c. 20-26 deg
d. none of the above

A

17-19 deg

472
Q

A type of engine that completes power stroke in two revolution of
the crankshaft.
a. four-stroke cycle engine
b. two-stroke cycle engine
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

four-stroke cycle engine

473
Q

A type of engine that completes power stroke in one revolution of
the crankshaft.
a. four-stroke cycle
b. two-stroke cycle
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

two-stroke cycle

474
Q

An engine that produce more power per unit weight.
a. four-stroke cycle
b. two-stroke cycle
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

Two-stroke cycle

475
Q

An engine which uses oil entirely as lubricant.
a. four-stroke cycle
b. two-stroke cycle
c. all of the above
d. none of the above

A

four-stroke cycle

476
Q

One horsepower can generate heat energy equal to
a. 2455 BTU/hr
b. 2545 BTU/hr
c. 2445 BTU/hr
d. none of the above

A

2545 BTU/hr

477
Q

An engine basically has
a. larger cylinder diameter that piston diameter
b. larger piston diameter than cylinder diameter
c. equal piston diameter than cylinder diameter
d. none of the above

A

larger cylinder diameter that piston diameter

478
Q

A part of an engine which reduces vibration and stores energy.
a. spark plug
b. flywheel
c. piston
d. none of the above

A

flywheel

479
Q

If a 4-cylinder, 2-stroke-cycle internal-combustion engine has 600
explosion per minute, what is the engine rpm.
a. 125 rpm
b. 150 rpm
c. 200 rpm
d. none of the above

A

150 rpm

480
Q

Considering that the engine in Item above has a piston diameter
of 4” and piston stroke of 5”, what is the indicated horsepower of
the engine assuming a mean effective pressure of 102 psi.
a. 9.7 hp
b. 53.3 hp
c. 28.5 hp
d. none of the above

A

9.7 hp

481
Q

What is the brake horsepower of the engine in Item above if the
mechanical efficiency is 80 percent.
a. 8 hp
b. 31 hp
c. 35 hp
d. none of the above

A

8 hp

482
Q

The indicated power of an engine is 69 horsepower. The brake
horsepower is 54. What is the mechanical or engine efficiency.
a. 69 %
b. 78 %
c. 59%
d. none of the above

A

78 %

483
Q

What is the thermal efficiency of an engine which uses 0.6-lb of
fuel per horsepower-hr. The fuel contain 20,000 BTU/lb.
a. 21.2 %
b. 34.5 %
c. 46.8 %
d. none of the above

A

21.2 %

484
Q

The brake constant is
a. 2 pi R/c
b. 2 pi RN
c. 2 pi RFN/c
d. none of the above

A

2 pi R/c

485
Q

What is the brake constant value of a dynamometer whose length
of arm is equal to 1m?
a. 0.082 sec/kg
b. 0.82 sec/kg
c. 2.8 sec/kg
d. none of the above

A

0.82 sec/kg

486
Q

A diesel engine four-stroke cycle with three cylinder has a
cylinder bore of 89 mm and a stroke of 130 mm. The compression
ratio is 16:1 and running at a speed of 2000 rpm. What is the
piston displacement of the engine per cylinder?
a. 809 cc
b. 1320 cc
c. 650 cc
d. none of the above

A

809 cc

487
Q

What is the total power stroke per minute of the piston in item
above?
a. 2000
b. 3000
c. 500
d. none of the above

A

3000

488
Q

In item above, what is the total displacement volume per min. of
the engine?
a. 9708 lpm
b. 8534 lpm
c. 9578 lpm
d. none of the above

A

9708 lpm

489
Q

In item above, what is the piston speed of the engine?
a. 520 m/min
b. 3672.76 m/min
c. 3725.23 m/min
d. none of the above

A

520 m/min

490
Q

In item above, what is the stroke-to-bore ratio of the engine.
a. 1.00
b. 1.32
c. 1.46
d. none of the above

A

1.46

491
Q

A four-cylinder gasoline engine has a cylinder diameter of 20 cm
and a stroke of 40 cm. The cylinders run at a speed of 150 rpm.
The engine is a four-stroke cycle with a mean effective pressure of
8 kg/cm2. What is the area of the piston?
a. 314 cm2
b. 284 cm2
c. 167 cm2
d. none of the above

A

314 cm2

492
Q

What is the length of stroke of the engine piston in meter in item
above?
a. 0.40
b. 0.20
c. 0.8
d. none of the above

A

0.40

493
Q

What is the power stroke of the engine per cylinder in item above?
a. 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. none of the above

A

75

494
Q

What is the total power stroke of the engine in item above?
a. 150
b. 300
c. 75
d. none of the above

A

300

495
Q

What is the indicated horsepower of the engine?
a. 46 hp
b. 66 hp
c. 56 hp
d. none f the above

A

66 hp

496
Q

If the engine mechanical efficiency, in item above, is 80 %, what
is the brake horsepower of the engine?
a. 53 hp
b. 35 hp
c. 65 hp
d. none of the above

A

53 hp

497
Q

What is the stroke-to-bore ratio of the engine in item above?
a. 2.0
b. 1.6
c. 2.4
d. none of the above

A

2.0

498
Q

If a two-stroke 4-cylinder engine is running at 2000 rpm, the
power stroke per minute of the engine is
a. 4000
b. 8000
c. 2000
d. none of the above

A

8000

499
Q

Power available on human for useful work.
a. 0.1 hp
b. 0.5 hp
c. 0.3 hp
d. none of the above

A

0.1 hp

500
Q

Domesticated animals used as power for agriculture.
a. dairy animals
b. draft animals
c. game animals
d. none of the above

A

draft animals

501
Q

A person is doing a work for 4 hours, what is the power developed
by the person?
a. 0.09 hp
b. 0.13 hp
c. 0.15 hp
d. none of the above

A

0.13 hp

502
Q

Conversion of solid fuel into combustible carbon monoxide
through thermochemical reaction.
a. digestion
b. carbonization
c. gasification
d. pyrolysis

A

gasification

503
Q

Power generated from moving air.
a. wind power
b. hydropower
c. photovoltaic cell
d. none of the above

A

wind power

504
Q

A gas that produces putrefactive bacteria that breaks down organic
material under airless condition consisting mainly of methane and
carbon dioxide.
a. biofuel
b. biogas
c. gasifier
d. LPG

A

biogas

505
Q

Wind is moving at 4 meters per second. If the rotor area is 2
square meters, what is the wind power?
a. 80 watts
b. 125 watts
c. 95 watts
d. none of the above

A

80 watts

506
Q

Average power density of solar heat striking the earth surface.
a. 1 kw/m2
b. 0.89 kw/m2
c. 0.58 kw/m2
d. none of the above

A

0.89 kw/m2

507
Q

One hundred liters per second of water is falling at a head of 10
meters. The turbine efficiency is 80 %. What is the hydraulic
power of the hydro system.
a. 8.7 kw
b. 87 kw
c. 7.8 kw
d. none of the above

A

7.8 kw

508
Q

A device that converts kinetic energy of the wind to mechanical
power.
a. rotor
b. generator
c. motor
d. none of the above

A

rotor

509
Q

A device that converts electricity to mechanical power.
a. rotor
b. generator
c. motor
d. none of the above

A

motor

510
Q

A device that generates electricity from sunlight.
a. windpump
b. photovoltaic
c. generator
d. none of the above

A

photovoltaic

511
Q

Wind machine that is used for lifting water
a. aerogenerator
b. wind turbine
c. windpump
d. none of the above

A

windpump

512
Q

Power generated from a falling water.
a. hydro power
b. biomass power
c. wind power
d. none of the above

A

hydro power

513
Q

Vehicle designed to pull, propel, and supply power to operate
machinery used in agricultural operation.
a. agricultural tractor
b. automobile
c. payloader
d. none of the above

A

agricultural tractor

514
Q

The stirring wheel of the tractor can be found at
a. in front of the tractor
b. at the rear of the tractor
c. in front of the operator’s seat
d. none of the above

A

in front of the operator’s seat

515
Q

A substance that is added to the tractor for the purpose of
changing traction and stability.
a. ballast
b. cage wheel
c. plow
d. hydraulic lift

A

ballast

516
Q

Power drive that can be found at the rear of the tractor to propel
power implements and stationary machines.
a. power take off drive
b. hydraulic system
c. differential gear
d. none of the above

A

power take off drive

517
Q

Standard rpm of a tractor PTO drive.
a. 600 rpm
b. 200 rpm
c. 540 rpm
d. none of the above

A

540 rpm

518
Q

Standard number of splines on a PTO drive.
a. 10
b. 21
c. 15
d. none of the above

A

21

519
Q

A two-wheeled and hand-operated tractor used primarily as a
substitute for draft animals.
a. power tiller
b. reaper
c. seeder
d. none of the above

A

power tiller

520
Q

Attachment to a tractor rear wheel to increase traction.
a. ballast
b. cagewheel
c. stirring wheel
d. none of the above

A

cagewheel

521
Q

Tractor part that controls the direction of the travel of the
machine.
a. rear wheel
b. front wheel
c. stirring wheel
d. none of the above

A

stirring wheel

522
Q

A tractor device which automatically raises or lowers the
implement in operation to maintain a given draft.
a. automatic draft control
b. automatic position control
c. 3-point linkage
d. none of the above

A

automatic position control

523
Q

The inherent characteristics of tractors to maintain or to produce
increased drawbar pull even if the speed is reduced.
a. lugging ability
b. mechanical efficiency
c. coefficient of traction
d. none of the above

