Behavioral Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

Neuropsychology

A

The study of the connection between the nervous system and behavior.
Focuses on the functions of various brain regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of neurons

A

3 types:
Sensory (afferent)
Motor (efferent)
Interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do reflex arcs do?

A

They use the ability of Interneurons in the spinal cord to relay information to the source of stimuli while simultaneously routing it to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 2 systems make up the nervous system and what are the components of each?

A

Central nervous system (CNS): brain and spinal cord

Peripheral nervous system (PNS): cranial and spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two systems make up the peripheral nervous system?

A

Somatic (voluntary)

Autonomic (automatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What two systems make up the autonomic nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic (rest-and-digest)

Sympathetic (fight-or-flight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three subdivisions of the brain?

A

Hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the hindbrain contain?

A

The cerebellum, medulla oblongata, and reticular ?????

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the midbrain contain?

A

The interior and superior colliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the forebrain contain?

A

The thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, and cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do we study the brain?

A

Study animals and humans with lesions, electrical stimulation, and activity recording (EEG), and regional cerebral blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the thalamus do?

A

Relay station for sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the hypothalamus do?

A

Maintains homeostasis and integrates with the endocrine system through the hypophyseal portal that connects it to the anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the basal ganglia do?

A

Smoothness movements and helps maintain postural stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the limbic system do?

A

Controls emotion and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What makes up the limbic system?

A

The septal nuclei, amygdala, and hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the septic nuclei involves in?

A

Feelings of pleasure, pleasure-seeking behavior and addiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the amygdala control?

A

Fear and aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the hippocampus do?

A

Consolidates memories and communicates with other parts of the limbic system through and extension called the fornix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the four lives that make up the cerebral cortex?

A

Frontal
Parietal
Occipital
Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the frontal lobe control?

A

Executive function, impulse control, long-term planning, motor function, and speech production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the parietal lobe control?

A

Sensations of touch, pleasure, temperature, and pain; spatial processing, orientation, and manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the occipital lobe control?

A

Visual processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the temporal lobe control?

A

Sound processing, speech perception, memory, and emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is the brain divided?

A

Into two different cerebral hemispheres.

Most people’s left brain is the dominant hemisphere for language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

They are released from neurons.

Carry a signal to another neuron or effector (muscle fiber or a gland)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is acetylcholine used for?

A

Used by the somatic nervous system (move muscles), the parasympathetic nervous system, and the central nervous system (alertness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does dopamine do?

A

Maintains smooth movements, steady posture, and pleasure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do endorphins and enkephalins do?

A

Act as a painkiller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do epinephrine and norepinephrine do?

A

Maintain wakefulness and alertness, mediate fight-or-flight responses.
Epinephrine tends to act as a hormone, norepinephrine tends to act as a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does GABA do?

A

Brain stabilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does serotonin do?

A

Modulates mood, sleep patterns, eating patterns, and dreaming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is the endocrine system tied to the nervous system?

A

Through the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary (and other hormones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is cortisol?

A

Stress hormone released by the adrenal Cortez

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does testosterone and estrogen do?

A
Mediates libido. 
Testosterone increases aggressive behavior 
Released by the adrenal cortex
Testes in males produce testosterone
Ovaries in females produce estrogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does epinephrine and norepinephrine do?

A

Released by adrenal medulla

Cause physiological changes associated with the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is nature vs. nurture?

A

Classic debate regarding contributions of genetics (nature) and environment (nurture) to an individuals traits
Most traits nurture and nature play a role
Can be studied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do family studies look at?

A

Relative frequency of a trait within a family compared to the general population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do twin studies look at?

A

Compare concordance rates between monozygotic (identical) and dizygotic (fraternal) twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do adoption studies look at?

A

Compare similarities between adopted children and their adoptive parents, relative to similarities with their biological parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does the nervous system develop?

A

Through neurulation

Notochord stimulates overlying ectoderm to fold over, creates neural tubed topped with neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the neural tube become?

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do the neural crest cells become?

A

Spread through you the body - differentiate into many different tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When do people have primitively reflexes and why do we have them?

A

People have them as infants and in certain nervous system disorders.
Serve(d) as a protective role

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the rooting reflex?

A

Infant turns head toward anything that brushes the cheek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the Moro reflex?

A

Infant extends arm, slowly retracts arm and cried in response to sensation of falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the Babinski reflex?

A

Big toe is extended and other toes are fanned out in response to brushing of the sole of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the grasping reflex?

A

Infant grabs anything put in their hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What do developmental milestones do?

A

Indicate what skills and abilities a child should have at a given age. Most children adhere closely to the milestones - deviate only a month or two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do gross and fine motor skills develop?

A

Heat to toe and core to periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do social skills develop?

A

Shift from patent-oriented to self-oriented to other-oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do language skills develop?

A

Become more complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is sensation?

A

Conversion or transduction of physical, electromagnetic, auditory and other information from the internal and external environment into electrical signals in the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is perception?

A

Processing of sensory information to make sense of its significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are sensory receptors?

A

Nerves that respond to stimuli and trigger electrical signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are sensory neurons associated with?

A

Sensory ganglia - collections of cell bodies outside the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does sensory stimuli get transmitted to?

A

Projection areas of the brain which further analyze sensory input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are common sensory receptors?

A
Photoreceptors 
Hair cells 
Nociceptors 
Thermoreceptors
Osmoreceptors
Olfactory receptors 
Taste receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a threshold?

A

Minimum stimulus that causes a change in signal transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is an absolute threshold?

A

Minimum of the stimulus energy that is needed to activate a sensory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the threshold of conscious perception?

A

The minimum of stimulus energy that will create a signal large enough in size and long enough in duration to be brought into awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the difference threshold or the just-noticeable difference?

A

The minimum difference in magnitude between two stimuli before one can perceive this difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does Weber’s law state?

A

???? For a stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the stimulus, and that this proportion is constant over most of the range of possible stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the signal detection theory?

A

Refers to the effects of no sensory factors (experiences, motives, and expectations) on perception of stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What do signal detection experiments allow us to do?

A

Look at response bias.
A stimulus may or may not be given, subject is asked to state whether or not the stimulus was given.
4 possible outcomes: hits, misses, false alarms, correct negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does adaptation refer to?

A

A decrease in response to a stimulus over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the eye?

A

An organ specials to detect light in the form of photons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does the cornea do?

A

Fathers and filters incoming light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does the iris do?

A

Divides the front of the eye into anterior and posterior chambers
Contains 2 muscles: dilator and constrictor papillae - opens and closes the pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does the lens do?

A

Refracts incoming light to focus on the retina and is held in place by dispensary ligaments connected to the ciliary muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does the ciliary body do?

A

Produces aqueous humor which drains through the canal of schlemm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What does the retina contain?

A

Cones and rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What do cones detect?

