Behavioural science and socio-cultural psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

Inability to create new memories (to transfer new information from the short-term to the long-term store).

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2
Q

(Likely) mechanism of anterograde amnesia

A

Damage to hippocampus

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3
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

loss of memory for information that was acquired before the onset of the amnesia

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4
Q

Type of memory most affected in retrograde amnesia

A

Episodic

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5
Q

Areas that when damaged, can cause amnesia

A

Medial temporal lobe
Hippocampus
Midline diencephalon

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6
Q

Source amnesia

A

Inability to remember where, when or how previously learned information has been acquired, while retaining the factual knowledge.

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7
Q

Psychogenic amnesia

A

Memory disorder characterized by sudden retrograde episodic memory loss, said to occur for a period of time ranging from hours to years

aka dissociative amnesia

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8
Q

Global psychogenic amnesia

A

Fugue states are common. Characterized by a sudden loss of autobiographical memories for the whole of a person’s past.

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9
Q

Situation-specific amnesia

A

refers to a gap in memory for a traumatic incident

aka lacunar amnesia

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10
Q

Transient global amnesia

A

a condition characterised by transient loss of memory. It typically affects those over 50 and spontaneously resolves within 24 hours.

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11
Q

Proposed mechanism of transient global amnesia

A

a variant of migraine, a form of epilepsy, or a presentation of a TIA (transient ischemic attack).

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12
Q

Anti-psychiatry movement beliefs

A

Supports the notion that mental illnesses are social constructs which reflect deviation from social norms.

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13
Q

Thomas Szasz dates

A

1920-2012

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14
Q

Thomas Szasz is known for

A

Hungarian-American psychiatrist and scholar known for his criticism of the mental health system and his role in the antipsychiatry movement.

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15
Q

Thomas Szasz beliefs

A

Mental illness was a social construct rather than a biological disease. Szasz argued that labelling certain behaviours as mental disorders was a way for society to exert control over individuals and suppress unconventional thinking.

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16
Q

Thomas Szasz advocated for

A

Personal autonomy and argued against involuntary psychiatric treatment, emphasizing the importance of individual rights and the need for voluntary and consensual approaches to mental health care.

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17
Q

R.D. Laing dates

A

1927-1989

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18
Q

R.D. Laing is known for

A

Scottish psychiatrist who challenged traditional psychiatric practices and played a significant role in the antipsychiatry movement

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19
Q

R.D. Laing beliefs

A

Emphasized the importance of understanding the subjective experiences and social contexts of individuals experiencing mental distress. Laing believed that mental illness could arise as a response to dysfunctional family or societal dynamics

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20
Q

R.D. Laing advocated for

A

A more humane and compassionate approach to psychiatric treatment, stressing the need for therapeutic relationships, empathy, and the creation of supportive environments to aid individuals in their recovery.

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21
Q

Michel Foucault dates

A

1926-1984

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22
Q

Michel Foucault known for

A

French philosopher, social theorist, and historian of ideas who contributed to critiquing psychiatric practices. Although his work was not directly associated with the antipsychiatry movement, it had a significant influence on its development.

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23
Q

Michel Foucault’s work

A

Foucault examined how psychiatric institutions exerted control and discipline over individuals—explored the relationship between psychiatry, society, and the normalization of behaviour, questioning the validity of psychiatric diagnoses and challenging the authority and oppressive aspects of institutional psychiatry.

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24
Q

Franco Basaglia dates

A

1924-1980

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25
Q

Franco Basaglia known for

A

Italian psychiatrist who played a crucial role in the movement for the reform of mental health care in Italy

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26
Q

Franco Basaglia impact

A

He advocated for the closure of psychiatric hospitals. Basaglia believed that mental health care should prioritize social integration, human rights, and autonomy. He implemented ‘democratic psychiatry,’ which involved treating mental health issues within the community, destigmatizing mental illness, and promoting social inclusion for those with psychiatric disorders. Basaglia’s efforts significantly impacted mental health policies and practices globally.