A

lugging ability

524
Q

The lower PTO speed of standard four-wheel tractor is.
a. 540 rpm
b. 450 rpm
c. 640 rpm
d. none of the above

A

540 rpm

525
Q

It is the special arrangement of gears to permit driving member to
rotate slower or faster than the other and permit operation of
driving wheels at different speed for easy turn.
a. spur gear
b. planetary gear
c. differential
d. none of the above

A

differential

526
Q

It is a gear reduction of the tractor located in the power train
between the differential and the driving wheel and transmits
power of low speed and large tongue to the rear axles and wheels.
a. differential
b. universal joint
c. final dive
d. none of the above

A

final dive

527
Q

Standard power-take-off speed of a tractor.
a. 100 rpm
b. 540 rpm
c. 1200 rpm
d. none of the above

A

540 rpm

528
Q

Standard number of spline for PTO shaft.
a. 6 spline
b. 21 spline
c. 20 spline
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

529
Q

Standard shaft diameter of PTO shaft.
a. 35 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 50 mm
d. none of the above

A

35 mm

530
Q

If farm tractor is rated at 80 horsepower, its metric equivalent is
a. 75 kw
b. 60 kw
c. 80 kw
d. none of the above

A

60 kw

531
Q

The heat energy content of coconut shell charcoal is 14223
BTU/lb. How many kilo calories are there in 10 kilos of coconut
shell charcoal.
a. 78, 852.3 Kcal
b. 68, 852.3 Kcal
c. 87, 852.3 Kcal
d. none of the above

A

78, 852.3 Kcal

532
Q

The burning efficiency of rice hull furnaces is between
a. 70-80 %
b. between 80-90 %
c. 90 and less than 100 %
d. none of the above

A

between 80-90 %

533
Q

The thermal efficiency of rice hull furnaces is between.
a. 40-70 %
b. 70-90 %
c. 10-40 %
d. all of the above

A

40-70 %

534
Q

A corn cob has an stoichiometric air requirement of 5.7 kg air/kg
fuel. If 3 kg of corn cob is required to be burned per hour, how
much air in m3/hr is required for the system.
a. 3.68 m3/hr
b. 31.68 m3/hr
c. 13.68 m3/hr
d. none of the above

A

13.68 m3/hr

535
Q

It is an indicator of the amount of fuel in a furnace that is
converted into ash.
a. burning efficiency
b. thermal efficiency
c. heat utilization efficiency
d. none of the above

A

burning efficiency

536
Q

It indicates the ratio of the amount of heat given off by the furnace
to the system and the heat used from the fuel.
a. burning efficiency
b. thermal efficiency
c. heat utilization energy
d. none of the above

A

thermal efficiency

537
Q

Which of the following is true in operating gasifier for internal
combustion engine?
a. Only 50 to 70 % of the diesel oil can be replaced by gas
producer.
b. Gasoline and diesel can be fueled with gas producer.
c. The power output of gasoline engine at arbitrary rpm will
decrease by 30 to 50% when fueled with producer gas.
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

538
Q

A rice hull gasifier reactor that produces less tar during operation.
a. updraft
b. crossdraft
c. downdraft
d. all of the above

A

downdraft

539
Q

The primary gas produced during gasification.
a. methane
b. carbon dioxide
c. carbon monoxide
d. all of the above

A

carbon monoxide

540
Q

When a biogas contains 40 % methane and 60 % carbon dioxide,
a. the biogas can be used for cooking
b. the biogas can be used for lighting
c. the biogas can run a gas refrigerator
d. none of the above

A

none of the above

541
Q

A biogas is generated inside the
a. gas holder
b. mixing tank
c. digester
d. none of the above

A

digester

542
Q

The feed material to water ratio for biogas generation is
a. 1:0.5 to 1:1
b. 1:1 to 1:2
c. 1:2 to 1:3
d. none of the above

A

1:1 to 1:2

543
Q

A digester for biogas is to be designed to accommodate 30 liters
of dung per day. If the feed-material-to-water ratio is 1:1 and the
designed retention time is 80 days, what is the capacity of the
digester.
a. 4800 liters
b. 5200 liters
c. 6100 liters
d. none of the above

A

4800 liters

544
Q

A solid biomas fuel burning device used for domestic cooking,
water heating, smoking, roasting and simmering.
a. furnace
b. cookstove
c. biomass oven
d. none of the above

A

cookstove

545
Q

The percentage primary air requirement based on the total air for
the combustion of fuel in a cookstove.
a. 80 %
b. 60 %
c. 40 %
d. none of the above

A

80 %

546
Q

Elements necessary for combustion.
a. fire
b. air
c. fuel
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

547
Q

Air required for complete combustion of combustible gases.
a. stoichiometric air
b. primary air
c. secondary air
d. all of the above

A

secondary air

548
Q

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound
water by one degree farenheight.
a. kcal
b. BTU
c. joule
d. none of the above

A

BTU

549
Q

The excessive amount of tars produced in the combustion of
agricultural waste is primarily due to:
a. insufficiency of fuel
b. less air is used
c. too much air is used
d. none of the above

A

less air is used

550
Q

During gasification of biomass fuel, the primary gas produced is
___.
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Methane and carbon dioxide
d. All of the above

A

Carbon dioxide

551
Q

Open-fire stove has a thermal efficiency of:
a. 3-11%
b. 11-20%
c. 20-30%
d. all of the above

A

3-11%

552
Q

A chamber where combustion of fuel takes place.
a. damper
b. chimney
c. fire box
d. none of the above

A

fire box

553
Q

The thermal efficiency of a cookstove can be increased by:
a. increasing the amount of fuel
b. using more air for the fuel
c. insulating the stove
d. all of the above

A

insulating the stove

554
Q

The power output of an agriwaste-fired multiple-burner stove can
be increased by
a. providing large connecting tunnel for the pot holes
b. providing damper to control the flow of passage of air
c. increasing the height of the chimney
d. none of the above

A

providing large connecting tunnel for the pot holes

555
Q

The recommended angle for the inclined metal grates on the step-
grate-type stove.

a. 45-60 deg
b. 30-40 deg
c. 60-80 deg
d. none of the above

A

45-60 deg

556
Q

A gas produced from agricultural waste which is odorless,
tasteless, colorless and flammable.
a. biogas
b. CO
c. CH4
d. None of the above

A

CO

557
Q

The primary gas produced during anaerobic digestion of
agricultural wastes.
a. CH4 & H2S
b. CH4 & CO2
c. CH4 & CO
d. All of the above

A

CH4 & CO2

558
Q

C-N ratio suitable for anaerobic digestion of agriwaste.
a. 10:1 to 20:1
b. 20:1 to 30:1
c. 30:1 to 40:1
d. none of the above

A

20:1 to 30:1

559
Q

The power output of diesel engine, when powered with gas
producer at an arbitrary speed, will be reduced by
a. 10-20 %
b. 30-50 %
c. 50-70 %
d. none of the above

A

10-20 %

560
Q

The percentage amount of diesel fuel can be replaced by gas
producer
a. 20-40 %
b. 50-70 %
c. 90-100 %
d. none of the above

A

50-70 %

561
Q

Type of engine that can be fueled with producer gas.
a. gas engine
b. diesel engine
c. gasoline engine
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

562
Q

The bulk density of rice husk.
a. 50-80 kg/m3
b. 100-120 kg/m3
c. 140-160 kg/m3
d. none of the above

A

100-120 kg/m3

563
Q

To minimize channel formation inside the gasifier reactor, the
superficial gas
velocity on the bed of the char should not exceed
a. 8-9 cm/sec
b. 15-20 cm/sec
c. 20-23 cm/sec
d. none of the above

A

20-23 cm/sec

564
Q

The air requirement for gasification of agricultural waste ranged
from
a. 10-20 % of stoichiometric air (SA)
b. 20-30 % of SA
c. 30-40 % of SA
d. none of the above

A

30-40 % of SA

565
Q

A cleaning units for rice husk gasifier to remove gaseous pollutant
and solid particles while cooling the gas at the same time.
a. cyclone separator
b. fabric filter
c. scrubber
d. none of the above

A

scrubber

566
Q

A type of gas producer which has the ability to gasify wet fuel
a. updraft
b. down draft
c. cross draft
d. fluidized bed

A

updraft

567
Q

A cleaning system is needed for gasifier when the unit is to be
used for
a. direct heating
b. power generation
c. gas production
d. none of the above

A

power generation

568
Q

The gasification rate of rice hull ranged from
a. 90-105 kg/m2-hr
b. 110-120kg/m2-hr
c. 125-140 kg/m2-hr
d. none of the above

A

110-120kg/m2-hr

569
Q

Rice hull gasifier efficiency normally ranged from
a. 50-70 %
b. 70-80 %
c. 80-90 %
d. none of the above

A

50-70 %

570
Q

The caloric value of fuel is
a. the amount of heat contained by the fuel per unit weight
b. the weight of fuel to be heated
c. the heat needed to burn a certain weight of fuel
d. none of the above

A

the amount of heat contained by the fuel per unit weight

571
Q

A type of rice husk furnace that burn the fuel while it is being
spread in a circular
pattern inside the combustion chamber.
a. step grate furnace
b. suspended air furnace
c. cyclone furnace
d. all of the above

A

cyclone furnace

572
Q

The thermal efficiency of the furnace is the ratio of
a. the amount of fuel used to the amount of heat generated during
combustion
b. the amount of heat generated during combustion to the amount
of fuel used
c. the amount of heat delivered to the amount of heat available in
the fuel used
d. none of the above