A

Colors

Come in three forms (short, medium, and long-wavelength)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What do rods detect?

A

Dark and light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does the mancula contain mostly? What is it part of?

A

Part of the retina
Contains mostly cones
Corresponds to central visual fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the fovea part of? What does it contain?

A

Center of the macula (of the retina)

Contains mostly cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the pathway from cones and rods?

A

Synapse in biolpolar cells which then synapse on ganglion cells

Integration of the signals from ganglion cells and edge-sharpening is performed by horizontal and am scribe cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the bulk of the inside and outside of the eye supported by?

A

Inside: vitreous
Outside: sclera and choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the visual pathway?

A

Starts from the eye, travels through the optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tracts, lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus, and visual radiations to get to the visual cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What does the optic chiasm contain?

A

Fibers crossing from the nasal side of the retina (temporal fields) of both eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where do the visual radiations go through?

A

The temporal and parietal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where is the visual cortex?

A

Occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How is vision processed?

A

Like all senses- through parallel processing (the ability to simultaneously analyze and combine information regarding color, shape, and motion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is shape detected by?

A

Parvocellular cells with high spatial resolution and low temporal resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is motion detected by?

A

Magnocellular cells with low spatial resolution and high temporal resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the three divisions of the ear?

A

Outer, middle, and inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does the outer ear consist of?

A

Pinna (auricle), external auditory canal, and tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does the middle ear consist of?

A

Ossicles: malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup)

The footplate of the stapes rests in the oval window of the cochlea

The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity by the Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does the inner ear contain?

A

The bony labyrinth, within is the membranous labyrinth

Bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph

Membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. Consists of the cochlea (detects sound), the utricle and saccule (detects linear acceleration), and the semicircular canal (detects rotational acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the auditory pathway?

A

Starts in the cochlea and travels through the vestibulocochlear nerve and the medial geniculate nucleus (MGN) of the thalamus to get to the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe

Sound information also projects to the superior olive, which localized the sound, and the inferior colliculus, which is involved in the startle reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is smell?

A

The detection of volatile or aerosolized chemicals by the olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) in the olfactory epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the olfactory pathway?

A

Starts from the olfactory nerves and travels through the olfactory bulb and olfactory tract to get to higher-order brain areas, such as the limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are pheromones?

A

Chemicals given off by animals that have an effect on social, foreign, and sexual behavior in other members of that species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is taste?

A

The detection of dissolved compounds by taste buds in papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the 5 modalities of taste?

A
Sweet
Sour
Salty 
Bitter
Unami (savory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does somatosensation refer to?

A
Four touch modalities: 
Pressure
Vibration 
Pain
Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is a two-point threshold?

A

The minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is physiological zero?

A

The normal temperature of the skin. What objects are compare to determined if they feel warm or cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are nociceptors responsible for?

A

Pain perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What does the gate theory of pain state?

A

That pain sensation is reduced when other somatosensory signals are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is kinesthetic senses (proprioception)?

A

The ability to tell where one’s body is in 3-D space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is bottom-up (data-driven) processing?

A

Refers to recognition of objects by parallel processing and feature detection.
Slower, less prone to mistakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is top-down (conceptually driven) processing?

A

Recognition of an object by memories and expectations, with little attention to detail.
Faster, prone to more mistakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is Gestalt principles?

A

The brain can infer missing parts of a picture when a picture is incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the law of proximity?

A

Elements close to one another tend to perceived as a unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the law of similarity?

A

Objects that are similar appear to be grouped together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the law of good continuation?

A

Elements that appear to follow the same pathway tend to be grouped together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are subjective contours?

A

Perception of nonexistent edges in figures, based on surrounding visual cues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the law of closure?

A

Space is enclosed by a group of lines, it is perceived as a complete or closed line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the law of pragnanz?

A

Perceptional organization will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is habituation?

A

The process of becoming used to a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is dishabituation?

A

Occurs when a second stimulus intervenes, causing a desensitization to the original stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is associative learning?

A

Pairs together stimulus and responses, or behaviors and consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Unconditioned stimulus that produces an instinctive, unconditioned response is paired with a neutral stimulus. With repetition, the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus that produces a conditioned response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Behavior is changed through the use of consequences.
Reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior.
Punishment decreases the likelihood of a behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What does a schedule of reinforcement do?

A

Affects the rate at which a behavior is performed. Schedules can be based either on ratio of behavior to reward or on an amount of time, and can be either fixed or variable. Behaviors learned through variable-ratio schedules are the hardest to extinguish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is observational learning?

A

Modeling

Acquisition of behavior by watching others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is encoding?

A

Putting new information into memory.
Can be automatic or effortful
Semantic encoding is stronger than both acoustic and visual encoding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is sensory and short-term memory based on?

A

Neurotransmitter activity
They are transient
Working memory requires short-term memory, attention, and executive function to manipulate information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What does long-term memory require?

A

Elaborative rehearsal.

Result of increased neuronal connectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What does explicit memory store?

A

Facts and stories

Declarative memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What does implicit memory store?

A

Skills and conditioning effects

Nondeclarative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How are facts stored?

A

Via semantic networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Is recognition or recall stronger?

A

Recognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is retrieval of information based on?

A

Priming interconnected nodes of the semantic network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What can cause memories to be lost?

A

Disorders such as Alzheimer’s disease, Korsakoff’s syndrome, agnosia, decay, or interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are memories highly subject to?

A

Influence by outside information and mood both at the time of encoding and at recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What does learning and memory relay on?

A

Changes in brain chemistry and physiology, the extent of which depends on neuroplasticity, which decreases as we age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is long-term potentiation responsible for? What is it?

A

Responsible for the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory.
The strengthening of neuronal connections resulting from increased neurotransmitter release and adding of receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What does “thought” do?

A

More than just what we are conscious of.

Brain processes and makes decisions about the importance of various stimuli below the level of conscious awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the information processing model?

A

Brain encodes, stores, and retrieves information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What influences cognitive development?

A

Early cognitive development is limited by brain maturation. Culture, genes, and environment also influence.
Ability to think abstractly develops over a lifespan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor
Preoperational
Concrete operational
Formal operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What does the sensorimotor stage focus on?

A

Manipulating the environment to meet physical needs through circular reactions.
Object permanence ends this stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What does the preoperational stage focus on?

A

Symbolic thinking, egocentrism, and contraption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What does the concrete operational stage focus on?

A

Understanding the feelings of others and manipulating physical (concrete) objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What does the formal operational stage focus on?

A

Abstract thought and problem solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is normal in cognition with aging?

A

A slight decline.

Significant changes may signify an underlying disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What can affect cognition?

A

Biological factors: organic brain disorders, genetic and chromosomal conditions, metabolic derangements, drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What does problem-solving require?

A

Identification and understanding the problem - generating potential solutions, testing potential solutions, and evaluating the results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is a mental set?

