Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

High Yield General Principles > Behavioural Sciences > Flashcards

Behavioural Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

What is a cross sectional study? What can it be used to measure?

A

Assesses frequence of disease (or other factors) in a group of people at a particular point in time - What is happening?

Measures disease prevalence - shows risk factor association with disease NOTE correlation =/= causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a case control study? What does it measure?

A

Compares group with disease to control - Looks for risk factor

Measures Odds ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a cohort study? What does it measure?

A

Compares group with risk factor to group without risk factor. Looks to see if exposure increases likelihood of disease. Can be retrospective or prospective.

Measure relative risk - e.g. smokers had higher risk of developing COPD than non smokers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a twin concordance study? What does it measure?

A

Compares the frequency with which both monozygotic twins or both dizyogtic twins develop the same disease;

Measures nature vs nurture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an adoption study? What does it measure?

A

Compares siblings raised by biological vs adoptive parents

Measures nature vs nurture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does a triple blinded clinical trial entail?

A

Blinding of patients, doctors and researchers analyzing the data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of a phase I clinical trial?

A

Assesses safety, toxicity, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the purpose of the phase 2 clinical trial?

A

Assesses treatment efficacy, optimal dosing and adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of phase 3 clinical trials?

A

Compares new treatment to current treatment or placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the purpose of phase 4 clinical trials? what does it involve?

A

Postmarketing surveillance of patients after treatment is approved.

Detects rare or long term adverse efects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the sensitivity of a test.

A

Probability that a test detets a disease when disease is present.

SN-N-OUT = a highly SeNsitive test, when Negative, rules OUT disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define the specificity of a test

A

Probability that the test detects no disease when disease is absent.

SP-P-IN = a highly SPecific test, when Positive, rules IN disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define positive predictive value

A

Probability that a person actually has the disease when given a positive test result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define negative predictive value

A

Probability that person actually is disease free when given a negative test result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define incidence and prevalence

A

Incidence - no of new cases / no of people

Pevalnce = no of existing cases / no of people at risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define odds ratio

A

Odds tht the group with the disease was exposed to a risk factor divided by odds that the group without the disease was exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define the relative risk

A

Risk of developing disease in exposed group divided by risk in unexposed group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define the attributable risk

A

difference in risk between exposed and unexposed groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define relative risk reduction

A

Proportion of risk reduction attributable to the intervention as compared to a control

RRR = 1 - Relative Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define absolute risk reduction

A

Difference in risk attributable to the intervention as compared to a control

ARR = (c/c+d) - (a/a+b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define the number needed to treat

A

Number of patients who need to be treated for 1 patient to benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define the number needed to harm

A

number of patients who need to be exposed to a risk factor for 1 patient to be harmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define precision of a test

A

absence of random variation in test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define the accuracy of a test

A

Trueness of test measurements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the berkson bias?

A

Study population selected from hospital is less healthy than general population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the healthy worker effect?

A

Study population is more healthy than general population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the non response bias?

A

participating subjects differ from nonrespondents in meaningful ways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How would you reduce selection bias?

A

Randomization

Ensure the choice of the right comparison group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How would you reduce recall bias?

A

Decrease time from exposure to follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is measurement bias and how would you reduce it?

A

Info is gathered in a way that distorts it

Reduced using a standardised method of data collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is procedure bias and how would you reduce it?

A

Subjects in different groups are not treated the same

Reduce - Blinding and use of placebo to reduce influence of participants and researchers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is observer-expectancy bias and how would it be reduced?

A

Researcher’s belief in the efficacy of a treatment changes the outcome of that treatment - self fulfilling prophecy

Reduce by blinding and use of placebo to reduce influence of participants and researchers

33
Q

What is a confounding bias? How would it be reduced?

A

When a factor is related to both exposure and outcome but isnt on the causal pathway

Reduced by multiple studies, crossover studies where the subjects act as their own controls (they receive both treatments although the order in which they receive them are randomised), and matching (patients with similar characteristics in both treatment and control groups)

34
Q

What is lead time bias and how would you reduce it?