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27
Q

Attribution theory (who + when)

A

Fritz Heider (1958)

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28
Q

Attribution theory is…?

A

It provides the framework necessary to understand how individuals explain why events in their environment happened. Attribution theory deals with how the social perceiver uses information to arrive at causal explanations for events. It examines what information is gathered and how it is combined to form a causal judgment.

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29
Q

When we hear that a co-worker had an accident on his way to a meeting, we are more likely to explain this behaviour in terms of our co-worker’s carelessness rather than considering that he was running late.

A

Example of Fundamental Attribution Error

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30
Q

Fundamental Attribution Error

A

When we make attributions about another person’s actions, we are likely to overemphasize the role of dispositional factors rather than situational causes.

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31
Q

A student who studied may explain her behaviour by referencing situational factors such as ‘I have an exam next week’, whereas others will explain her studying by referencing dispositional factors such as ‘She’s ambitious and hard-working’.

A

Example of Actor-observer Bias

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32
Q

Actor-observer bias

A

We tend to overvalue dispositional explanations of others’ behaviours and undervalue situational explanations of our own behaviour.

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33
Q

Difference between correspondence bias & Fundamental Attribution Error

A

In correspondence bias we believe this is always how the other person is, an enduring characteristic rather than something transient (but still personal)

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34
Q

Correspondence bias

A

The tendency to draw inferences about a person’s unique and enduring dispositions from behaviours that can be entirely explained by the situations in which they occur (that the person’s behaviour corresponds to the person’s unique dispositions).

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35
Q

A tennis player who wins his match might say, ‘I won because I am a good athlete,’ whereas the loser might say, ‘I lost because the referee was unfair.’

A

Example of self-serving bias

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36
Q

Self-serving bias

A

Refers to people’s tendency to attribute their successes to internal factors but attribute their failures to external

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37
Q

If a child witnesses two other children whispering and assumes they are talking about him, that child makes an attribution of negative intent, even though the other children’s behaviour was potentially benign.

A

Example of hostile attribution bias

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38
Q

Hostile attribution bias

A

An interpretive bias in which individuals exhibit a tendency to interpret other people’s ambiguous behaviour as hostile rather than benign.

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39
Q

False consensus effect

A

Refers to the tendency for people to project their way of thinking onto other people. In other words, they assume that everyone else thinks the same way they do.

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40
Q

The traditional echo chamber view of social media — that people surround themselves with people who share their opinions, intensifying that group’s norms and beliefs

A

Example of false consensus effect

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41
Q

What was the Beecher Paper?

A

Listed 22 cases of medical research where subjects were subject to experimentation without being fully informed of their status as research subjects, and without knowledge of the risks of such participation in the research. 1966.

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42
Q

Suppose a patient ruminates about a past mistake at work, instead of delving into why they feel so bad about it. In that case, the therapist might guide them to recognise their pattern of rumination and then encourage them to engage in an activity they’ve been avoiding, breaking the rumination cycle.

A

Example of behavioural activation

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43
Q

Behavioural activation

A

Therapeutic approach for depression that primarily emphasises activity scheduling

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44
Q

History of behavioural activation

A

Introduced by Martell in 2001

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45
Q

Bion’s Group Dynamics

A

He believed that groups had a collective unconscious that operated similarly to that of an individual. Therefore, he claimed that the function of this unconsciousness was to protect the group from the pain of reality.

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46
Q

Working Group

A

In Bion’s group dynamics is a group that is working well and getting the job done

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47
Q

Dependency basic assumption group

A

The group turns towards a leader to protect them from anxiety.

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48
Q

Fight-flight basic assumption group

A

The group acts as if there is an enemy who must be attacked or avoided. The enemy can be within the group or external. The group may pursue and defeat the perceived enemy but will soon create another one.

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49
Q

Pairing basic assumption group

A

The group acts as if the answer lies in the pairing of two of the members. This pairing may be friendly or extremely hostile.