A

the amount of heat delivered to the amount of heat available in
the fuel used

573
Q

The burning temperature of most agricultural waste.
a. 100-200C
b. 300-400C
c. 500-600C
d. none of the above

A

300-400C

574
Q

A high-cetane fueled engine uses
a. diesel as fuel and is difficult start engine at lower temperature
b. diesel as fuel and is easy to start at lower temperature
c. gasoline fuel and is easy to start at lower temperature
d. none of the above

A

diesel as fuel and is easy to start at lower temperature

575
Q

High viscosity engine oil is desirable to use because
a. its viscosity changes easily with a change in temperature
b. its viscosity does not change easily with a change in
temperature
c. its viscosity changes even without a change in temperature
d. none of the above

A

its viscosity does not change easily with a change in
temperature

576
Q

Engine oil having high flash and fire point indicates.
a. high boiling point
b. high vaporation rate
c. high heating value
d. all of the above

A

high boiling point

577
Q

In order to increase the resistance of engine oil, the formation of
certain acidic product that may cause corrosion of certain type of
bearing the recommended additive to use is.
a. anticorrosive
b. antioxidants
c. dispersants
d. all of the above

A

antioxidants

578
Q

An additive purposely to provide a protective film on bearing
surfaces thus preventing any acid to corrode metal parts.
a. anticorrosive
b. antioxidants
c. dispersants
d. all of the above

A

anticorrosive

579
Q

Additives to cause carbon particles in the engine to remain in
suspension in oil.
a. anticorrosive
b. antioxidants
c. dispersants
d. all of the above

A

dispersants

580
Q

The burning of portion of fuel in the combustion chamber of an
engine at a rate faster than the desired.
a. knocking
b. detonation
c. misfiring
d. all of the above

A

detonation

581
Q

A device used to measure the quantity of oil in a crankcase.
a. dipstick
b. oil gauge
c. oil stick
d. none of the above

A

dipstick

582
Q

A device that provides a rich mixture of fuel during high load and
lean mixture during under load.
a. carburetor
b. economizer
c. fuel regulator
d. all of the above

A

economizer

583
Q

The lubrication system of an engine is basically
a. to reduce wear and tear of an engine
b. to act seal between the piston and cylinder wall
c. to act as complement of the cooling system
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

584
Q

When a diesel engine knocks, the trouble is.
a. the diesel fuel ignition timing is late
b. incorrect engine lubrication and wrong grade of oil
c. incorrect type of spark plug
d. all of the above

A

the diesel fuel ignition timing is late

585
Q

When a gasoline engine knocks, the problem is.
a. the spark timing is too far advance
b. incorrect type of fuel
c. incorrect type of spark plug
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

586
Q

If the engine timing is advance
a. the spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while the piston is
completing the compression stroke
b. the spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while the piston is at
the intake stroke
c. the spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while moving
downward immediately after the power stroke
d. all of the above

A

the spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while the piston is
completing the compression stroke

587
Q

It is the act of checking, testing measuring, repairing and adjusting
the engine in order to bring it to peak efficiency.
a. trouble shooting
b. tune-up
c. timing adjustment
d. all of the above

A

tune-up

588
Q

The coefficient of traction for wheel-type tractor is highest for
a. concrete road
b. fine sand
c. sandy loam soil
d. all of the above

A

concrete road

589
Q

The rapid explosion of mixture of fuel and air within the cylinder
when ignited by spark plug is.
a. constant volume combustion
b. constant pressure combustion
c. constant temperature combustion
d. all of the above

A

constant volume combustion

590
Q

The relatively slow burning as the fuel is injected into a highly
compressed heated air is.
a. constant volume combustion
b. constant pressure combustion
c. constant temperature combustion
d. all of the above

A

constant pressure combustion

591
Q

The gross heating value of diesel is
a. higher than gasoline
b. higher than kerosene
c. higher than ethanol
d. all of the above

A

higher than ethanol

592
Q

The specific gravity of gasoile is at the range of ______
a. 0.67 to 0.76
b. 0.79 to 0.85
c. 0.85 to 0.91
d. all of the above

A

0.67 to 0.76

593
Q

An injection system used in small stationary diesel engine
consisting essentially of a high pressure pump and an injection
nozzle.
a. air injection system
b. solid injection system
c. automized injection system
d. none of the above

A

solid injection system

594
Q

Thermal efficiency of internal combustion engine.
a. 0 to 10 %
b. 10 to 20 %
c. 20 to 30 %
d. none of the above

A

20 to 30 %

595
Q

An engine running at a speed of 2000 rpm is classified as
a. low speed engine
b. medium speed engine
c. high speed engine
d. none of the above

A

high speed engine

596
Q

It is used to seal engine components which are bolted to the
subframe, the cylinder block, and the crankcase.
a. oil
b. grease
c. gasket
d. none of the above

A

gasket

597
Q

An air cooled engine is basically equipped with
a. pump
b. fan
c. fan and pump
d. none of the above

A

fan

598
Q

A quality type of spark plug for gasoilen engine.
a. magnesium-type
b. platinum type
c. carbon type
d. none of the above

A

platinum type

599
Q

New model of engines with 16 valves has _____ cylinders.
a. 16
b. 8
c. 4
d. None of the above

A

4

600
Q

When an engine is diesel operated,
a. the mixture of air and fuel is taken in the cylinder
b. the fuel is compressed into the combustion engine
c. air fuel ratio is not constant as the quantity of air drawn into
the cylinder is not always the same
d. all of the above

A

air fuel ratio is not constant as the quantity of air drawn into
the cylinder is not always the same

601
Q

When operating light equipment, it is recommended to use.
a. four stroke gasoline engine
b. two stroke gasoline engine
c. four stroke diesel engine
d. all of the above

A

two stroke gasoline engine

602
Q

A four-stroke-cycle engine is advantageous to use than two-
stroke-cycle engine for the reason that
a. it is easier to start the engine
b. easy to lubricate
c. has regular intake and exhaust valves
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

603
Q

A turbine used for hydro system wherein pressurized water is
converted into a high speed jet by passing it through a nozzle.
a. impulse turbine
b. reaction turbine
c. water wheel
d. none of the above

A

impulse turbine

604
Q

A turbine for hydro system which runs completely filled with
water.
a. impulse turbine
b. reaction turbine
c. water wheel
d. none of the above

A

reaction turbine

605
Q

A component part of solar electric system that converts sunlight to
electricity
a. PV panel
b. solar cell
c. solar module
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

606
Q

Solar battery is rated in terms of
a. dimension of the battery
b. wattage
c. ampere – hour
d. none of the above

A

ampere – hour

607
Q

The capacity required for a 12-volt solar panel system is 73.6
watt-hour. What is the ampere-hour capacity of the battery needed
for the system?
a. 6.13 ampere-hour
b. 4.05 ampere-hour
c. 7.23 ampere-hour
d. none of the above

A

6.13 ampere-hour

608
Q

The act of analyzing, testing, and measuring the engine to remedy
the cause and trouble.
a. servicing
b. tune-up
c. trouble shooting
d. all of the above

A

trouble shooting

609
Q

When strength is provided beyond what is needed as an extra
margin of insurance against parts failure.
a. factor of ignorance
b. factor of safety
c. reliability
d. none of the above

A

factor of safety

610
Q

An engine running without load is in.
a. optimum running condition
b. low running condition
c. idle condition
d. none of the above

A

idle condition

611
Q

Japanese engines are usually rated in trems of _____
a. Horsepower
b. kW
c. PS
d. None of the above

A

PS

612
Q

Two engines are rated 1 hp and the other is 1 ps. Which of the
following statement is true.
a. 1 hp engine is stronger than 1 ps engine
b. 1 ps engine is stronger than 1 hp engine
c. two engines are the same in strength
d. none of the above statement is true

A

1 ps engine is stronger than 1 hp engine

613
Q

Japanese engines are usually rated in terms of
a. horsepower
b. pferde starke
c. watts
d. all of the above

A

pferde starke

614
Q

If the rotor of the windmill originally at 2 meters is to be reduced
to 1 meter, the power output of the machine will be reduced by
a. two times
b. three times
c. four times
d. none of the above

A

four times

615
Q

Wind flows on a 2-m diameter rotor at a rate of 2 m/s. Suddenly,
the wind flows at 4 m/s, what would be the power output of the
windmill?
a. 4 times
b. 6 times
c. 8 times
d. none of the above

A

8 times

616
Q

Small gasoline engine basically has a compression ratio of
a. 6:1
b. 10:1
c. 3:1
d. none of the above

A

6:1

617
Q

A gasoline without ethylene bromide or having an octane rating of
87 which sometimes caused knocking on the engine.
a. premium
b. leaded
c. unleaded
d. all of the above

A

unleaded

618
Q

It is a device used to generate high voltage current needed for
spark plug in small engine.
a. distributor
b. contact point
c. magneto
d. all of the above

A

magneto

619
Q

A knocking sound produced due to incomplete combustion of fuel
inside the combustion chamber of an engine.
a. detonation
b. ignition
c. carburetion
d. none of the above

A

detonation

620
Q

Part of a tractor that retards or stops one wheel during operation to
be able to make short turn.
a. differential brake
b. hand brake
c. brake pedal
d. all of the above

A

differential brake

621
Q

Part of the tractor engine where pistons slide back and fort and are
replaced or rebored when damaged.
a. cylinder block
b. cylinder liner
c. cylinder head
d. all of the above

A

cylinder liner

622
Q

A turbine and an air blower mounted ahead of the intake manifold
of an engine to force more air into the cylinder thereby increasing
power output of the engine by 10-15 %.
a. auxiliary air reducer
b. turbocharger
c. power inducer
d. all of the above

A

turbocharger

623
Q

A device that converts energy of animal to useful work.
a. head yoke
b. breast strap
c. harness
d. none of the above

A

harness

624
Q

If two animals having 0.75 hp each are harnessed together, the
pulling output of the two animals is
a. greater than 1.5 hp
b. equal to 1.5 hp
c. less than 1.5 hp
d. none of the above

A

less than 1.5 hp

625
Q

It is the utilization of hand tools, implements for draft animals,
and mechanically-powered machines for agricultural land
development, production, harvesting and on-farm processing.
a. agricultural development
b. agricultural machinery and equipment
c. agricultural mechanization
d. all of the above

A

agricultural mechanization

626
Q

What is the approximate pull of a carabao whose weight is 1000
kilogram?
a. 100 kg
b. 150 kg
c. 200 kg
d. none of the above

A

100 kg

627
Q

One pferde starke (ps) is equal to
a. 0.986 hp
b. 0.735 kw
c. 75 kgf-m/sec
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

628
Q

A rice husk stove boils 2 liters of water and subsequently
evaporated 0.5 liter. The initial temperature of water is 27C. The
amount of fuel consumed in boiling and evaporating water is 1.5
kg. What is the thermal efficiency of the stove? Assume a heat of
vaporization of water equal to 540 kCal/kg and heating value of
fuel equal to 3,000 kCal per kg.
a. 5.2 %
b. 9.2 %
c. 12.5 %
d. none of the above

A

9.2 %

629
Q

When you want to diagnose ignition and other electrical problems
of an engine, a typical instrument to be used is ______.
a. Compression tester
b. Oscilloscope
c. Dynamometer
d. None of the above

A

Oscilloscope

630
Q

It is a device used to measure the state of the battery charge of an
engine.
a. Tachometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Ohmmeter
d. None of the above

A

Hydrometer

631
Q

Engine power performance is measured using _______.
a. Compression tester
b. Oscilloscope
c. Dynamometer
d. None of the above

A

Dynamometer

632
Q

It is a measure of the area in cubic inches above the piston when it
is at the top of its stroke, compared to the area above the piston
when it is at the bottom stroke.
a. Piton Displacement
b. Compression Ratio
c. Clearance volume
d. None of the above

A

Compression Ratio

633
Q

Gasoline engine power output can be increased by
a. Increasing the compression ratio
b. Increasing the fuel feeding
c. Reducing the load of the engine
d. None of the above

A

Increasing the compression ratio

634
Q

A small mechanical blower installed in an engine to increase
power output by forcing fuel charge under pressure into the
cylinder.
a. Supercharger
b. Soot blower
c. High pressure blower
d. None of the above

A

Supercharger

635
Q

Air-fuel ratio for combustion for gasoline engine.
a. 10 to 1
b. 15 to 1
c. 20 to 1
d. All of the above

A

15 to 1

636
Q

The compression ratio of an engine can be increased by
a. Installing connecting rod of greater length
b. Installing high-dome piston
c. Installing crankshaft which has a crank pin throw of greater
length
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

637
Q

A switching device of high voltage current in multiple cylinder
engine which breaks primary and secondary circuits.
a. Distributor
b. Contact point
c. Relay
d. None of the above

A

Distributor

638
Q

Premature explosion in the cylinder of a gasoline engine during
the exhaust stroke.
a. Backlash
b. Backfire
c. Back pressure
d. All of the above

A

Backfire

639
Q

It is the setting of the distributor to give high voltage current to
the spark plug in relation to the movement and position of the
piston.
a. Idling
b. Ignition timing
c. Engine timing
d. None of the above

A

Ignition timing

640
Q

It refers to any ring or washer providing a packing or seal between
metal surfaces of engine.
a. Oil ring
b. Grease
c. Gasket
d. None of the above

A

Gasket

641
Q

Ignition or combustion of fuel not at the proper time.
a. Backfiring
b. Misfiring
c. Detonation
d. None of the above

A

Misfiring

642
Q

A condition whereby the engine on its operation has abnormally
increased its temperature due to faulty cooling, lubricating, and
other mechanical trouble.
a. Backfiring
b. Overheating
c. Misfiring
d. None of the above

A

Overheating

643
Q

Air fuel ratio of an engine under idling condition.
a. 11.0-12.5 to 1
b. 12.5-13.5 to 1
c. 13.5-17.0 to 1
d. None of the above

A

11.0-12.5 to 1

644
Q

Abnormal rapid combustion occurring simultaneously with
normal combustion manifested by loss of power, overheating,
rough operation, and sharp ringing sound called engine knock.
a. Backfiring
b. Misfiring
c. Detonation
d. None of the above

A

Detonation

645
Q

Air fuel ratio of an engine at full load
a. 11.0-12.5 to 1
b. 12.5-13.5 to 1
c. 13.5-17.0 to 1
d. None of the above

A

12.5-13.5 to 1

646
Q

Recommended engine spark plug gap clearance.
a. 0.02 in and below
b. 0.02 to 0.04 in
c. 0.04 in to 0.06 in
d. None of the above

A

0.02 in and below

647
Q

General rule for piston to cylinder wall clearance.
a. 0.001 in. for every inch diameter of the piston
b. 0.002 in. for every inch diameter of the piston
c. 0.003 in. for every inch diameter of the piston

A

0.001 in. for every inch diameter of the piston

648
Q

Recommended gap or clearance of the contact point of engine.
a. 0.010 to 0.020 in.
b. 0.020 to 0.035 in.
c. 0.035 to 0.045 in.
d. none of the above

A

0.010 to 0.020 in.

649
Q

The temperature to which an oil must be heated in order to ignite
and burn.
a. Ignition temperature
b. Flash point
c. Oil index point
d. None of the above

A

Flash point

650
Q

Resurfacing or replacing of cylinder head is done when ______of
its full length is warped.
a. 0.010 to 0.015 in.
b. 0.015 to 0.020 in.
c. 0.020 in. and above
d. All of the above

A

0.020 in. and above

651
Q

A loud sound emanating from an engine generally due to looses or
worn parts, pre-ignition, or detonation.
a. Backfire
b. Misfire
c. Knock
d. All f the above

A

knock

652
Q

A device that deaden the noise of escaping gases or vapors
emanating from an internal combustion engine.
a. Flywheel
b. Valves
c. Muffler
d. None of the above

A

Muffler

653
Q

A trouble in the clutch characterized by abrupt transmission of
engine power resulting in a jerking motion when the clutch is
engaged.
a. Grabbing
b. Shearing
c. Knock
d. None of the above

A

Grabbing

654
Q

Flushing water in the radiator is being done __________
a. every month
b. every 3 months or 10,000 km
c. every 6 months or 24,000 km
d. all of the above

A

every 3 months or 10,000 km

655
Q

Term used to indicate leakage or loss of pressure as leakage of
compression between piston and cylinder in a gasoline engine.
a. Blow-by
b. Head loss
c. Back pressure
d. None of the above

A

Blow-by

656
Q

Changing of transmission oil should be done _____
a. Every 3 months or 10,000 km
b. every 6 months or 24,000 km
c. every year or 48,000 km
d. All of the above

A

every 6 months or 24,000 km

657
Q

Component part of an axial flow rice thresher that cause the
movement of the rice straw from one end to the other end during
threshing operation.
a. Concave
b. Louvers
c. Pegteeth
d. None of the above

A

Louvers

658
Q

Ribbed Type v-belt where ribs as positioned across the belt length.
a. V-ribbed belt
b. Cogged belt
c. Timing belt
d. None of the above

A

Cogged belt

659
Q

Component part of rice thresher which separates straw from the
grain during threshing operation.
a. Louvers
b. Concave
c. Screen
d. None of the above

A

Concave

660
Q

Threshing efficiency basically is determined from weight of grain
obtained at the ________ to the grain input fed at the feeding
trays.
a. straw outlet
b. oscillating screen outlet
c. blower outlet
d. All of the above

A

straw outlet

661
Q

A trailing type implement is hitch to the tractor at the ________
a. single hitch point system of the tractor
b. three-point hitch system of the tractor
c. power take off drive system of the tractor
d. none of the above

A

single hitch point system of the tractor

662
Q

The PTO drive of a tractor is used to power _______
a. moldboard plow
b. chisel plow
c. rotary plow
d. All of the above

A

rotary plow

663
Q

PAES 101:2000 refers to
a. General safety in agricultural machinery
b. Operator’s manual content and presentation
c. Method of sampling
d. All of the above

A

General safety in agricultural machinery

664
Q

Test carried out on each and every component part or equipment
to check the specifications which are likely to vary during
production
a. Acceptance test
b. Routine test
c. Inspection
d. None of the above

A

Routine test

665
Q

Basically hitches are provided for _________
a. self propelled machines
b. machines that are not self propelled
c. heavy machines
d. none of the above

A

machines that are not self propelled

666
Q

Type of pump that combines the features of a centrifugal and axial
flow pump
a. submersible pump
b. mixed flow pump
c. reciprocating pump
d. all of the above

A

mixed flow pump

667
Q

Recommended test material for testing rice thresher should have a
straw length of ______.
a. 30 to 45 cm
b. 45 to 50 cm
c. 50 to 65 cm
d. None of the above

A

45 to 50 cm

668
Q

Grain-straw ratio requirement for testing rice thresher ranged from
______
a. 0.35 to 0.50
b. 0.50 to 0.65
c. 0.65 to 0.80
d. all of the above

A

0.50 to 0.65

669
Q

During the test of agricultural machine, the shaft speed is
measured using _______.
a. Speedometer
b. velocity meter
c. tachometer
d. none of the above

A

tachometer

670
Q

Pressure drop of air moving devices is usually measured by
______
a. pressure gauge
b. pitot tube
c. manometer
d. none of the above

A

manometer

671
Q

ACME engines are made from _________
a. Japan
b. Italy
c. USA
d. None of the above

A

Italy

672
Q

Robin Engines are made from _______
a. USA
b. Japan
c. Switzerland
d. All of the above

A

Japan

673
Q

Kohler engines are made from _____
a. USA
b. Italy
c. Switzerland
d. None of the above

A

USA

674
Q

MAG engines are made from ______
a. USA
b. China
c. Switzerland
d. None of the above

A

Switzerland

675
Q

Engines made from USA
a. Briggs and Straton engine
b. Kohler engine
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

All of the above

676
Q

Kubota engines are made from _______
a. China
b. Korea
c. Japan
d. All of the above

A

Japan

677
Q

The cooling system for multiple cylinder engines are usually
_________
a. water cooled
b. air cooled
c. water cooled and air cooled
d. None of the above

A

water cooled and air cooled

678
Q

Water is usually used in engines as ____________
a. medium for cooling the cylinder head and block.
b. supplementary fuel for combustion
c. lubricating material for bearings
d. All of the above

A

medium for cooling the cylinder head and block.