A

A pattern of approaching a problem

An inappropriate mental set may negatively impact problem solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

Tendency to use objects only in the way they are normally utilized, may create barriers to problem-solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are some types of problem solving?

A

Trial-and-error, algorithms, deductive reasoning (deriving conclusions from general rules), and inactive reasoning (deriving generalizations from evidence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What may assist decision making?

A

Heuristics, biases, intuition, and emotions.

May also lead to erroneous or problematic decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are heuristics?

A

Shortcuts or tules of thumb used to make decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

When do biases exist?

A

When an experimenter or decision-maker is unable to objectively evaluate information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is intuition?

A

“Gut feeling” regarding a particular decision

Often attributed to experience with similar situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences?

A

Proposes 7 areas of intelligence: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What can variations in intellectual ability be attributed to?

A

Combinations of environment, education, and genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are the states of consciousness?

A

Alertness
Sleep
Dreaming
Altered states of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is alertness?

A

State of being awake and able to think, perceive, process, and express information.
Beta and alpha waves predominate on EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is sleep important for?

A

Health of brain and body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is stage 1 sleep?

A

Light sleep

Dominated by theta waves on EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is stage 2 sleep?

A

Slightly deeper sleep than stage 1

Theta waves, spindles, and K complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are stages 3 and 4 of sleep?

A

Slow-wave sleep (SWS)

Delta waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What stage do most sleep disorders occur in?

A

Stages 3 and 4 and non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What occurs with dreaming in SWS?

A

SWS - slow-wave sleep

Consolidating declarative memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?

A

Paradoxical sleep
The mind appears close to awake on EEG, but the person is asleep.
Eye movements and body paralysis occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What occurs in dreaming in REM?

A

Consolidating procedural memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

How long is the sleep cycle?

A

about 90 min for adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the normal sleep cycle order?

A

1-2-3-4-3-2-REM

REM more frequent towards morning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What causes sleepiness?

A

Changes in the light in the evening triggers a release of melatonin by the pineal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How long are Circadian rhythms normally?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What stage does the most amount of dreaming occur?

A

REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are some sleep disorders?

A

Dyssomnias: insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea, sleep deprivation
Parasomnias: night terrors, sleepwalking (somnambulism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is hypnosis?

A

A state of consciousness in which individuals appear to be in control of their normal faculties, but are in a highly suggestible state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is hypnosis used for?

A

Pain control, psychological therapy, memory enhancement, weightless, smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is meditation?

A

Quieting of the mind
Used for relief of anxiety
Plays a role in many religions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the groups of consciousness-altering drugs?

A

Depressants, stimulatns, opiates, and hallucinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are some depressants? What do they do?

A

Alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines

Promote/mimic GABA activity in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are some stimulants? What do they do?

A

Amphetamines, cocaine, and ecstasy

Increase dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin concentration at the synaptic cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are some opiates/opioids? What do they do?

A

Heroin, morphine, opium, prescription pain medications (oxycodone and hydrocodone)
Can cause death by preparatory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are some hallucinogens?

A

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), peyote, mescaline, ketamine, and psilocybin-containing mushrooms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What type of drug is marijuana considered to be? What is the active ingredient?

A

Depressant, stimulant, and hallucinogenic effects. Its active ingredient is tetrahydrocannabinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is drug addition mediated by? What is the main neurotransmitter of this pathway?

A

The mesolimbic pathway, which includes the nucleus accumbent, medial forebrain bundle, and ventral segmental area.
Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Paying attention to a particular stimulus while determining if additional stimuli in the background require attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What does divided processing use?

A

Automatic processing to pay attention to multiple activities at one time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What does language consist of?

A

Phonology, morphology, semantics, syntax, and pragmatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What does phonology refer to?

A

The actual sound of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What does morphology refer to?

A

The building blocks of words, such as rules for pluralization (-s), past tense (-ed), etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What does semantics refer to?

A

The meaning of words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What does syntax refer to?

A

Rules that dictate word order?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What does pragmatics refer to?

A

Changes in language delivery depending on content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What do theories of language development focus on?

A

Reasons/motivations for language acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What does the nativist (biological) theory explain?

A

Language acquisition is innate and controlled by the language acquisition device (LAD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What does the learning (behavioral) theory explain?

A

Language acquisition as being controlled by operant conditioning and reinforcement by parents and caregivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What does the social interactionist theory explain?

A

Language acquisition as being caused by a motivation to communicate and interact with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What does the Whorfian (linguistic relativity) hypothesis state?

A

That the lens through which we view and interpret the world is created by language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Where are speech areas found in the brain?

A

The dominant hemisphere (usually left)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What does Broca’s area control? Damage to this area would cause what?

A

Motor function of speech

Damage results in Broca’s aphasia, a nonfluent aphasia in which generating each word requires great effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What does Wernicke’s area control? Damage here would cause what to occur?

A

Language comprehension.

Wernicke’s aphasia, a fluent, nonsensical aphasia with lack of comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What does the arcuate fasiculus do? Damage here causes what to occur?

A

Connects Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area.

Damage results in conduction aphasia, marked by the inability to repeat words despite intact speech generation and comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is motivation?

A

The purpose, or driving force, behind our actions

Can be extrinsic (based on external circumstances) or intrinsic (based on internal drive or perception)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What are the primary factors that influence emotion?

A

Instincts, arousal, drives, and needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What are instincts?

A

Innate, fixed patterns of behavior in response to stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What does the instinct theory of motivation state?

A

People perform certain behaviors because of these evolutionary programmed instincts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What does the arousal theory state?

A

People perform actions to maintain arousal (state of being awake and reactive to stimuli) at an optimal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What does the Yerkes-Dodson law show?

A

Performance is optimal at a medium level of arousal

199
Q

What are drives?

A

Internal states of tension that beget particular behaviors focused on goals.

200
Q

What are primary drives related to?

A

Bodily processes

201
Q

What are secondary drives related to?

A

Learning and include accomplishments and emotion

202
Q

What does drive reduction theory state?

A

That motivation arises from the desire to eliminate drives, which create uncomfortable internal states

203
Q

What are Maslow’s 5 categories of hierarchy of needs?

A
Physiological needs (highest priority)
Safety and security 
Love and belonging
Self-esteem
Self-actualization (lowest priority)
204
Q

What does the self-determination theory emphasize?

A

The role of the three universal needs: autonomy, competence, and relatedness

205
Q

What does the incentive theory explain?

A

Motivation as the desire to pursue rewards and avoid punishments

206
Q

What does the expectancy-value theory state?

A

That the amount of motivation for a task is based on the individual’s expectation of success and the amount that success is valued

207
Q

What does the opponent-process theory explain?

A

Motivation for drug use: as drug use increases, the body counteracts its effects, leading to tolerance and uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms

208
Q

What is sexual motivation related to?

A

Hormones and well as cultural and social factors

209
Q

What is emotion?

A

A state of mind, or feeling, that is subjectively experienced based on circumstances, mood, and relationships

210
Q

What are the three components of emotion?

A

Cognitive (subjective)
Behavioral (facial expressions and body language)
Physiological (changes in the sympathetic nervous system)

211
Q

What are the seven universal emotions?

A
Happiness
Sadness
Contempt
Surprise
Fear
Disgust
Anger
212
Q

What is the James-Lange theory of emotion?

A

Nervous system arousal leads to a cognitive response in which the emotion is labeled

213
Q

What is the Canon-Bard theory?

A

The simultaneous arousal of the nervous system and cognitive response lead to action

214
Q

What is the Schachter-Singer theory

A

Nervous system arousal and interpretation of content lead to a cognitive response

215
Q

What nervous system is primary in experiencing emotion?

A

Limbic system

216
Q

What emotions is the amygdala involved in?

A

Attention and fear
Helps interpret facial expression
Part of the intrinsic memory system for emotional memory

217
Q

What is the thalamus used for in emotions?

A

Sensory processing station

218
Q

What does the hypothalamus do?

A

Release neurotransmitters that affect mood and arousal

219
Q

What does the hippocampus do?

A

Create long-term explicit (episodic) memories

220
Q

What is the prefrontal cortex involved in?

A

Planning, expressing personality, and making decisions

221
Q

What is the ventral prefrontal cortex involved in?

A

Experiencing emotion

222
Q

What is the ventromedial prefrontal cortex involved in?

A

Controlling emotional responses from the amygdala and decision-making

223
Q

What is stress?

A

The physiological and cognitive response to challenges or life changes

224
Q

What are the two stages of stress appraisal?

A

Primary appraisal: classifying a potential stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful

Secondary appraisal: directed at evaluating if the organism can cope with stress, based on harm, threat and challenge

225
Q

What is a stressor?

A

Anything that leads to a stress response
Can include environment, daily events, workplace, academic settings, social expectations, chemicals, and biological stressors

226
Q

What are psychological stressors?

A

Pressure, control, predictability, frustration, and conflict

227
Q

What can stressors lead to?

A

Distress or eustress

228
Q

What are the three stages of general adaptation syndrome?

A

Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

229
Q

What is stress management?

A

Can involve psychological, behavioral, spiritual aspects

230
Q

What is self-concept?

A

The sum of the ways in which we describe ourselves: in the present, who we used to be, and who we might be in the future

231
Q

What is our identity?

A

Individual components of our self-concept related to the groups to which we belong. Religious affiliations, sexual orientation, and ethnic and national affiliations are examples of identities

232
Q

What is self-esteem?

A

Our evaluation of ourself. Generally, the closer our actual self is to our ideal self (who we want to be) and our ought self (who others want us to be), the higher our self-esteem will be

233
Q

What is self-efficacy?

A

The degree to which we see ourselves as being capable at a given skill or in a given situation. When placed in a consistently hopeless scenario, self-efficacy can be diminished to the point where learned helplessness results

234
Q

What is locus of control?

A

Self-evaultion that refers to the way we characterize the influence in our lives. People with an internal locus of control see their successes and failures as a result of their own characteristics and actions, while those with an external locus of control perceive outside factors as having more of an influence in their lives

235
Q

What are Freud’s psychosexual stages of personality development based on?

A

The tensions caused by the libido. Failure at any given stage leads to fixation that causes personality disorders.

236
Q

What are Freud’s psychosexual phases?

A
Oral 
Anal
Phallic (Oedipal)
Latent
Genital 
Based on the erogenous zones that are the focus of each phase of development
237
Q

What do Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development stem from?

A

Conflicts that occur throughout life (true vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, initiative vs. guilt, industry vs, inferiority, identity vs. role confusion, intimacy vs. isolation, generatively vs. stagnation, integrity vs. despair)
These conflicts are the result of decisions we are forced to make about ourselves and the environment around us at each phase of our lives

238
Q

What do Kohlberg’s stages of moral development describe?

A

The approaches of individuals to resolving moral dilemmas.
He believed that we progress through six stages divided into three main phases: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional

239
Q

Who described zone of proximal development and what is it?

A

Vygotsky. Skills that a child has not yet mastered and require a more knowledgable other to accomplish

He described development of language, culture, and skills

240
Q

What are common ways children learn from others?

A

Imitation and role-taking.
Children first reproduce the behaviors of role models, and later learn to see the perspectives of others and practice taking on new roles

241
Q

What does our self-concept depend on?

A

Our reference group, or groups to which we compare ourselves. Two individuals with the same qualities might see themselves differently depending on how those qualities compare to their reference group

242
Q

How does the psychoanalytic perspective view personality?

A

As resulting from unconscious urges and desires

243
Q

What is Freud’s personality theories based on?

A

id - base urges of survival and reproduction
Superego - the idealist and perfectionist
Ego - the mediator between the two and the conscious mind
Ego makes use of defense mechanisms to reduce stress caused by the urges of the id and superego

244
Q

What did Jung assume?

A

A collective unconscious that links all humans together. He viewed the personality as being influenced by archetypes

245
Q

What do other psychoanalysts, such as Adler and Horney, think about Freud’s idea about unconscious motivation?

A

They believed that the unconscious is motivated by social urges rather than sexual

246
Q

What does the humanistic view of personality emphasize?

A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and Rogers’ therapeutic approach of unconditional positive regard flow from the humanistic view of personality.
Emphasizes the internal feelings of healthy individuals as they strive toward happiness and self-realization.

247
Q

What do type and trait theorists believe?

A

That personality can be described as a number of identifiable traits that carry characteristic behaviors

248
Q

What do type theories of personality include?

A

The ancient Greek nation of humors, Sheldon’s somatotypes, divisions into Types A and B, and the Myers-Brigg Type Inventory

249
Q

What were Eysencks three traits that he identified? How did later trait theorists expand them?

A
PEN: 
Psychoticism (nonconformity) 
Extraversion (tolerance for social interaction and stimulation)
Neuroticism (arousal in stressful situation)
Can describe all individuals
Expanded = Big Five: 
Openness
Conscientiousness
Extraversion 
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
250
Q

What traits did Allport identify? What do they represent?

A

Cardinal: traits around which a person organizes their life; not everyone develops a cardinal trait
Central: represent major characteristics of the personality
Secondary : personal characteristics - limited in occurrence

251
Q

What did McClelland identify?

A

The personality trait for the need for achievement (N-Ach)

252
Q

What does the social cognitive perspective believe?

A

That individuals interact with their environment in a cycle called reciprocal determinism
People mold their environments according to their personalities, and those environments in turn shape our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

253
Q

What is the behaviorist perspective based on?