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50
Q

The way doctors in different specialities become so damning of one another.

A

Example of fight-flight basic assumption group

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51
Q

When a group of strangers gets together for the first time, there can be an awkward silence before someone finally takes the initiative and becomes the leader.

A

Example of dependency basic assumption group

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52
Q

Bystanders more likely to help

A

Male, not strangers

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53
Q

Bystanders less likely to help

A

Dangerous, many other people, physical cost of intervention, perpetrator present

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54
Q

Ivan Pavlov created

A

Classical Conditioning

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55
Q

Incubation

A

This occurs in fear responses. When a person is exposed to a stimulus which causes fear (for example being bitten by a dog), the fear response can increase over time due to brief exposures to the conditioned stimulus (for example to sight of dogs).

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56
Q

Counter conditioning

A

Involves pairing a feared conditioned stimulus with a positive outcome (e.g., food). Over repeated CS-positive US pairings, the fear response declines, and is often replaced by an appetitive response

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57
Q

Extinction

A

If a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus then the conditioned response will disappear

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58
Q

Exposure therapy for anxiety disorders is an example of what

A

Extinction classical conditioning

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59
Q

Aversive conditioning

A

A technique where an unpleasant stimulus is paired with an unwanted behaviour (such as nail-biting, smoking) in order to create an aversion to it

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60
Q

Temporal conditioning

A

the unconditioned stimulus is paired to time (there is no conditioned stimulus). The unconditioned stimulus is presented at regular intervals (for example, every 20 minutes). Eventually the unconditioned response will occur shortly prior to the unconditioned stimulus.

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61
Q

Delay conditioning

A

The conditioned stimulus precedes the unconditioned stimulus by a delay. The conditioned stimulus is still active when the unconditioned stimulus begins.

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62
Q

Trace conditioning

A

Involves the presentation of the unconditioned stimulus once the conditioned stimulus has finished.

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63
Q

Backward conditioning

A

the conditioned stimulus follows the unconditioned stimulus.

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64
Q

Law of contiguity

A

stimuli need to occur close together in time in order to be associated.

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65
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

If the conditioned stimulus is not presented at all for sometime after extinction and is then presented again the conditioned response will return to some degree

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66
Q

Higher Order Conditioning

A

This occurs when a new stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus when it is paired with an established conditioned stimulus

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67
Q

Stimulus generalisation

A

The extension of the conditioned response from the original conditioned stimulus to other similar stimuli.

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68
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

A stimulus significantly dissimilar to the CS (for example, a bell of a much higher pitch) does not produce a CR.

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69
Q

What was the Willowbrook State School study?

A

The Willowbrook School was a state-supported institution for children with learning difficulties in New York. During the 1960s, a study was carried out there which involved the inoculation of healthy children with hepatitis and the subsequent administration of gamma globulin for its potential to treat the disorder

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70
Q

What was the Tuskegee syphilis experiment?

A

A follow-up study of impoverished black farmers with syphilis. A significant proportion of those in the study did not receive available treatment even though it became available halfway through the study. Victims included a number of men who died of syphilis, their wives who contracted the disease, and some children who were born with syphilis

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71
Q

What’s the Belmont report?

A

Report on the Tuskegee syphilis experiment which introduced many changes into US law on research ethics

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72
Q

Stanford’s Prison Experiment

A

24 students were recruited who scored highly on measures of maturity and stability. Each participant was then assigned as either a prison or a guard.

Participants were given no guidelines for how to behave, except the guards who were told not to use physical abuse under any circumstances. Within only two days, the participants literally became the roles they were assigned. The guards began to act very harshly and sometimes even cruel to the prisoners.

While no one was physically hurt during the study, a few of the prisoners displayed extreme emotional reactions that warranted termination of the study after only six days.

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73
Q

The Tearooms Study

A

This study (conducted by Humphreys) involved him hanging around ‘tearooms’ (public toilets where men meet to have sex) to study the population and learn more about the types of men who did it.