679
Q

Which of the following engines are produced from Japan?
a. Honda
b. Kubota
c. Robin
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

680
Q

A self-propelled machine having a single axle designed primarily
to pull and propel trailed or mounted agricultural implement and
machinery.
a. hand tractor
b. pedestrian tractor
c. walking type tractor
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

681
Q

Minimum peak transmission efficiency for power tiller.
a. 75 percent
b. 85 percent
c. 95 percent
d. None of the above

A

85 percent

682
Q

Minimum operating time required for testing power tiller without
breakdown and malfunction.
a. one hour
b. five hours
c. Eight hours
d. None of the above

A

five hours

683
Q

Minimum permissible noise for power tiller.
a. 85 db
b. 92 db
c. 98 db
d. none of the above

A

92 db

684
Q

Arrangement of valves wherein the intake and exhaust valves are
located in the cylinder head.
a. I-head arrangement
b. L-head arrangement
c. X-head arrangement
d. None of the above

A

I-head arrangement

685
Q

Arrangement of valves wherein the intake and exhaust valves are
located on one side of the cylinder block.
a. I-head arrangement
b. L-head arrangement
c. X-head arrangement
d. None of the above

A

L-head arrangement

686
Q

Basic hand tools need to be provided by manufacturers to buyers
of engines
a. open wrench
b. adjustable wrench
c. Philip and flat screw driver
d. spark plug wrench
e. All of the above

A

All of the above

687
Q

Part of tractor to which implements are hitched
a. PTO drive
b. final drive
c. drawbar
d. none of the above

A

drawbar

688
Q

Four wheel drive tractors are ________
a. tractors that have four running wheels
b. tractors that have four running wheels and driven the two rear
wheels by an engine
c. tractors that have four running wheels and all wheels are driven
by the engines
d. none of the above

A

tractors that have four running wheels and all wheels are driven
by the engines

689
Q

It is the center to center distance between two front or rear wheels.
a. wheel tread
b. wheel base
c. wheel lugs
d. none of the above

A

wheel tread

690
Q

Hydraulic control levers on typical four wheel tractors are located
at __________
a. front of the operator.
b. left side of the operator
c. right side of the operator
d. None of the above

A

right side of the operator

691
Q

Which of the following types of drawbar are used for tractors?
a. fixed drawbar
b. swinging drawbar
c. link drawbar
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

692
Q

A machine screw for general purpose use.
a. hexagonal head
b. hexagonal flange head
c. Pan head
d. None of the above

A

hexagonal head

693
Q

Types of set screw for general purpose use.
a. Slotted head
b. Square head
c. hexagon socket head
d. None of the above

A

Square head

694
Q

Type of screw thread used for rotating machine member such as
impeller shafts.
a. Right hand tread
b. Left hand thread
c. Square thread
d. None of the above

A

Left hand thread

695
Q

Tool used to drive a cross recess screw.
a. Ordinary flat screw driver
b. Phillip screw driver
c. Allen wrench screw driver
d. all of the above

A

Phillip screw driver

696
Q

Tool used to drive slotted machine screw.
a. Ordinary flat screw driver
b. Phillip screw driver
c. Allen wrench screw driver
d. all of the above

A

Ordinary flat screw driver

697
Q

Type of screw thread used for almost all fastening application.
a. Right hand tread
b. Left hand thread
c. Square thread
d. None of the above

A

Right hand tread

698
Q

Type of rivets used for fastening metal parts together when the
reverse joint is not accessible or its too restricted.
a. Cold forged rivet
b. Semi-tubular rivets
c. Blind rivet
d. None of the above

A

Blind rivet

699
Q

A projecting parts of a gear that is in contact with the other gear
that cause the rotation in opposite direction.
a. Gear module
b. Gear tooth
c. Gear pitch circle
d. None of the above

A

Gear tooth

700
Q

Required material designation for the construction of gear based
on PAES standard.
a. AISI designation 1021
b. AISI designation 1045
c. AISI designation 1080
d. None of the above

A

AISI designation 1045

701
Q

PTO shaft profile for 35 mm nominal diameter shaft, 6 splines,
540 rpm rated speed
a. Involute spline
b. Straight spline
c. V-spline
d. None of the above

A

Straight spline

702
Q

PTO shaft profile for 35 mm nominal diameter shaft, 21 splines,
1000 rpm rated speed
a. Involute spline
b. Straight spline
c. V-spline
d. None of the above

A

Involute spline

703
Q

PTO shaft profile for 45 mm nominal diameter shaft, 20 splines,
1000 rpm rated speed
a. Involute spline
b. Straight spline
c. V-spline
d. None of the above

A

Involute spline

704
Q

Brake systems for tractors
a. Internal expansion type
b. External expansion
c. Disc type
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

All of the above

705
Q

Allowable wheel slip for maximum efficiency for two wheel
drive tractor on a firm soil
a. 7-11%
b. 10-15%
c. 16-20%
d. None of the above

A

7-11%

706
Q

Allowable wheel slip for maximum efficiency for four wheel
drive tractor on a tilled and soft soil
a. 6 -10%
b. 8-13%
c. 7-11%
d. None of the above

A

8-13%

707
Q

Roll on protection safety and seat belts are required for tractor
with ___________
a. 5 kW engine and above
b. 10 kW engine and above
c. 15 kW engine and above
d. None of the above

A

15 kW engine and above

708
Q

It is the power measured at the flywheel or crankshaft of a four
wheel tractor
a. rated horsepower
b. indicated horsepower
c. engine horsepower
d. All of the above

A

engine horsepower

709
Q

It is a distance between the supporting surface and the lowest
point of the tractor
a. Tractor height
b. Tractor ground clearance
c. Tractor overall height
d. None of the above

A

Tractor ground clearance

710
Q

Speed in revolution per minute specified by the manufacturer
a. Rated horsepower
b. Engine speed
c. Rated engine speed
d. All of the above

A

Rated engine speed

711
Q

Tractor weight is the total weight of the tractor including tools
with the fuel tank filled to _____ capacity and the normal amount
of cooling water and lubricating oil when the tractor is at work.
a. 60%
b. 80%
c. 100%
d. none of the above

A

80%

712
Q

Type of row crop planter designed to deposit seed continuously in
straight column.
a. Drill planter
b. Hill-drop planter
c. Check-row planter
d. None of the above

A

Drill planter

713
Q

Type of row-crop planter which enables operator to perform hill
planting at definite spacing to facilitates mechanical weed control
and other operations (Dh = Dr).
a. Drill planter
b. Hill-drop planter
c. Check-row planter
d. None of the above

A

Check-row planter

714
Q

Type of row crop planter which is designed to deposit one or more
seeds in a hill at equal interval (Dh not equal to Dr)
a. Drill planter
b. Hill-drop planter
c. Check-row planter
d. None of the above

A

Hill-drop planter

715
Q

Minimum efficiency required for tractor power driven row crop
planter
a. 40-50%
b. 55-60%
c. 65-70%
d. None of the above

A

55-60%

716
Q

Minimum efficiency required for tractor power driven seed drill.
a. 55%
b. 65%
c. 75%
d. None of the above

A

65%

717
Q

Minimum area required for testing manually operated seeder.
a. Not less than 100 m2
b. Not less than 500 m2
c Not less than 1000 m2
d. None of the above

A

Not less than 500 m2

718
Q

Minimum area required for testing power operated seeder.
a. Not less than 100 m2
b. Not less than 500 m2
c Not less than 1000 m2
d. None of the above

A

Not less than 1000 m2

719
Q

It is a flanged tube mounted on gang axle and placed between two
discs to prevent the lateral movement of the discs on the shaft.
a. Spool
b. Spacer
c. Tubular washer
d. None of the above

A

Spool

720
Q

The traverse distance between the top or bottom edges of the end
disks of a plow .
a. Implement width
b. Width of cut
c. Disks width
d. None of the above

A

Disks width

721
Q

Materials used in the manufacture of disc plow and disc blade for
harrows.
a. AISI 1020
b. AISI 1080
c. AISI 1045
d. None of the above

A

AISI 1080

722
Q

Mild steel with 0.15 to 0.23 carbon content (cold rolled) is
designated by American Iron and Steel Institute as _______
a. AISI 1021
b. AISI 1080
c. AISI 1045
d. None of the above

A

AISI 1021

723
Q

Carbon steel with at least 80% carbon is designated by American
Iron and Steel Institute as _______
a. AISI 1020
b. AISI 1080
c. AISI 1045
d. None of the above

A

AISI 1080

724
Q

Type of bearing unit which is suitable for heavy radial load and
free from axial load.
a. Ball bearing
b. Tapered bearing
c. Cylindrical roller bearing
d. None of the above

A

Cylindrical roller bearing

725
Q

Bearing with roller whose length is at least 4 times the diameter
suitable for heavy load, oscillating and low speed.
a. Cylindrical roller bearing
b. Needle bearing
c. Tapered roller bearing
d. None of the above

A

Needle bearing

726
Q

Bearing suitable for both radial and thrust load.
a. Ball bearing
b. Cylindrical roller bearing
c. Needle bearing
d. None of the above

A

Ball bearing

727
Q

Bearing that is excellent for heavy radial load and moderate thrust
load.
a. Tapered roller bearing
b. Spherical roller bearing
c. Ball bearing
d. None of the above

A

Spherical roller bearing

728
Q

Which of the following statement is true?
a. Ball bearing operates at a higher speed limit than roller bearing
b. Roller bearing operates at a higher speed limit than ball bearing
c. Ball bearing operates at the same speed limit with roller
bearing
d. None of the above

A

Ball bearing operates at a higher speed limit than roller bearing

729
Q

Gears used to transmit rotational motion and power between
parallel shafts.
a. Helical gear
b. Bevel gear
c. Worm gear
d. None of the above

A

Helical gear

730
Q

Gears used to transmit rotational motion and power between
intersecting shaft.
a. Helical gear
b. Spur gear
c. Bevel gear
d. None of the above

A

Bevel gear

731
Q

Protective device designed and fitted to prevent dangerous parts
being reached from the side.
a. Shield
b. Casing
c. Enclosure
d. None of the above

A

Shield

732
Q

Protective device designed and fitted to prevent dangerous parts
being reached from all sides.
a. Shield
b. Casing
c. Enclosure
d. None of the above

A

Casing

733
Q

Protective device which is usually made of rail, fence, or frame to
keep dangerous parts out of reach inadvertently.
a. Shield
b. Casing
c. Enclosure
d. None of the above

A

Enclosure

734
Q

Peak of the furrow slice.
a. Furrow head
b. Furrow tip
c. Furrow crown
d. None of the above

A

Furrow crown

735
Q

Cold rolled steel shaft with 0.37% to 0.44% carbon content is
designated by American Iron and Steel Institute as __________ .
a. AISI 1040
b. AISI 1020
c. AISI 1080
d. None of the above

A

AISI 1040

736
Q

Minimum width required for hexagonal shaft of a walking type
tractor prime mover size of 4-6 to 14.5 hp diesel engine or 5 to 16
hp gasoline engine.
a. 25 mm
b. 32 mm
c. 45 mm
d. All of the above

A

32 mm

737
Q

Minimum length of shaft required for walking-type tractor
irregardless of hp rating.
a. 500 mm
b. 750 mm
c. 1000 mm
d. All of the above

A

500 mm

738
Q

Minimum size of chain for the transmission box of walking type
hand tractor.
a. ANSI chain number 40
b. ANSI chain number 50
c. ANSI chain number 60
d. All of the above

A

ANSI chain number 50

739
Q

Pump that develops a vacuum sufficient enough for the
atmospheric pressure to force the liquid to flow through the
suction pipe without the need of feeding the pump with water.
a. Centrifugal pump
b. Vacuum pump
c. Self priming pump
d. None of the above

A

Self priming pump

740
Q

Minimum volumetric efficiency requirement for Lever Operated
Knapsack Sprayer (LOKS).
a. 80%
b. 88%
c. 95%
d. None of the above

A

80%

741
Q

Minimum capacity requirement for LOKS
a. 10 liters
b. 15 liters
c. 20 liters
d. None of the above

A

10 liters

742
Q

Maximum weight required for LOKS at full load.
a. 12 kg
b. 22 kg
c. 32 kg
d. None of the above

A

22 kg

743
Q

Flow rate requirement for LOKS at a mean pressure of 300kPa.
a. 0.3 to 1.4 lpm
b. 1.4 to 2.0 lpm
c. 2.0 to 2.9 lpm
d. None of the above

A

0.3 to 1.4 lpm

744
Q

Maximum pumping rate requirement for LOKS
a. 20 strokes per minute
b. 40 strokes per minute
c. 60 strokes per minute

A

40 strokes per minute

745
Q

A rice thresher was newly purchased by a farmer. After 4 months
of continuous use, the pillow block bearing was heavily worn out.
As agricultural engineer, what would you recommend to the
farmer?
a. Bring the bearing for replacement to the manufacturer of the
thresher.
b. Buy a new bearing and replace it.
c. Ask the manufacturer to pay for the bearing unit.
d. None of the above

A

Buy a new bearing and replace it.

746
Q

The power tiller handle was detached from the main frame
assembly due to a tremendous lateral load during plowing. The
machine was purchased 4 months ago from a nearby
manufacturer. What would you recommend to the farmer?
a. Buy new handle and replace the old one.
b. Consult the manufacturer and request for replacement of the
handle.
c. Bring a welding machine and weld the handle to the frame of
the power tiller.
d. None of the above

A

Consult the manufacturer and request for replacement of the
handle.

747
Q

The engine vibrates too much during threshing operation. To
reduce vibration, what would you recommend?
a. Weld the engine into the frame of the thresher.
b. Ask another person to firmly hold the engine.
c. Tighten bolts and nuts at the engine frame of the thresher.
d. None of the above

A

Tighten bolts and nuts at the engine frame of the thresher.

748
Q

Welding job will be performed at the engine drive of a multiple
pass rice mill. To prevent possible accident during the repair
work, what would you recommend?
a. Remove the engine from the drive.
b. Disconnect the line from the terminal of the battery.
c. Remove the ground line of the welding machine from the
engine drive.
d. None of the above

A

Disconnect the line from the terminal of the battery.

749
Q

A type of centrifugal with a casing made in the form of a spiral
curve.
a. Diffuser pump
b. Volute pump
c. Self-priming pump
d. None of the above

A

Volute pump

750
Q

A type of centrifugal pump wherein the impeller is surrounded by
series of vanes
a. Diffuser pump
b. Volute pump
c. Self-priming pump
d. None of the above

A

Diffuser pump

751
Q

Filling up of pump with water to displace or evacuate the
entrapped air through a vent and create a liquid seal inside the
casing.
a. Pumping
b. Flushing
c. Priming
d. None of the above

A

Priming

752
Q

Graphical representation of the interrelationship between the
capacity, head, power, NPSH, and efficiency of a pump
a. Capacity-power curve
b. Pump efficiency curve
c. Pump performance curve
d. None of the above

A

Pump performance curve

753
Q

Required water temperature in testing pump.
a. 10 C and below
b. 10 C – 40 C
c. 40 C - 60 C
d. None of the above

A

10 C – 40 C

754
Q

Compute the volumetric efficiency of a sprayer pump having a
diameter of 20 cm and a stroke of 20 cm. The actual volume of
water displaced per stroke is 0.460 liter.
a. 85%
b. 92%
c. 98%
d. None of the above

A

92%

755
Q

Compression ratio is equal to ____________
a. piston displacement volume plus clearance volume over
clearance volume.
b. total volume over clearance volume.
c. piston displacement volume plus combustion chamber volume
over combustion chamber volume.
d. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

All of the above

756
Q

Power recommended by manufacturer for satisfactory operation
under continuous duty condition with specified speed range.
a. Rated brake power
b. Continuous brake power
c. Engine brake horsepower
d. None of the above

A

Continuous brake power

757
Q

It is the maximum brake power, fuel consumption, and operating
characteristics of the engine at different speeds.
a. Engine performance curve
b. Engine performance
c. Engine specification
d. None of the above

A

Engine performance

758
Q

Highest power developed by an engine.
a. Peak brake power
b. maximum brake power
c. Rated brake power
d. None of the above

A

Peak brake power

759
Q

Highest power developed by an engine at a given speed.
a. Peak brake power
b. Maximum brake power
c. Full brake power
d. None of the above

A

Maximum brake power

760
Q

Warranty requirement for grain dryers.
a. 6 months
b. 8 months
c. 12 months
d. None of the above

A

12 months

761
Q

Pressure build up at the plenum chamber to maintain uniform
distribution of air flow through the grain mass.
a. Velocity pressure
b. Static pressure
c. Total pressure
d. None of the above

A

Static pressure

762
Q

It is the ratio pf the weight of the shelled corn kernels collected at
the main outlet to the total weight of the corn kernel input of the
sheller expressed in percent.
a. Shelling efficiency
b. Shelling recovery
c. Shelling index
d. None of the above

A

Shelling recovery

763
Q

It is the ratio of the weight of the shelled corn kernel collected at
all outlet of the sheller to the weight of the corn kernel input of the
sheller expressed in percent.
a. Shelling efficiency
b. Shelling recovery
c. shelling index
d. None of the above

A

Shelling efficiency

764
Q

Applicable key for sliding type shaft and hub assembly.
a. Parallel key
b. Woodruff key
c. Taper key
d. All of the above

A

Parallel key

765
Q

Applicable key for assembly that hub is fastened on the key fixed
on a shaft or assembly that the key is driven between the
combined shaft and hub.
a. Parallel key
b. Woodruff key
c. Taper key
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

766
Q

Minimum allowance for face width of flat pulley having a belt
width under 305 mm.
a. 25 mm
b. 51 mm
c. 76 mm
d. None of the above

A

25 mm

767
Q

Minimum allowance for the face width of flat pulley having a belt
width over 610 mm.
a. 25 mm
b. 51 mm
c. 76 mm
d. None of the above

A

76 mm

768
Q

Flat belt that has the advantage of high tensile strength to hold
metal fasteners satisfactorily and is resistance to deterioration by
moisture.
a. Rubberized fabric belt
b. Reinforced nylon chord belt
c. Canvass belt
d. None of the above

A

Rubberized fabric belt

769
Q

Flat belt materials that is oil and heat resistant.
a. Rubberized fabric belt
b. Reinforced nylon chord belt
c. Canvass belt
d. None of the above

A

Reinforced nylon chord belt

770
Q

Power rating of type B v-belt.
a. 0.186 to 1.457 kw
b. 0.764 to 18.642 kw
c. 11.186 to 74.570 kw
d. None of the above

A

0.764 to 18.642 kw

771
Q

Top width and height of type B v-belt
a. 13 mm x 8 mm
b. 16 mm x 10 mm
c. 22 mm x 13 mm
d. None of the above

A

16 mm x 10 mm

772
Q

Implement used for crushing the soil clods and compacting the
soil.
a. Roller harrow
b. Packer
c. Rotary hoe
d. None of the above

A

Packer

773
Q

Implement used for seedbed preparation which crushes soil clods
and smoothen and firm the soil surface.
a. Roller harrow
b. Packer
c. Rotary Hoe
d. None of the above

A

Roller harrow

774
Q

General fragmentation of a soil mass resulting from the action of
tillage forces.
a. Soil reaction
b. Soil shatter
c. Soil sliding
d. None of the above

A

Soil shatter

775
Q

Implement for dislodging small weeds and grasses as for breaking
soil crush and is used for fast, shallow cultivation before or soon
after crop plant emerge.
a. Roller harrow
b. Packer
c. Rotary Hoe
d. None of the above

A

Rotary Hoe

776
Q

An engine was tested on a brake dynamometer at a speed of 2000
rpm. The brake arm of the machine is 1.2 meters and it registered
a load of 5 kg. What is the shaft power of the engine?
a. 16.51 hp
b. 20.56 hp
c. 34.21 hp
d. None of the above

A

16.51 hp

777
Q

The engine fuel tank was completely filled with gasoline fuel
before testing. After 4 hours of continuous test 3.7 liters of fuel
was used to reload the tank completely. Test has shown that the
engine shaft power was 10 hp. What is the specific fuel
consumption of the engine?
a. 87.4 g/kW-hr
b. 92.13 g/kW-hr
c. 100.45 g/kW-hr
d. None of the above

A

92.13 g/kW-hr

778
Q

A power tiller was tested on a 10 m wide plot. During the test, the
machine made 22 rounds to complete the plowing operation using
two-0.3 m diameter disk plow. What is the average swath of the
power tiller?
a. 0.23 m
b. 0.32 m
c. 0.41 m
d. None of the above

A

0.23 m

779
Q

The effective width of cut of a single bottom moldboard plow
drawn by a power tiller is 10 cm. If the machine will be used to
plow a 2 hectare farm, what is the total distance that would be
traveled by the machine in order to accomplished the task?
a. 200 m
b. 200 km
c. 200 miles
d. All of the above

A

200 km

780
Q

The axle of a power tiller was tested on a Prony-brake
dynamometer. The force delivered at the brake arm of 1 m was
300 kg at a speed of 25 rpm. Determine the torque.
a. 300 kg-m
b. 300 N-m
c. 300 ft-lb
d. None of the above

What is the shaft power of the power tiller above?
a. 5.59 hp
b. 5.95 hp
c. 9.55 hp
d. None of the above

A

300 kg-m

5.59 hp

781
Q

Also compute the specific fuel consumption of the engine that
drive the power tiller above if it consumes diesel at a rate of 0.9
liters per hour.
a. 181.06 g/kW-hr
b. 181.06 g/hr-kW
c. 0.181 kg/kW-hr
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

782
Q

Compute the friction head from a 6 meter depth suction pipe of a
centrifugal pump which discharges 0.2 m3 /sec of water. The pipe nominal diameter is 4 inches.
a. 0.864 m per 1000 meters length of pipe
b. 0.864 m per 100 meter length of pipe
c. 0.864 m
d. None of the above

A

0.864 m

783
Q

A pump which discharges 4 liters per second at a head of 6 meters
is driven by electric motor. The input current of the motor is 1.5
amp while the input voltage is 220 volt. What is the overall
efficiency of the pump if the motor power factor is 0.98?
a. 71.2%
b. 72.7%
c. 77.1%
d. None of the above

A

72.7%

784
Q

A pump was installed with a suction head of 6 m and a discharge
head of 10 meters. The discharge rate of the pump is 60 liters per
minute. What is the water horsepower of the pump?
a. 0.210 hp
b. 0.120 hp
c. 0.210 kW
d. None of the above

A

0.210 hp

785
Q

A pump was tested to measure the flow rate using a 90 degree
triangular weir. Tests have shown that the head of water into the
weir averages to 13 cm. What is the average rate of flow of the
pump?
a. 12.2 lps
b. 22.2 lps
c. 32.2 lps
d. None of the above

A

12.2 lps

786
Q

A 1.5 kW split phase motor running at 1740 rpm is to be used to
drive a bucket elevator. The elevator should run at a speed of
approximately 60 rpm. If the service factor for the bucket
elevator is 1.3, what is the design power for the drive?
a. 1.50 kW
b. 1.95 kW
c. 2.01 kW
d. None of the above

A

1.95 kW

787
Q

What is the speed ratio for the drive above if the motor pulley is 4
inches?
a. 1: 20
b. 1: 29
c. 1: 38
d. None of the above

Recommend for a belt section suitable for the drive above.
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. None of the above

A

1: 29

Type B

788
Q

Compute the correction factor for a 9.6 BHP spark ignition engine
tested at 30 C ambient air temperature and total atmospheric air
condition of 1011 mbar.
a. 0.980
b. 1.019
c. 1.119
d. None of the above

What is the corrected BHP of the engine above?
a. 9.41 hp
b. 9.78 hp
c. 10.742 hp
d. None of the above

A

1.019

9.78 hp

789
Q

A four-stroke naturally-aspirated diesel engine was tested on a
prony brake dynamometer and gives a BHP output of 14.2
horsepower. During the test the ambient air temperature is 27 C
while the total atmospheric pressure is 1020 mb. What is the
corrected brake horsepower of the engine?
a. 14.2 hp
b. 14.3 hp
c. 14.6 hp
d. None of the above

A

14.3 hp

790
Q

The center of gravity of a standard two-wheel drive tractor is
located _________
a. at the mid center of the tractor.
b. 1/3 of the wheel base ahead of the rear wheel axle of the
tractor.
c. near the front axle wheel of the tractor.
d. None of the above

A

1/3 of the wheel base ahead of the rear wheel axle of the
tractor.

791
Q

The center of gravity of a four-wheel drive tractor is located
___________
a. at the mid center of the tractor.
b. 1/3 of the wheel base ahead of the rear wheel axle of the
tractor.
c. near the front axle wheel of the tractor.
d. None of the above

A

at the mid center of the tractor.

792
Q

John Deere tractor is made from _____________
a. USA
b. Japan
c. Finland
d. None of the above

A

USA

793
Q

Massey Ferguson tractor is made from _________
a. Finland
b. United Kingdom
c. USA
d. None of the above

A

United Kingdom

794
Q

Ford tractor is made from ___________
a. United Kingdom
b. USA
c. France
d. None of the above

A

USA

795
Q

Goldstar tractor is made from ____
a. Japan
b. Korea
c. China
d. None of the above

A

Korea

796
Q

Valtra Velmet tractor is made from ______
a. Finland
b. Brazil
c. France
d. None of the above

A

Finland

797
Q

Maxion tractor is made from _______
a. Finland
b. Brazil
c. France
d. None of the above

A

Brazil

798
Q

A roller chain drive is to transmit 7.457 kW from a drive shaft to a
driven shaft of a fruit conveyor power. The drive shaft operates at
1200 rpm while the driven shaft must operate between 370 to 380
rpm. The center distance between drive shafts as calculated is
approximately 572 mm. What is the design power for the drive if
the service factor equal to 1.5?
a. 7.4 kW
b. 11.2 kW
c. 13.4 kW
d. None of the above

A

11.2 kW

799
Q

What is the power rating of the drive above if the design life is
5000 hours?
a. 11.2 kW
b. 6.9 kW
c. 3.7 kW
d. None of the above

What is the speed ratio of the drive above?
a. 1.8
b. 3.7
c. 5.5
d. None of the above

A

3.7 kW

3.7

800
Q

If 11 teeth sprocket will be used for the drive shaft, how many
sprocket teeth will be used for the driven shaft?
a. 45 teeth
b. 42 teeth
c. 40 teeth
d. None of the above

A

45 teeth

801
Q

If the chain pitch is 12.7 mm, what is the length of chain needed
for the drive?
a. 100 pitches
b. 120 pitches
c. 140 pitches
d. None of the above

A

140 pitches

802
Q

Pattern efficiency for headland-type field machine pattern on
rectangular field.
a. 93.0%
b. 95.7%
c. 94.8%

A

93.0%

803
Q

Pattern efficiency for continuous-type field machine pattern on
rectangular field
a. 93.0%
b. 95.7%
c. 94.8%
d. None of the above

A

95.7%

804
Q

Pattern efficiency for circuitous-type field machine pattern on
rectangular field
a. 93.0%
b. 95.7%
c. 94.8%
d. None of the above

A

94.8%

805
Q

A three-pulley drive is used to deliver power from an electric
motor at a speed of 17720 rpm to two component parts if a
machine. The motor pulley has a diameter of 4 inches while the
two machines has a pulley diameters of 6 inches and 8 inches,
respectively. Neglecting the belt slip, what are the speeds of the
two pulleys above?
a. 1146 rpm & 860 rpm
b. 1010 rpm & 840 rpm
c. 980 rpm & 760 rpm
d. none of the above

A

1146 rpm & 860 rpm

806
Q

If the center distances of the three pulleys above are: 24 in., 36
in., and 42 in. for pulley 4 to 6, 6 to 8, and 8 to 4 pulley diameters,
respectively, what is the recommended length of the belt needed
above? Assume an angle of arc of 135 for pulley 6 and 8, while
90 for pulley 4 inch diameter.
a. 98.45 in.
b. 101.56 in.
c. 110.34 in.
d. none of the above

A

101.56 in.

807
Q

A rice mill transmission drive uses a standard flat belt of 20 ft.
long. The pulley diameter of the power source is 6 inches. The
pulley diameter of the line shaft is 16 inches. What is the center
distance required for the two shafts?
a. 24.7 ft
b. 20.3 ft
c. 18.6 ft
d. none of the above

What is the arc of contact of the small pulley above?
a. 177 degree
b. 210 degree
c. 221 degree
d. none of the above

What is the arc of contact of the larger pulley above?
a. 183 deg
b. 150 deg
c. 139 deg
d. none of the above

A

18.6 ft

177 degree

183 deg

808
Q

A soil pulverizer with pulley diameter of 4 inches runs at a shaft
speed of 3,000 rpm. The 10 hp diesel engine will be used to
operate at a speed of 1740 rpm. What will be the size of the pulley
for the motor?
a. 7 in.
b. 5 in.
c. 3 in.
d. none of the above

A

7 in.

809
Q

If the standard B72 V-pulley will be used, what would be the center
distance of the pulley?
a. 27 in.
b. 30 in.
c. 35 in.
d. none of the above

A

27 in.

810
Q

What is the speed of the belt in m/s?
a. 3001.7 rpm
b. 3141.6 rpm
c. 3250.6 rpm
d. none of the above

A

3141.6 rpm

811
Q

What is the arc of contact of the small pulley?
a. 160 deg
b. 169 deg
c. 174 deg
d. none of the above

A

174 deg

812
Q

What is the arc of contact of the larger pulley?
a. 186 deg.
b. 178 deg
c. 172 deg
d. none of the above

A

186 deg.

813
Q

An engine is transmitting 13 hp to an axial flow biomass shredder.
The engine pulley is 4 inches in diameter and runs at a standard
speed of 1740 rpm. What is the effective pull of the belt?
a. 980.67 N
b. 1,001.86 N
c. 1,047.44 N
d. none of the above

A

1,047.44 N

814
Q

A flat belt with hp rating of 5 kW/mm will be used to transmit 10
hp. What is the width of the belt needed for the drive? Assume a
service factor of 2.0 and an arc correction factor of 0.79.
a. 3.78 mm
b. 2.98 mm
c. 2.68 mm
d. none of the above

A

3.78 mm

815
Q

A gasoline engine was tested on a prony brake dynamometer. The
engine runs at a speed of 200 rpm and registers a load of 100 kg to
a 0.8 m brake arm. What is the BHP of the engine?
a. 17 hp
b. 22 hp
c. 46 hp
d. none of the above

A

22 hp

816
Q

If the average ambient air temperature condition during test was
27C and the atmospheric pressure is 1010 mbar, what is the
corrected BHP of the engine?
a. 0.98
b. 1.00
c. 1.01
d. none of the above

A

1.01

817
Q

A multi cylinder engine was tested on a prony brake dynamometer.
The average shaft torque of the engine was 250 kg-m at a speed of
1000 rpm. What is the power output of the engine?
a. 652.6 kW
b. 562.5 kW
c. 256.6 kW
d. none of the above

A

256.6 kW

818
Q

A ball bearing has a basic dynamic capacity of 1500N. During
operation, the actual load of the bearing unit is 152N. What is the
life of the bearing in years if it is to be operated continuously for 4
hrs. a day, 20 days per month and 6 months per year operation?
The bearing runs at 1000 rpm.
a. 34.5 years
b. 45.3 years
c. 53.4 years
d. none of the above

A

34.5 years

819
Q

A five-row seeder will be used to place 5 seeds per hill to a 100
hectare farm. The seeder row spacing is 30 cm while the hill
spacing is 25 cm. Compute the number of hills to be planted for the
entire area?
a. 12,888,666 hills
b. 13,333,333 hills
c. 14,121,122 hills
d. none of the above

If the seeder travels at 15 kph, what is the theoretical field capacity
of the machine?
a. 2.25 ha/hr
b. 2.15 ha/hr
c. 2.01 ha/hr
d. none of the above

What is the effective field capacity of the machine if the field
efficiency is 90%?
a. 2.025 ha/hr
b. 1.983 ha/hr
c. 1.869 ha/hr
d. none of the above

How long does the machine finish the job if it will be operated at 8
hrs. per day and 20 days per month?
a. 2 days
b. 4 days
c. 6 days
d. none of the above

If the seeds weigh 0.1 g/seed and requires 5 seeds per hill, what is
the total weight of the seeds needed? % germinability of seeds is
98%.
a. 6.8 tons
b. 6.2 tons
c. 7.9 tons
d. none of the above

A

13,333,333 hills

2.25 ha/hr

2.025 ha/hr

6 days

6.8 tons

820
Q

A power tiller draws a two-row seeder at 30 cm spacing. The
seeder has a 6-pocket metering device and is driven by a 0.4 m
ground wheel. If the required hill spacing is 0.3 m, what is the
recommended sprocket ratio for the drive?
a. 1.43
b. 1.56
c. 2.01
d. none of the above

What is the theoretical field capacity of the implement if it will run
at 4 kph?
a. 0.21 ha/hr
b. 0.24 ha/hr
c. 0.26 ha/hr
d. none of the above

What is the effective field capacity of the implement if its field
efficiency is 90%?
a. 0.201 ha/hr
b. 0.209 ha/hr
c. 0.216 ha/hr
d. none of the above

If the seeds per hole is required at 0.08 g/seed, how many kilos of
seeds are needed to finish 10 ha? Assume germination percentage
at 90%.
a. 286 kg
b. 296 kg
c. 306 kg
d. none of the above

How many hills will be planted for the 10-hectare farm?
a. 999,999 hills
b. 1,111,111 hills
c. 2,111,111 hills
d. none of the above

How many days will the operation be finished?
a. 4.9 days
b. 5.7 days
c. 6.1 days
d. none of the above

If the speed ratio to be used is 1.5, what is the distance per hill?
a. 0.312 m
b. 0.314 m
c. 0.324 m
d. none of the above

A

1.43

0.24 ha/hr

0.216 ha/hr

296 kg

1,111,111 hills

5.7 days

0.314 m

821
Q

A water pump with a 0.2m diameter propeller discharges 60 lpm of
water at a head of 5 m. depth suction and 1 m. discharge. The
pump is driven by an electric motor at 1720 rpm. The pump
efficiency is 72%, and 90%, respectively. Compute the WHP.
a. 0.07 hp
b. 0.08 hp
c. 0.09 hp
d. none of the above

What is the BHP?
a. 0.11 hp
b. 0.12 hp
c. 0.13 hp
d. none of the above

What is the MHP?
a. 0.12 hp
b. 0.13 hp
c. 0.14 hp
d. none of the above

If the speed of the pump is to be reduced to 1200 rpm, what is the
capacity of the pump?
a. 39 lpm
b. 41 lpm
c. 43 lpm
d. none of the above

What is the working head?
a. 2.85 m
b. 2.78 m
c. 2.63 m
d. none of the above

What is the MHP?
a. 0.028 hp
b. 0.039 Hp
c. 0.041 hp
d. none of the above

A

0.08 hp

0.11 hp

0.13 hp

39 lpm

2.85 m

0.039 Hp

822
Q

Determine the width of cut of a six-800 mm diameter disk plow
spaced at 350 mm.
a. 2.8 m
b. 2.7 m
c. 2.6 m
d. none of the above

A

2.8 m

823
Q

What is the effective field capacity of eight-900 mm diameter disk
plow running at a speed of 10 kph. The disks are spaced at 500
mm. Assume a plowing efficiency of 80%.
a. 3.76 ha/hr
b. 3.35 ha/hr
c. 3.01 ha/hr
d. none of the above

A

3.76 ha/hr

824
Q

A farmer has a pump which discharges 100 lpm of water at a head
of 10 m. The pump is driven by an electric motor at a speed of
1700 rpm through a 4” x 4” pulley-drive combination for the motor
and the pump, respectively, what would be the pump output if the
motor pulley is changed to six inches diameter?
a. 145 lpm
b. 150 lpm
c. 155 lpm
d. none of the above

A

150 lpm

825
Q
A
826
Q
A
827
Q
A
828
Q
A
829
Q
A
830
Q
A
831
Q
A
832
Q
A
833
Q
A
834
Q
A
835
Q
A
836
Q
A
837
Q
A
838
Q
A
839
Q
A
840
Q
A
841
Q
A