A

Operant conditioning

Holds that personality can be described as the behaviors one has learned from prior rewards and punishments

254
Q

What do biological theorists claim?

A

That behavior can be explained as a result of genetic expression

255
Q

What does the biomedical approach to psychological disorders take into account?

A

Only the physical and medical causes of a psychological disorder
Treatments in this approach are of a biomedical nature

256
Q

What does the biopsychosocial approach consider?

A

The relative contributions of biological, psychological, and social components to an individual’s disorder.
Treatments fall into these three areas

257
Q

What is the diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders used for?

A

Used to diagnose psychological disorders

Categorizes mental disorders based on symptom patterns

258
Q

How common are psychological disorders?

A

Very common - especially anxiety, depressive, and substance use disorders

259
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

The prototypical disorder with psychosis as a feature

Contains positive and negative symptoms

260
Q

What are positive symptoms?

A

Add something to behavior, cognition, or affect, and include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech and disorganized behavior

261
Q

What are negative symptoms?

A

Loss of something from behavior, cognition, or affect, and include disturbance of affect and avolition

262
Q

What are some depressive disorders?

A

Major depressive disorder

Seasonal affective disorder

263
Q

What does major depressive disorder contain?

A

At least one major depressive episode

264
Q

What is pervasive disorder?

A

Depressed for at least two years that does not meet criteria for major depressive disorder

265
Q

What is seasonal affective disorder?

A

Colloquial name for major depressive disorder with seasonal onset, with depression occurring during winter months

266
Q

What do bipolar and related disorders have?

A

Manic or hypomanic episodes

267
Q

What does bipolar I disorder contain?

A

At least one manic episode

268
Q

What does bipolar II disorder contain?

A

At least one hypomanic and at least one major depressive episode

269
Q

What does Cyclothymic disorder contain?

A

Hypomanic episodes with dysthymia

270
Q

What are some anxiety disorders?

A

Generalized anxiety disorder, specific phobias, social anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, and panic disorder

271
Q

What is generalized anxiety disorder?

A

A disproportionate and persistent worry about many different things for at least six moths

272
Q

What are specific phobias?

A

Irrational fears of specific objects or situations

273
Q

What is social anxiety disorder?

A

Anxiety due to social or performance situations

274
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

Fear of places or situations where it is hard for an individual to escape

275
Q

What is panic disorder?

A

Marked by recurrent panic attacks: intense, overwhelming fear and sympathetic nervous system activity with no clear stimulus. May lead to agoraphobia

276
Q

What is obsessive-compulsice disorder characterized by?

A

Obsessions (persistent, intrusive thoughts and impulses) and compulsions (repetitive tasks that relive tension but cause significant impairment in a person’s life)

277
Q

What is body dimorphic disorder characterized by?

A

An unrealistic negative evaluation of one’s appearance or a specific body part. The individual often takes extreme measure to correct the perceived imperfection

278
Q

What do dissociation disorders include?

A

Dissociative amnesia, dissociative identity disorder, and depersonalization/derealization disorder

279
Q

What is dissociate amnesia?

A

An inability to recall past experience without an underlying neurological disorder. In severe forms, it may involve dissociative fugue, a sudden change in location that may involve the assumption of a new identity

280
Q

What is dissociative identify disorder?

A

The occurrence of two or more personalities that take control of a person’s behavior

281
Q

What is depersonalization/derealization disorder?

A

Involves feelings of detachment from the mind and body, or from the environment

282
Q

What do somatic symptom and related disorders involve?

A

Significant bodily symptoms

283
Q

What does somatic symptom disorder involve?

A

At least one somatic symptom, which may or may not be linked to an underlying medical condition, that causes disproportionate concern

284
Q

What is illness anxiety disorder?

A

A preoccupation with thoughts about having, or coming down with, a serious medical conditions

285
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

Involves unexplained symptoms affecting motor or sensory function and is associated with prior trauma

286
Q

What are personality disorders (PD)?

A

Patterns of inflexible, maladaptive behavior that cause distress or impaired functioning in at least two of the following cognition, emotions, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control.

287
Q

What are the three clusters that personality disorders occur in?

A

A: odd, eccentric, “weird
B: dramatic, emotional, erratic, “wild”
C: anxious, fearful, “worried”

288
Q

What does cluster A include?

A

Paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid PDs

289
Q

What does cluster B include?

A

Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic PDs

290
Q

What does cluster C include?

A

Avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive PDs

291
Q

What does paranoid PD involve?

A

A pervasive mistrust and suspicion of others

292
Q

What does Schizotypal PD involve?

A

Ideas of reference, magical thinking, and exxentricity

293
Q

What does Schizoid PD involve?

A

Detachment from social relationships and limited emotion

294
Q

What does antisocial PD involve?

A

A disregard for the rights of others

295
Q

What does borderline PD involve?

A

Instability in relationships, mood, and self-image. Splitting is characteristic, as are recurrent suicide attempts

296
Q

What does histrionic PD involve?

A

Constant attention-seeking behavior

297
Q

What does narcissistic PD involve?

A

A grandiose sense of self-importance and need for admiration

298
Q

What does avoidant PD involve?

A

Extreme shyness and fear of rejection

299
Q

What does dependent PD involve?

A

A continuous need for reassurance

300
Q

What does obsessive-compulsive PD involve?

A

Perfectionism, inflexibility, and preoccupation with rules

301
Q

What may Schizophrenia be associated with?

A

Genetic factors, birth trauma, adolescent marijuana use, and family history. There are high levels of dopaminergic transmission

302
Q

What is depression accompanied by?

A

High levels of glucocorticoids and low levels of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine

303
Q

What are bipolar disorders accompanied by?

A

High levels of norepinephrine and serotonin. They are also highly heritable

304
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease associated with?

A

Genetic factors, brain atrophy, decreases in acetylcholine, senile plaques of beta-amyloid, and neurofibrillary tangles of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

305
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease associated with?

A

Bradykinesia, resting tremor, pill-rolling tremor, mask like facies, cogwheel rigidity, and shuffling gait. here is decreased production of dopamine by cells in the substantial nigra

306
Q

What does social facilitation describe?

A

The tendency of people to perform at a different level based on the fact that others are around

307
Q

What is deindividuation?

A

A loss of self-awareness in large groups, which can lead to drastic changes in behavior

308
Q

What does the bystander effect describe?

A

The observation that when in a group, individuals are less likely to respond to a person in need

309
Q

What does peer pressure refer to?

A

The social influence placed on individuals by others they consider equals

310
Q

What is group polarization?

A

The tendency toward making decisions in a group that are more extreme than the thoughts of the individual group members

311
Q

What is groupthink?

A

The tendency for groups to make decisions based on ideas and solutions that arise within the group without considering outside ideas. Ethics may be disturbed as pressure is created to conform and remain loyal to the group

312
Q

What does culture describe?