However, the method was more controversial than the topic. He never disclosed his motives when he interviewed the men and instead pretended to be a ‘watchqueen’, which raised the issue of informed consent in research.

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74
Q

Milgrams’ Study

A

Milgram was interested in authority and obedience and devised a study to investigate this.

The participants were told that they were participating in research on the effects of punishment on memory. In each session, the participant was assigned the role of the teacher while a confederate played the learner and was ultimately strapped to an electric chair that could be controlled by the teacher in another room.

The two communicated via an intercom system. Although all participants believed the setup to be genuine, the learner would never receive any actual shocks. The participant’s job was to read the learner a list of words and wait for him to repeat them. If he was incorrect or did not respond, he was shocked. Each time this occurred, the participant had to administer a fake shock that was 15 volts more intense than the last (the maximum was 450 volts). The shock machine was labelled with phrases such as Danger: Severe Shock. If a participant expressed any concern during the session, the experimenter urged him to continue by saying, for example, It is absolutely essential that you continue. But, participants were told at the beginning of the experiment that they were free to leave whenever they wished to do so. Much to the experimenters, and later, the public’s surprise, 30 of the participants continued to follow the procedure and administer shocks until 450 volts was reached. Although Milgram expressed concern for the well-being of his participants, he decided not to terminate the study because each prior participant seemed to have recovered relatively well.

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75
Q

Rosenhan experiment

A

For this study, eight ‘pseudopatients’ (including Professor Rosenhan) presented themselves with the same symptoms: they reported hearing voices that said, ‘thud, empty, hollow.’ All eight were admitted and diagnosed with severe mental disorders.

The pseudopatients spent between seven and 52 days in psychiatric institutions; not one hospital staff member identified the participants as fake patients, though many other patients did express the belief that they were undercover agents. The pseudopatients eventually left all hospitals against medical advice with their diagnoses ‘in remission.’

The paper, ‘Being Sane in insane places’, was published at a time of extreme scepticism aimed at psychiatry and its institutions and was used to justify a trend toward deinstitutionalisation, in which large psychiatric hospitals were shuttered in favour of community-based care centres.

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76
Q

Social class I

A

Professional

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77
Q

Social class II

A

Intermediate

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78
Q

Social class III

A

Skilled, manual, or clerical

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79
Q

Social class IV

A

Semi-skilled

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80
Q

Social class V

A

Unskilled

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81
Q

What is sensory memory?

A

The capacity for briefly retaining large amounts of information encountered daily.

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82
Q

What type of memory is gathered through auditory stimuli?

A

Echoic memory

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83
Q

What type of memory is gathered through sight?

A

Iconic memory

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84
Q

What type of memory is acquired through touch?

A

Haptic memory

85
Q

How long does iconic memory retain information from sight?

A

Approximately 1 second

86
Q

Define short-term memory

A

The ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time

87
Q

How is working memory different from short-term memory?

A

Working memory involves the maintenance and controlled manipulation of information before recall

88
Q

Describe Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model

A

A model suggesting the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity that receives sensory information and data from long-term memory, and can send information back to long-term memory

89
Q

What is the central executive in Baddeley and Hitch’s model?

A

A component responsible for focusing, dividing, and switching attention

90
Q

What does the visuospatial sketchpad do?

A

Stores and processes information in visual or spatial form, and allows manipulation of images in the mind.

91
Q

What is the phonological loop?

A

A component that holds verbal and auditory information, consisting of the phonological store and the articulatory rehearsal system.

92
Q

What is the episodic buffer?

A

A temporary storage system that integrates information from different sources.

93
Q

What are declarative memories?

A

Memories that can be consciously retrieved

94
Q

What are non-declarative memories?

A

Memories that cannot be consciously retrieved

95
Q

Define episodic memory

A

A type of declarative memory that stores personal experiences and information about the time and place of an event.

96
Q

Define semantic memory

A

A type of declarative memory that stores information about facts and concepts

97
Q

What is eidetic memory?

A

The ability to recall images, sounds, or objects in much detail after only a few instances of exposure

98
Q

Define procedural memory

A

A type of non-declarative memory that recalls motor and executive skills necessary to perform tasks, often without conscious awareness

99
Q

What is associative memory?

A

The storage and retrieval of information through association with other information, involved in classical and operant conditioning

100
Q

What is non-associative memory?

A

Memory referring to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus, including sensitization and habituation

101
Q

What is priming in memory?

A

An effect where exposure to certain stimuli influences the response to stimuli presented later.

102
Q

Who devised the theory of operant conditioning?

A

B. F. Skinner.

103
Q

What is operant conditioning also known as?

A

Instrumental learning.

104
Q

What does operant conditioning suggest about learning?

A

People learn by interacting with their environments.

105
Q

What is a reinforcer in operant conditioning?

A

A stimulus/event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated.

106
Q

What is positive reinforcement?

A

Strengthening a behavior by adding a rewarding stimulus.

107
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

Strengthening a behavior by removing an unpleasant stimulus.

108
Q

What is a punisher in operant conditioning?

A

A stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated.

109
Q

What is positive punishment?

A

Reducing the frequency of a behavior by adding an unpleasant stimulus.

110
Q

What is negative punishment?

A

Reducing the frequency of a behavior by removing a pleasant stimulus.

111
Q

What are primary reinforcers?

A

Instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex.

112
Q

What are secondary reinforcers?

A

Reinforcers that are not innately appreciated and are learned through classical conditioning or other methods, such as money.

113
Q

What is a fixed interval schedule?

A

A reward after a fixed amount of time.

114
Q

What is a variable interval schedule?

A

A reward after a varying amount of time.

115
Q

What is a fixed ratio schedule?

A

A reward occurs after a behavior is repeated a fixed number of times.

116
Q

What is a variable ratio schedule?

A

A reward occurs after a random number of responses.

117
Q

What is a random reinforcement schedule?

A

No pattern of reinforcement.

118
Q

Which reinforcement schedule is most resistant to extinction?

A

Variable ratio schedule.

119
Q

What is shaping in operant conditioning?

A

Rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the desired behavior.

120
Q

What is chaining in operant conditioning?

A

Breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections.

121
Q

How does shaping differ from chaining?

A

Shaping always moves forward and each new approximation is reinforced, whereas chaining can move backward and reinforcers are usually provided at the end of the chain.

122
Q

What is escape conditioning?

A

Removing an aversive situation after a response, a form of negative reinforcement.

123
Q

What is avoidance conditioning?

A

Learning to respond to a signal to avoid an aversive stimulus before it arrives.

124
Q

What is habituation?

A

A decrease in response to a stimulus over time.

125
Q

What is spontaneous recovery in habituation?

A

The reappearance of a response at full strength after the stimulus is removed for a period of time and then reintroduced.

126
Q

What is covert sensitization?

A

Using mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

127
Q

Provide an example of covert sensitization.

A

Associating smoking a cigarette with the development of lung cancer using imagery.

128
Q

What are the three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics?

A

Utilitarianism, Deontological, Virtue-based.

129
Q

Who are the main founders of utilitarianism?

A

Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill.

130
Q

What is the basic principle of utilitarianism?

A

The greatest good for the greatest number.

131
Q

How is utilitarianism classified as an ethical theory?

A

It is a consequentialist theory, focusing on the outcomes of actions.

132
Q

What is Bentham’s felicific calculus?

A

A process to classify how good an action is by measuring the pleasure or pain it produces.

133
Q

How does John Stuart Mill’s rule utilitarianism differ from Bentham’s approach?

A

Mill believed in sticking to moral rules that should be calculated using the principle of utility.

134
Q

Give an example of utilitarianism in medical practice.

A

The use of evidence-based medicine to produce guidelines on cost-effectiveness by organizations like NICE.

135
Q

What is a teleological theory?

A

An ethical theory where the morality of an action is determined by its outcome.

136
Q

What is the focus of deontological ethics?

A

Moral duties and rules rather than consequences.

137
Q

Who is a key figure associated with deontological ethics?

A

Immanuel Kant.

138
Q

What is the ‘categorical imperative’ according to Kant?

A

“Act only on that maxim through which you can at the same time will that it should become a universal law.”

139
Q

Provide an example of a deontological rule in medical ethics.

A

The General Medical Council’s code of conduct, Good Medical Practice.

140
Q

What does virtue ethics emphasize in ethical assessment?

A

The ethical characteristics of a person.

141
Q

Name some virtues recognized in virtue ethics.

A

Honesty, generosity, compassion, courage, justice, fidelity, and veracity.

142
Q

What is the Greek term associated with virtue ethics for a good, happy, flourishing life?

A

Eudaimonia.

143
Q

Who introduced the idea of the ‘four principles’ or ‘principlism’?

A

Tom Beauchamp and James Childress.

144
Q

What does ‘prima facie’ mean in the context of the four principles?

A

It means that the principle is binding unless it conflicts with another moral principle.

145
Q

What are the four basic ethical principles of principlism?

A

Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence, Justice.

146
Q

What does the principle of autonomy refer to?

A

A patient’s right to make their own decisions.

147
Q

What does the principle of beneficence refer to?

A

The expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient.

148
Q

What does the principle of non-maleficence refer to?

A

The fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, associated with the phrase ‘primum non nocere’ or ‘above all, do no harm.’

149
Q

What does the principle of justice refer to?

A

The expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

150
Q

Who is associated with the terms dementia praecox and manic depression?

A

Emil Kraepelin.

151
Q

Who coined the term schizophrenia?

A

Eugen Bleuler.

152
Q

Who introduced the term hebephrenia?

A

Ewald Hecker

153
Q

Who is associated with the term catatonia?

A

Karl Kahlbaum.

154
Q

Who first used the term demence precoce?

A

Bénédict Morel.

155
Q

Who is associated with the term schizoaffective?

A

Jacob Kasanin.

156
Q

Who coined the term neurasthenia?

A

George Miller Beard.

157
Q

Who introduced the terms unipolar and bipolar?

A

Karl Kleist.

158
Q

Who is associated with the term hypnosis?

A

James Braid.

159
Q

Who is known for developing the concept of group dynamics?

A

Kurt Lewin.

160
Q

Who is credited with founding group psychotherapy?

A

Jacob L. Moreno.

161
Q

Who coined the term psychopathic inferiority?

A

Julius Ludwig August Koch.

162
Q

Who coined the term psychiatry?

A

Johann Christian Reil.

163
Q

Who is associated with the term institutional neurosis?

A

Russell Barton.

164
Q

Who is often (incorrectly) credited by some sources with first using the term dementia praecox, despite the term being popularized by Kraepelin?

A

Arnold Pick.

165
Q

What are the three main theoretical perspectives on aggression?

A

Psychodynamic, Sociobiological / Drive, Cognitive and Learning.

166
Q

Who proposed the psychodynamic theory of aggression?

A

Sigmund Freud.

167
Q

According to Freud, what are the two primary instincts that influence aggression?

A

Thanatos (the death instinct) and Eros (the life instinct).

168
Q

What is catharsis in Freud’s theory?

A

The process of discharging libidinal energy to make us feel calm, often through watching or participating in mild aggression.

169
Q

What did Freud’s ‘hydraulic model’ of the mind compare the mind to?

A

A pressure cooker needing to let off steam.

170
Q

Who proposed the sociobiological / drive theory of aggression?

A

Konrad Lorenz.

171
Q

What did Lorenz believe about aggression in relation to survival?

A

Aggression is instinctual, necessary for survival, and ensures a balance in the animal kingdom by selecting stronger genes.

172
Q

What is the title of Lorenz’s major work on aggression?

A

“On Aggression” (1963).

173
Q

Who developed the Cognitive Neoassociation Theory of aggression?

A

Leonard Berkowitz.

174
Q

What triggers aggressive thoughts and behaviors according to Berkowitz’s theory?

A

Aversive events such as frustrations, provocations, loud noises, and uncomfortable temperatures.

175
Q

What earlier model did Berkowitz’s theory develop from?

A

The frustration-aggression hypothesis by John Dollard.

176
Q

Who pioneered the Social Learning Theory of aggression?

A

Albert Bandura.

177
Q

What famous experiment did Bandura conduct to demonstrate observational learning?

A

The Bobo doll experiment.

178
Q

What concept did Bandura introduce that links behaviorism and cognitive psychology?

A

Reciprocal determinism.

179
Q

What is the main idea in Julian Rotter’s social learning theory?

A

Personality represents an interaction of the individual with their environment, considering both life history and environmental stimuli.

180
Q

What comprehensive model considers social, cognitive, developmental, and biological factors on aggression?

A

The General Aggression Model (by Craig Anderson and Brad Bushman).

181
Q

What are the three areas in Freud’s structural model of the psyche?

A

Id, Ego, Super Ego.

182
Q

Which area of the psyche contains instinctive drives and operates under the ‘pleasure principle’?

A

The Id.

183
Q

What type of thinking does the Id operate under?

A

Primary process thinking.

184
Q

Which area of the psyche attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality?

A

The Ego.

185
Q

What principle does the Ego operate on?

A

The reality principle.

186
Q

What aspects does the Ego have in terms of consciousness?

A

Conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects.

187
Q

Where are defense mechanisms located according to Freud?

A

In the Ego.

188
Q

Which area of the psyche constantly observes a person and acts as a critical agency?

A

The Super Ego.

189
Q

How did Freud claim the Super Ego develops?

A

From internalized values of a child’s main carers.

190
Q

What is the ‘ego ideal’?

A

A part of the Super Ego representing ideal attitudes and behavior.

191
Q

How can the Super Ego be thought of in simpler terms?

A

As the conscience.

192
Q

Who believed that the main driving force in personality is a striving for superiority?

A

Alfred Adler.

193
Q

What concept did Carl Jung introduce to describe the part of the ego presented to other people?

A

Persona

194
Q

According to Carl Jung, what is the ‘shadow’?

A

The more hidden part of the self.

195
Q

What are the two types of unconscious that Carl Jung differentiated between?

A

The personal unconscious and the collective unconscious.

196
Q

What are archetypes according to Carl Jung?

A

Symbolic images in the collective unconscious.

197
Q

Name four important archetypes identified by Carl Jung.

A

Anima (female principle), animus (male principle), the shadow, and the self.

198
Q

Who is known for the stages of psychosocial development?

A

Erik Erickson.

199
Q

Which neo-Freudian introduced interpersonal therapy?

A

Harry Stack Sullivan.

200
Q

What are the two groups in Wilfred Bion’s theory on group dynamics?

A

The work group and the basic assumption group.

201
Q

Name the three basic assumptions in Wilfred Bion’s theory.

A

Fight or flight, dependency, and pairing.

202
Q

Who developed attachment theory?

A

John Bowlby.

203
Q

Who developed the concept of defense mechanisms?

A

Anna Freud.

204
Q

What therapy is Otto Kernberg known for, especially useful for people with borderline personality disorder?

A

Transference Focused Psychotherapy.

205
Q

Who theorized the phases of child development, including the autistic phase, symbiotic phase, and separation-individuation phase?

A

Margaret Mahler.

206
Q

Who introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother?

A

Donald Winnicott.

207
Q

What does the James-Lange theory suggest about the origin of emotions?

A

Emotions happen as a result of bodily sensations.

208
Q
A