A

Early detection is confused with increased survival

Reduced by measuring back end surbvival (adjust survival rate according to the severity of disease at time of diagnosis)

35
Q

Define standard error

A

an estimate of how much variability exists between sample mean and true population mean

36
Q

What is bimodal distribution?

A

2 peaks of distribution, suggesting 2 different populations

37
Q

What is positive and negative skew distribution?

A

Positive - Asymmetry with longer tail on right due to mean > median > mode

Negative - asymmetry with longer tail on left due to mean < median < mode

38
Q

What is the null hypothesis?

A

no relationship between factor and outcome

39
Q

What is the alternative hypothesis?

A

Some relationship between factor and outcome

40
Q

What would occur if the study result indicated the null hypothesis was correct and the reality is that the null hypothesis is correct?

A

Correct result - there is no relationship

41
Q

What would occur if the study results indicated the alternative hypothesis was correct but the reality was that the null hypothesis was correct?

A

Type 1 error (α) - False positive error.

α is probability of making a type I error. α = you sαw a difference that did not exist

42
Q

Wha twould occur if the study results indicated the null hypothesis was correct but th ereality was that the alternative hypothesis was correct? How would you reduce this error?

A

Type II error (ß) - False negative error

ß is probability of making a type II error.

Reduced by increasing sample size, precision of measurement

43
Q

When would you accept the null hypothesis in:

a) mean difference
b) odds ratio and relative risk
c) CIs between 2 groups

A

a) H0 not rejected when CI for a mean difference between 2 variables includes 0
b) odds ratio or relative risk includes 1
c) if CIs between 2 groups overlaps = H0 accepted

44
Q

What is the t-test used for?

A

checks difference between mean of 2 groups

Tea is meant for 2

45
Q

What is ANOVA used for?

A

checks differences between means of 3 or more groups

46
Q

What is Chi-square used for

A

checks differences between 2 or more percentages or proportions of categorical outcomes (not mean values) e.g. chi square used to measure PERCENTAGE of MEMBERS of 2 different ethnic groups rather than comparing the MABP between 2 different ethnic groups

47
Q

What is the pearson correlation coefficient?

A

“Can I draw a line graph to represent the data?” - r is between -1 and +1

Closer to 1 is stronger linear correlation. +1 is positive correlation. -1 is negative correlation. 0 is no correlation.

48
Q

What is primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary disease prevention?

A

Primary - Prevent disease occurrence e.g. vaccine

Secondary - Screening early for diseaes

Tertiary - Treatment to reduce disability from disease

Quaternary - Identify patients at risk of unnecessary treatment

49
Q

Who is medicare for?

A

medicare for >65, <65 with disabilities and those with end stage renal disease

50
Q

Who is medicaid for?

A

Medicaid for people with v low incomes

51
Q

What are the 4 parts of medicare?

A

Part A - Hospital insurance

Part B - Basic medical bills

Part C - Parts a and b delivered by approved private companies

Part D - Prescription drugs

52
Q

What is the concept of autonomy?

A

respect patients as individuals to create conditions necessary to make self informed decisions and to honour their decisions

53
Q

What is the concept of beneficence?

A

duty to act in the patient’s best interest.

54
Q

What is the concept of Justice?

A

Treat the patients fairly and EQUITABLY. Not necessary equally

55
Q

What does informed consent require?

A
  • Disclosure of info about disease and treatment
  • Ability to understand
  • Ability to make ones own decisions
  • Freedom from coercion or manipulation
56
Q

What situations do not require parental consent?

A
  • Sex (contraception, STIs, pregnancy)
  • Drugs (addiction)
  • Rock and roll (emergency/trauma)
57
Q

What are advance directives?

A

Instructions given by a patient in anticipation of the need for a medical decision

58
Q

What is an oral advancce directive?

A

Incapacitated patient’s prior oral statements commonly used as a guide

59
Q

What is a living will?

A

Describes treatments the patient wishes to recieve or not recieve if they lose decision making capacity

60
Q

What is a medical power of attorney?

A

Patient designates an agent to make medical decisions in the event that they lose decision making capacity

61
Q

What is a surrogate decision maker

A

If patient loses capcity and has not prepared an advance directive, surrogates who knew the patient must determine what the patient would have done

spouse > adult children > parents > adult siblings > others

62
Q

What is an Apgar score? What do the scores mean?