A

Beliefs, ideas, behaviors, actions, and characteristics of a group or society of people

313
Q

What is assimilation?

A

The process by which a group of individual’s culture begins to melt into another culture

314
Q

What is multiculturalism?

A

Refers tot he encouragement of multiple cultures within a community to enhance diveristy

315
Q

What does subcultures refer to/

A

A group of people within a culture that distinguish themselves from the primary culture to which they belong

316
Q

What is socialization?

A

The process of developing and spreading norms, customs and beliefs

317
Q

What do norms determine?

A

The boundaries of acceptable behavior within society

318
Q

What do agents of socialization include?

A

Family, peers, school, religious affiliation, and other groups that promote socialization

319
Q

What is stigma?

A

The extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences from the rest of society

320
Q

What is deviance?

A

Any violation of norms, rules or expectations within a society

321
Q

What is conformity?

A

Changing beliefs or behaviors in order to fit into a group or society

322
Q

What is compliance? What are methods of gaining compliance?

A

When individuals change their behavior based on the request of others. Methods of gaining compliance include the foot-in-the-door technique, door-in-the-face technique, lowball technique, and that’s-not-all technique among others

323
Q

What is obedience/

A

A change in behavior based on a command from onion seen as an authority figure

324
Q

What are attitudes?

A

Tendencies toward expression of positive or negative feelings or evaluations of something

There are affective, behavioral, and cognitive components to attitudes

325
Q

What does the functional attitudes theory state?

A

That there are four functional areas of attitudes that serve individuals in life: knowledge, ego expression, adaptability, and ego defense

326
Q

What does the learning theory state?

A

Attitudes are developed through forms of learning: direct contact, direct interaction, direct instruction, and conditioning

327
Q

What does the elaboration likelihood model state?

A

That attitudes are formed and changed through different routes of information processing based on the degree of elaboration (central route processing, peripheral route processing)

328
Q

What does the social cognitive theory state?

A

That attitudes are formed through observation of behavior, personal factors, and environment

329
Q

What is a status?

A

A position in society used to classify individuals

330
Q

What is an ascribed status?

A

Involuntarily assigned to an individual based on race, ethnicity, gender, family background, and so on

331
Q

What is an achieved status?

A

Voluntarily earned by an individual

332
Q

What is a master status?

A

The status by which an individual is primarily identified

333
Q

What is a role?

A

A set of beliefs, values, and norms the define the expectations of a certain status in a social situation

334
Q

What does role performance refer to?

A

Carrying out the behaviors of a given role?

335
Q

What is a role partner?

A

Another individual who helps define a specific role within the relationship

336
Q

What does a role set contain?

A

All of the different roles associated with a status

337
Q

What is a role conflict?

A

When one has difficulty in satisfying the requirement of multiple roles simultaneously

338
Q

What are groups made up of?

A

Two or more individuals with similar characteristics that share a sense of unit

339
Q

What is a peer group?

A

A self-selected group formed around similar interests, ages, and statuses

340
Q

What is a family group?

A

The group into which an individual is born, adopted, or married

341
Q

What is an in-group?

A

One with which an individual identifies

342
Q

What is an out-group?

A

One with which an individual competes or opposes

343
Q

What is a reference group?

A

A group which an individual compares him or herself

344
Q

What is a primary group?

A

Those that contain strong, emotional bonds

345
Q

What are secondary groups?

A

Often temporary and contain fewer emotional bonds and weaker bonds overall

346
Q

What is a Gemeinschaft (community)?

A

A group united by feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs, ancestry, or geography

347
Q

What is a Gesellschaft (society)?

A

A group unified by mutual self-interest in achieving a goal

348
Q

What is a groupthink?

A

When members begin to conform to one another’s view and ignore outside perspectives

349
Q

What is a network?

A

An observable pattern of social relationships between individuals or groups

350
Q

What are organizations?

A

Bodies of people with a structure and culture designed to achieve specific goals. They exist outside of each individual’s membership within the organization

351
Q

What is the basic model that proposes how we express emotion in social situations?

A

States that there are universal emotions, along with corresponding emotions, which can be understood across cultures

352
Q

What does the social construction model state?

A

That emotions are based solely on the situational contact of social interactions

353
Q

What are display rules?

A

Unspoken rules that govern the expression of emotion

354
Q

What is a cultural syndrome?

A

A shared set of beliefs, norms, values, and behaviors organized around a central theme, as is found among people sharing the same language and geography

355
Q

What does impression management refer to?

A

The maintenance of a public image, which is accomplished through various strategies

356
Q

What is self-disclosure?

A

Sharing factual information

357
Q

What does managing appearances refer to?

A

Using props, appearance, emotional expression, or association to create a positive image

358
Q

What is ingratiation?

A

Using flattery or conformity to win over someone else

359
Q

What does aligning actions use?

A

Use of excuses to account for questionable behavior

360
Q

What is alter-casting?

A

Imposing an identity onto another person

361
Q

What does the dramaturgical approach say?

A

That individuals create images of themselves in the same way that actors perform a role in front of an audience

362
Q

What is the front stage?

A

Where the individual is seen by the audience and strives to preserve his desired image

363
Q

What is the back stage?

A

Where the individual is not in front of an audience and is free to act outside of his desired image

364
Q

What does communication include?

A

Both verbal and nonverbal elements

365
Q

What is verbal communication?

A

The conveyance of information through spoken, written, or signed words

366
Q

What is nonverbal communication?

A

The conveyance of information by means other than the use of words, such as body language, prosody, facial expressions, and gestures

367
Q

What animal communication take place between?

A

Takes place between not only between nonhuman animals, but between humans and other animals as well. Animals use body language, rudimentary facial expressions, visual displays, scents, and vocalizations to communicate

368
Q

What is interpersonal attraction?

A

What makes people like each other and is influenced by many factors (physical attractiveness, similarity of attitudes, intelligence, education, height, age, religion, appearance, and socioeconomic status, self-disclosure, reciprocity, and proximity)

369
Q

What is physical attractiveness increased by?

A

With symmetry and proportions close to the golden ratio

370
Q

What is self-disclosure?

A

Sharing fears, thought, and goals with another person and being met with empathy and nonjudgement

371
Q

What is reciprocity?

A

Liking people who we think like us

372
Q

What is proximity?

A

Being physically close to someone

373
Q

What is aggression?

A

Physical, verbal, or nonverbal behavior with the intention to cause harm or increase social dominance

374
Q

What is attachment?

A

An emotional bong to another person, and usually refers tot he bond between a child and a caregiver.

375
Q

What are the four types of attachment?

A

Secure attachment
Avoidant attachment
Ambivalent attachment
Disorganized attachment

376
Q

What is secure attachment?

A

Requires a consistent caregiver so the child is able to go out and explore knowing he or she has a secure base to return to; the child will show strong preference for the caregiver

377
Q

What is avoidant attachment?

A

When a caregiver has little or no response to a distressed, crying child; the child shows no preference for the caregiver compared to strangers

378
Q

What is ambivalent attachment?

A

When a caregiver has an inconsistent response to a child’s distress, sometimes responding appropriately, sometimes neglectful; the child will become distressed when caregiver leaves and is ambivalent when he or she returns

379
Q

What is disorganized attached?

A

When a caregiver is erratic or abusive; the child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to caregiver’s absence or presence and may show repetitive behaviors

380
Q

What is social support?

A

The perception or reality that one is cared for y a social network

381
Q

What is emotional support?

A

Includes listening to, affirming, and empathizing with someone’s feelings

382
Q

What does esteem support do?

A

Affirms the qualities and skills of the person

383
Q

What is material support?

A

Providing physical or monetary resources to aid a person

384
Q

What is informational support?

A

Providing useful information to a person

385
Q

What is network support?

A

Providing a sense of belonging to a person

386
Q

What is foraging?

A

Searching for and exploiting food resources

387
Q

What is a mating system?

A

Describes the way in which a group is organized in terms of sexual behavior

388
Q

What is monogamy?

A

Consists of exclusive mating relationships

389
Q

What is polygamy?

A

Consists of one member of a sex having multiple exclusive relationships with members of the opposite sex, including polygyny (a male with multiple females) and polyandry (a female with multiple males)

390
Q

What is promiscuity?

A

Allows a member of one sec to mate with any member of the opposite sex without exclusivity

391
Q

What is mate choice?

A

Intersexual selection

The selection of a mate based on attraction and traits

392
Q

What is altruism?

A

A form of helping behavior in which one person’s intent is to benefit someone else at some cost to him or herself

393
Q

What does game theory attempt to explain?

A

Decision-making between individuals as if they are participating in a game

394
Q

What is inclusive fitness?

A

A measure of an organism’s success in the population. This is based on the number of offspring, success in supporting offspring, and the ability of the offspring to then support others

395
Q

What is social perception or social cognition?

A

The way by which we generate impressions about people in our social environment. It contains a perceived, their target, and the situation or social contact of the scenario

396
Q

What does the simplicity personality theory state?

A

That people make assumptions about how different types of people, their traits, and behavior are related

397
Q

What does the primacy effect do?

A

Refers to when first impressions are more important than subsequent impressions

398
Q

What is the recency effect?

A

When the most recent information we have about an individual is more important in forming our impressions

399
Q

What is a reliance on central traits?

A

The tendency to organize the perception of others based on traits and personal characteristics that matter to the perceiver

400
Q

What is the halo effect?

A

When judgements of an individual’s character can be affected by the overall impression of the individual

401
Q

What is the just-world hypothesis?

A

The tendency of individuals to believe that good things happen to good people and bad things happen to bad people

402
Q

What does the self-serving bias refer to?

A

The fact that the individuals will view their own successes as being based on internal factors, while viewing failures as being based on external factors

403
Q

What does attribution theory focus on?

A

The tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people behavior

404
Q

What are dispositional (internal) causes?

A

Those that relate to the features of the person whose behavior is being considered

405
Q

What is situational (external) causes?

A

Related to features of the surrounding or social context

406
Q

What is the correspondent inference theory?

A

Used to describe attributions made by observing the intentional (especially unexpected) behaviors performed by another person

407
Q

What is fundamental attribution error?

A

The bias towards making distortional attributions rather than situational attributions in regard to the actions of others

408
Q

What is attribution substitution?

A

Occurs when individuals must make judgements that are complex, but instead substitute a simpler solution or heuristic

409
Q

What are attributions highly influenced by?

A

The culture in which one resides

410
Q

What are stereotypes?

A

When attitudes and impressions are made based on limited and superficial information about a person or a group of individuals

411
Q

Can can stereotypes lead to?

A

Expectations of certain groups, which can create conditions that lead confirmation of the stereotype, a process referred to as a self-fulfilling prophecy

412
Q

What is stereotype threat?

A

A concern or anxiety about confirming a negative stereotype about one’s social group

413
Q

What is prejudice?

A

Is defined as an irrational positive or negative attitude toward a person, group or thing prior to an actual experience

414
Q

What does ethnocentrism refer to?

A

The practice of making judgements about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture

415
Q

What is an in-group?

A

A social group with which a person experiences a sense of belonging

416
Q

What is an out-group?

A

A social group with which an individual does not identify

417
Q

What does cultural relativism refer to?

A

The recognition that social groups and cultures should be studied on their own terms

418
Q

What is discrimination?

A

When prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently from others

419
Q

What is individual discrimination?

A

One person discriminating a particular person or group

420
Q

What is institutional discrimination?

A

The discrimination against particular person or group by an entire institution

421
Q

What do theoretical approaches provide?

A

Framework for the interactions we observe within society

422
Q

What does functionalism focus on?

A

The function of each component of society and how those components fit together.

423
Q

What are manifest functions?

A

Deliberate actions that serve to help a given system

424
Q

What are latent functions?

A

Unexpected, unintended, or unrecognized positive consequences of manifest functions

425
Q

What does conflict theory focus on?

A

How power differentials are created and how these differentials contribute to the maintenance of socail order

426
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

The study of the ways individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols

427
Q

What does social constructionism explore?

A

The ways in which individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given a social reality

428
Q

What does rational choice theory state?

A

That individuals will make decisions that maximize potential benefit and minimize potential harm; expectancy theory applies rational choice theory within social groups

429
Q

What is feminist theory?

A

Explores the way in which one gender can be subordinated, minimized, or devalued compared to the other

430
Q

What are social institutions?

A

Well-Established social structures that dictate certain patterns of behavior or relationships and are accepted as a fundamental part of culture

431
Q

What are common social institutions?

A

Include family, education, religion, government, and the economy, and health and medicine

432
Q

What are the four key ethical tenets of American medicine?

A

Beneficence: acting in the patient’s best interest
Nonmaleficence: avoiding treatments of which risk is larger than benefit
Respect for autonomy: respecting a patients’ rights to make decisions about their own healthcare
Justice: treating similar patients with similar and distributing healthcare resources fairly

433
Q

What is culture?

A

The lifestyle of a group of people and includes both material and symbolic elements

434
Q

What does material culture include?

A

The physical items one associated with a given group, such as artwork, emblems, clothing, jewelry, foods, buildings, and told

435
Q

What does symbolic culture refer to?

A

The ideas associated with a cultural group

436
Q

What does cultural lag refer to?

A

The idea that material culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture

437
Q

What does language consist of?

A

Spoken or written symbols combined into a system and governed by tules

438
Q

What is a value?

A

What a person deems important in life

439
Q

What is a brief?

A

Something a person considers to be true

440
Q

What is a ritual?

A

A formalized ceremonial behavior in which members of a group or community regularly engage. It is governed by specific rules, including appropriate behavior and predetermined order of events

441
Q

What are norms?

A

Societal rules that define the boundaries of acceptable behavior

442
Q

What does culture flow from?

A

Evolutionary principles

Culture and also influence evolution

443
Q

What is demographics?

A

The statistics of populations and are the mathematical applications of sociology. One can analyze hundreds of demographic variables

444
Q

What are some common demographic variables

A
Age
Gender
Race
Ethnicity
Sexual orientation
Immigration status
445
Q

What is ageism?

A

Prejudice or discrimination on the basis of a person’s age

446
Q

What is gender?

A

The set of behavioral, cultural, or psychological traits typically associated with biological sex.

447
Q

What is gender inequality?

A

The intentional or unintentional empowerment of one gender to detriment of the other

448
Q

What is race?

A

A social construct that sorts people between groups of people; these may be either real or perceived differences

449
Q

What is ethnicity?

A

A social construct that sorts people by cultural factors, including language, nationality, religion and other factors

450
Q

What is symbolic ethnicity?

A

Recognition of an ethnic identity that is only relevant on special occasions or in specific circumstances and does not specifically impact everyday life

451
Q

What is sexual orientation?

A

One’s sex interest toward members of the same, opposite, or both sexes

452
Q

What is immigration?

A

The movement into new geographic area

453
Q

what is emigration?

A

Movement away from a geographic area

454
Q

What is fertility rate?

A

The average number of children born to a women during her lifetime in a population

455
Q

What is a birth rate?

A

Relative to a population size overtime, usually measured as the number of births per 1000 people per year

456
Q

What is mortality rate?

A

The average number of deaths per population size, usually measured as the number of deaths per 1000 people per year

457
Q

What does migration refer to?

A

The movement of people form one geographic location to another

458
Q

What is demographic transition?

A

A model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

459
Q

What do social movements do?

A

Promote (proactive) or resist (reactive) social change

460
Q

What is globalization?

A

The process of integrating a global economy with free trade and tapping of foreign labor markets

461
Q

What is urbanization?

A

The process of dense areas of population crating a pull for migration; creating cities

462
Q

What is social stratification based on?

A

Socioeconomic statue (SES) which depends on ascribed status and achieved status

463
Q

What is ascribed status?

A

Involuntary

Derived from clearly identifiable characteristics, such as age, gender, and skin color

464
Q

What is achieved status?

A

Acquired through direct, individual efforts

465
Q

What is social class?

A

A category of people with shared socioeconomic characteristics

466
Q

What are the three main social class?

A

Upper
Middle
Lower
Groups have similar lifestyles, job opportunities, attitudes and behaviors

467
Q

What is prestige?

A

The respect and importance tied to specific occupations or associations

468
Q

What is power?

A

The capacity to influence people through real or perceived rewards and punishments. It often depends on the unequal distribution of valued resources. Power differentials rate social inequality

469
Q

What is anomie?

A

A state of formlessness. Anomic conditions erode social solidarity by means of excessive individualism, social inequality, and isolation

470
Q

What is social capital?

A

The investment people make in their society in return for economic or collective rewards. Social network, either situational or positional, are one of the most powerful forms of social capital and can be achieved through establishing strong and weak social ties

471
Q

What is meritocracy?

A

A society in which advancement up the social ladder is based on intellectual talent and achievement

472
Q

What is social mobility?

A

Acquiring higher-level employment opportunities by achieving required credentials and experience. Can occur in the positive or negative direction depending on if one is promoted or demoted

473
Q

What is poverty?

A

A socioeconomic condition.
In the US, the poverty line is determined by the government’s calculation of the minimum income requirements for families to acquit the minimum necessities of life

474
Q

What does social reproduction refer to?

A

The passing on of social inequality, especially poverty, from one generation to the next

475
Q

What can poverty be?

A

Absolute or relative

476
Q

What is absolute poverty?

A

When people do not have enough resources to acquire basic life necessities, such as shelter, food, clothing, and water

477
Q

What is relative poverty?

A

When one is poor in comparison to a larger population

478
Q

What is social exclusion?

A

A sense of powerlessness when individuals feel alienated from society

479
Q

What is spatial inequality?

A

A form of social stratification across territories and their populations, and can occur along residential, environment, and global lines

480
Q

Compare urban and rural areas

A

Urban areas tend to have more diverse economic opportunities and more ability for social mobility than rural areas. Urban areas also tend to have more low-income racial and ethnic minority neighborhoods than rural areas

481
Q

What causes formation of higher-income suburbs

A

Common occurrence

Due in part do the limited mobility of lower-income groups in urban centers

482
Q

What do environmental injustices refer to?

A

An uneven distribution of environmental hazards in communities
Lower-income neighborhoods may lack the social and political power to prevent the placement of environmental hazards in their neighborhoods

483
Q

What has globalization led to?

A

Further inequalities in space, food, and water, energy, housing, and education as the production of goods shift to cheaper and cheaper labor markets. This has led to a significant economic hardship in industrializing nations

484
Q

How is incidence calculated?

A

The number of new cases of a disease pr population at risk in a given period of time: for example, new cases per 1000 at-risk people per year

485
Q

How is prevalence calculated?

A

The number of new cases of a disease per population in a given period of time: for example, cases per 1000 people per year

486
Q

What is morbidity?

A

The burden or degree of illness associated with a given disease

487
Q

What is mortality?

A

Deaths caused by a given disease

488
Q

What is health dependent on?

A

Geographic, social, and economic factors

489
Q

What is second sickness?

A

An exacerbation of health outcomes caused by social injustice

490
Q

What is poverty associated with (health-wise)?

A

Worse health outcomes, including decreased life expectancy, higher rates of life-shortening diseases, higher rates of suicide and homicide, and higher infant mortality rates

491
Q

Compare racial and ethnic minorities and health.

A

Certain racial and ethnic minorities have worse health profiles than others. African-Americans are, on average the worst off; white Americans, Native Americans, and Hispanic Americans are next and Asian-Americans and Pacific Islanders have the best health profiles

492
Q

Compare sex and health.

A

Females have better health profiles than males, including higher life expectancy, lower rates of life-threatening illnesses, and higher rates of accessing and utilizing health resources. However, females have higher rates of chronic diseases and higher morbidity rates

493
Q

What are ways that we have tried to improve healthcare for the underserved population?

A

The Affordable Care Act (ACA) and the Medicare and Medicaid programs

494
Q

How does healthcare access and quality differ across the population?

A

Low-income groups and racial and ethnic minorities (specifically, African-American, Asian-Americans, Native Americans, and Hispanic Americans) receive worse care then white Americans
Biases against overweight or obsess patients are associated with lower-quality treatment, including less preventative care and fewer screenings
Women tend to have better access to healthcare and utilize more healthcare resources than men
LGBT men and women may have barriers to care due to prejudices, discrimination, and homophobia