A

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration

Assessment of newborn vital signs following labour via a 10 point scale evaluated at 1 minute and 5 minutes.

>7 is good, 4-6 = assist and stimulate, <4 = resus

63
Q

Define low birth weight. What are the risks?

A

<2500g.

risks of sudden infant death syndrome and mortality

64
Q

What are the motor milestones of a 0-12 month baby?

A
  • Primitive reflexes disappear
  • Posture - lifts head up prone (1mo) –> rolls and sits (by 6 mo) –> crawls (by 8 mo) –> stands up (by 10 mo) –> walks (12-18 months)
  • Picks - passes toys hand to hand (by 6 mo), Pincer grasp (by 10)
  • Points to objects (by 12 mo)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

65
Q

What are the social milestones of a 0-12 mo baby?

A
  • Social smile (by 2 mo)
  • Stranger anxiety (by 6 mo)
  • Separation anxiety (by 9 mo)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

66
Q

What are the verbal/cognitive milestones of a 0-12 mo baby?

A
  • Orients - first to voice (by 4 mo), then to name and gestures (by 9 mo)
  • Object peramnence (by 9 mo)
  • Oratory - says mama and dada (by 10 mo)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

67
Q

What are the motor milestones of a 12-36 mo baby?

A
  • Cruises - takes first steps (by 12mo)
  • Climbs stairs (by 18 mo)
  • Cubes stacked - number = age (yr) x 3
  • Cultured - feeds self with fork and spoon (by 20 mo)
  • Kicks ball (by 24 mo)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

68
Q

What are the social milestones of a 12-36 mo toddler?

A
  • Recreation - parallel play (play next to each other but independently)
  • Rapprochement - moves away from and returns to mother (by 24 mo)
  • Realisation - core gender identitiy formed (by 36 mo)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

69
Q

What are the verbal/cognitive milestones of a 12-36 mo toddler?

A
  • Words - 200 words by age 2, 2 word sentences

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

70
Q

What are the motor milestones of a 3-5 yr old?

A
  • Drive - tricycle (3 wheels at yr 3)
  • Drawings - copies line or circle, stick figure (by yr 4)
  • Dexterity - hops on one foot (by yr 4), uses buttons or zippers and grooms self (by yr 5)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

71
Q

What are the social milestones of a 3-5 yr old?

A
  • Freedom - comfortably spends part of day away from mother (by 3 yr)
  • Friends - coop play, has imaginary friends (by 4 yr)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

72
Q

What are the verbal/cognitive milestones of a 3-5 yr old?

A

Language - 1000 words by age 3 (3 zeroes), uses complete sentences (by yr 4)

Legends - can tell detailed stories (by yr 4)

Parents Start Observing

Child Rearing Working

Dont Forget, theyre still Learning!

73
Q

What sexual changes occur in elderly men?

A

Slower erection / ejaculation

Longer refractory period

Sexual interst does not decrease

74
Q

What sexual changes occur in elderly women?

A

Vaginal shortening, thinning, dryness

Sexual interest does not decrease

75
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

Sensorinerual hearing loss due to destruction of hair cells at cochlear base

76
Q

What is the no. 1 cause of death in:

a) <1
b) 1-14 yo
c) 15 - 34 yo
d) 35-44 yo
e) 45-64 yo
f) 65+

A

a) congenital malformations
b) accidents
c) accidents
d) accidents
e) cancer
f) heart disease

77
Q

What is the no. 2 cause of death in:

a) <1
b) 1-14 yo
c) 15 - 34 yo
d) 35-44 yo
e) 45-64 yo
f) 65+

A

a) preterm birth
b) cancer
c) suicide
d) cancer
e) heart disease
f) cancer

78
Q

What is the no. 3 cause of death in:

a) <1
b) 1-14 yo
c) 15 - 34 yo
d) 35-44 yo
e) 45-64 yo
f) 65+

A

a) SIDS
b) congenital malformations
c) homicide
d) heart disease
e) accidents
f) chronic resp disease

High Yield General Principles (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions