Behavioral Science

Question 1

Who developed the doctrin of phrenology and what were the three contributions?

Answer 1

1. well-developed trait, that part of the brain would expand and cause a buldge in head
2. Measure psychological attributes by feeling the skull
3. generate research on brain function

Franz Gall

Question 2

Who was the first person to study the five functions of the brain and what was the one method he used?

Answer 2

Pierre Flourens

Exturpation (abalation) where various parts of the brain are removed and the consequences are observed. (specfic parts of brain have specific functions)

Question 3

What was the one foundation William James formed and what does it study?

Answer 3

Functionalism: how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environment

Question 4

What concept did John Dewey criticize and what was the one main belief?

Answer 4

Criticized the concept of reflex arc, which breaks the process of reacting to a stimulus into discrete parts

Psychology should focus on the study of organisms as a whole as they adapt to environment

Question 5

What was Paul Broca’s two main contributions?

Answer 5

1. Person to demonstrate that specific functional impairments could be linked with specific brain lesions.
2. Found lesion in specific area of left brain and man was unable to speak, led to this area being called Broca’s lesion

Question 6

What were the three main contributions from Hermann Von Helmholtz?

Answer 6

1. first to measure the speed of a nerve impusle
2. Related measured speed of inpulse to reaction time, providing a link between behavior and nervous system activity
3. Transitions psychology out of realm of philosophy into natural science

Question 7

What were Sir Charles Sherrington’s two contributions and which one was disproven?

Answer 7

1. First inferred the existence of synapses
2. Though synaptic transmission was an electrical process, but a chemical process

Question 8

What are the two purposes of the meninges?

Answer 8

1. Protect brain by keeping it anchored to the skull
2. Resorb cerebrospinal fluid

Question 9

What are the three layers of the meninges? (List in order from bone to brain)

Answer 9

1. Dura mater
2. Arachnoid Mater
3. Pia Mater

Question 10

What two brain structures form the brain stem?

Answer 10

Hindbrain and Midbrain

Question 11

What are the five structures of the Forebrain (prosencephalon) and their functions?

Answer 11

1. Cerebal Cortex: perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes
2. Basal Ganglia: Movement
3. Limbic System: Emotion and Memory
4. Thalamus System: Sensory relay station except smell
5. Hypothalamus: endocrine system, autonomic system, maintain homeostasis

Question 12

What are the four divisions in the Hindbrain?

Answer 12

1. Cerebellum: refined motor movements
2. Medulla oblongata: heart, vital reflexes
3. Reticular formation: Arousal and alertness
4. Pons: Communciation within the brain (contains sensory/motor pathways between medulla and cortex), breathing

Question 13

What are the two divisions in the Midbrain (mesencephalon)? Function?

Answer 13

1. Inferior: receive sensory info from auditory system
2. Superior: receive visual sensory input

Question 14

During embryonic development, what are the two structures the hindbrain(rhombencephalon) divide into? What do these structures become?

Answer 14

1. Mylencephalon: becomes the medulla oblongata
2. Metencephalon: becomes the pons and cerebellum

Question 15

During prenatal development, what are the two structures the presencephalon divide into? What do they form? One forms three structures and other forms 4

Answer 15

1. Telencephalon: form cerebral cortex, basala ganglia, limbic system)
2. Diencephalon: form thalamus, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary gland, pineal gland)

Question 16

What is the main purpose of an electroencephalogram?

Answer 16

To study the electrical activity generated by large groups of neurons

Question 17

What does regional cerebral blood flow measure? How? And what assumption does it make?

Answer 17

1. Detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased blood flow to different parts of brain. Use fMRI
2. Assumes blood flow increases to regions of the breain that engage in cognitive function

Question 18

What is a PET scan and what does it use?

Answer 18

It uses radioactive sugar and injects it into body. Uptake and dispersion in target tissue is observed

Question 19

What are the three subdivisions of the hypothalamus and functions?

Answer 19

1. Lateral Hypothalamus: Trigger eating a drinking
2. Ventromedial hypothalamus: Provides signal to stop eating
3. Anterior hypothalamus: control sexual behavior, sleep, body temp

Question 20

What sends signal to posterior pituitary? What are the two hormones released?

Answer 20

Has axonal projections from the hypothalamus and releases Vasopressin and oxytocin

Question 21

Where does the pineal gland receive its signals from and what does it regulate?

Answer 21

Receives direct signals from the retina and secretes melatonin to regulate sleep

Question 22

What is the extrapyramidal system?

Answer 22

Gathers info about the body’s position and carries this info to the CNS

Question 23

What are the 6 components of the Limbic system? Functions?

Answer 23

1. Septal Nuclei: Pleasure center
2. Amygdala: Attention/fear, help interpret facial expressionas, part of instrinsic memory for emotional memory
3. Hipocampus: role in learning and memory processes. Form long-term explicit/epidsodic memories
4. Prefrontal cortex: planning, expressing personality, making decisions (ventral media cortex: experiecing emotion/ventromedial preforntal cortex: controlling emotional responses from the amygdala to decision making)
5. Thalamus: sensory processing
6. Hypothalamus: release neuotrasmitters that affect mood and arousal

Question 24

How does the hippocampus communicate with other portions of the limbic system?

Answer 24

Fornix

Question 25

What is the main difference between anterograde and retrograde amnesia?

Answer 25

1. Anterograde: not able to form new long-term memories
2. Retrograde: Memory loss before injury

Question 26

What are the four lobes of brain? Function?

Answer 26

1. Frontal Lobe (blue)
2. Parietal Lobe (pink)
3. Occipital Lobe (purple)
4. Temporal Lobe (green)

Question 27

What is the main function of the prefrontal cortex? What does it communicate with?

Answer 27

1. Manages executive function by supervising and directing the operations of other brain regions
2. Communicates with reticular formation in the brainstem

Question 28

Which part of the frontal cortex is associated with association area and which is associated with projection area?

Answer 28

Association Area: prefrontal

Projection Area: primary motor

Question 29

What is the difference between association area and projection areas?

Answer 29

Association area is an area that integrates input from diverse regions of brain

Projection area preforms rudimentart perceptual and motor tasks

Question 30

What is the primary function of the primary motor cortex?

Answer 30

Initiates voluntary motor movements by sending neural impulses down the spinal cord towards the muscles

Question 31

Where is the somatosensory cortex located and what are the four types of signals it processes?

Answer 31

1. Located in pareital lobe on the post central gyrus
2. Area for incoming/processing sensory signals for touch, pressure, temperature, and pain

Question 32

What is the main cortex within the occipital cortex?

Answer 32

Visual cortex (striate cortex)

Question 33

What are the three regions/functions of the temporal lobe?

Answer 33

1. Auditory cortex: sound processing, speech
2. Wernicke’s area: language reception and comprehension
3. Memory processing, emotion

Question 34

How is the dominant hemisphere defined?

Answer 34

One that is more heavily stimulated during language reception and production?

Question 35

What is the main difference between the dominant and nondominant hemisphere?

Answer 35

Dominant: more analytical/logic/language

nondominant: emotions, faces, spatial processing, creativity, music cognition

Question 36

What is the one difference between ipsilaterally and contralaterally?

Answer 36

ipsilaterally: same side
contralaterally: opposite side

Question 37

What are the three catecholamines?

Answer 37

1. Epinephrine
2. norepinephrine
3. dopamine

Question 38

What is the main difference between neuromodulators and neurotransmitters?

Answer 38

Neuromodulators are slow and longer effects on postsynaptic cells than neurotransmitters

Question 39

What is an endorphin?

Answer 39

A neuromodulator that is a natural pain killer

Question 40

What connects the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland?

Answer 40

Hypophyseal portal system

Question 41

What are the two parts of the adrenal gland and their functions?

Answer 41

1. Adrenal medulla: releases epinephrine and norepinephrine
2. Adrenal cortex: produces corticosteroids, such as cortisol. Produce testosterone and estrogen

Question 42

What are the two parts of the pituitary gland and which one releases hormones?

Answer 42

1. Anterior and posterior
2. Anterior

Question 43

Define condordance rates in twin studies

Answer 43

Likelihood that bother twins exhibit the same trait

Question 44

What does the development of the nervous system start with?

Answer 44

Neurulation

Question 45

What are the two structures within the Neural tube?

Answer 45

1. Alar plate: differentiates into sensory neurons
2. Basal plate: differenitates into motor neurons

Question 46

What are the four primitive reflexes and corresponding behavior?

Answer 46

1. Rooting: turns head towards direction of any objects touching the cheek
2. Moro: in response to sudden head movement, arms extent and slowly retract, baby cries
3. Babinski: extension of big tow and fanning of other toes in response to brushing the sole of foot
4. Grasping: holding onto any object placed in hand

Question 47

What are the two themes of the stages of motor development?

Answer 47

1. gross motor development progress in a head-to-toe fashion
2. Skills develope at the core prior to extremities

Question 48

What two hormones are produced by the adrenal glands?

Answer 48

estrogen and testosterone

Question 49

What is the neural groove surrounded by and what are the two structures that arise from the neural groove?

Answer 49

1. Neural folds
2. Neural crest and neural tube

Question 50

What is the one difference between distal stimuli and proximal stimuli?

Answer 50

Distal are the physical objects and proximal are the sensory stimulating byproducts that directly interact with sensory receptors

Question 51

What are two characteristics of ganglia?

Answer 51

1. Collection of neuron cell bodies
2. Found outside the CNS

Question 52

Define subliminal perception

Answer 52

Infor received by CNS that does not cross threshold

Question 53

What are the three observations of Weber’s Law?

Answer 53

1. Difference threshold are proportional
2. Difference thresholds must be computed as percentages
3. proportion is constant over most of the range of possible stimuli

Question 54

What is the one concept Signal Detection Theory studies?

Answer 54

how internal (psychological) and external (environmental) factors influence thresholds for perception and sensation

allows us to look at response bias

Question 55

What is the five step pathway for stimulus to reach conscious perception?

Answer 55

1. Sensory receptor
2. Afferent neuron
3. Sensory Ganglion
4. Spinal Cord
5. Brain (projection area)

Question 56

What is the one difference between noise trails and catch trials?

Answer 56

Noise: signal presented

Catch: no signal presented

Question 57

What are the 4 possible outcomes for a signal detection experiment trial?

Answer 57

1. Hit: Signal presented–> “Yes”
2. Miss: Signal presented –> “No”
3. False Alarm: Signal Absent—> “Yes”
4. Correct Negative: Signal Absent–> “No”

Question 58

What are the two types of vessels that supply the eye with nutrients?

Answer 58

1. Choroidal Vessels: intermingling of blood vessels between the sclera and retina
2. Retinal Vessels

Question 59

What are the two purposes of the cornea?

Answer 59

1. light passes through
2. gathers/focuses the incoming light

Question 60

What are the two chambers of the eye?

Answer 60

1. Anterior: in front of the iris
2. Posterior: btw the iris and lens

Question 61

What are the two muscles of the iris?

Answer 61

1. Dilator pupillae
2. Constrictor pupillae

Question 62

What are three characteristics of the choroid?

Answer 62

1. continuous with iris
2. vascular layer of connective tissue
3. provides nutrishment to retina

Question 63

What are the two structures that are continuous with the iris?

Answer 63

1. Choroid
2. Ciliary body

Question 64

What is the one function of the ciliary body?

Answer 64

1.Produces the aqueous humor that bathes the front part of the eye

Question 65

Where does the aquerous humor drain into?

Answer 65

canal of schlemn

Question 66

What is the primary function of the sclera (white of eye)?

Answer 66

provides structural support

Question 67

What two events happen with the ciliary muscles contract?

Answer 67

1. Pulls the suspensory ligaments
2. Change shape of the lens to focus on an image (accommadation)

Question 68

What is the transparent gel that supports the retina and lies behind the lens?

Answer 68

Vitreous Humor

Question 69

What does the duplexity theory of vision state?

Answer 69

retina contains two kinds of photoreceptors:

1. light-and-dark detection: rod
2. specialized color detection: cones

Question 70

What are three difference between cons and rods?

Answer 70

1. Cones are more effective in bright color and come in three forms (short, medium, long), rods have reduced illumination
2. rods are more functional than cones because each rod is highly sensitive to photons and easier to stimulate
3. rods are not good at detecting fine detail because spread over larger area of retina

Question 71

What is the one pigment that all rods contain?

Answer 71

rhodopsin

Question 72

What is the central section of the retina called? Does it have a high concentration of cones or rods?

Answer 72

macula

cones

Question 73

What is the center most region of the macula called? How does the concentration of cones and rods change as you expand out from fovea?

Answer 73

fovea

concentration of cones decreases, rods decrease

Question 74

What are the 11 steps in the visual pathway for light from the cornea to the brain?

Answer 74

1. Cornea
2. Pupil
3. Len
4. Vitreous
5. retina (bipolar cells –>ganglion cells)
6. optic nerve
7. optic chiasm
   8: optic tract
8. LGN
9. radiation through temporal and pariental lobes
10. visual cortex

Question 75

What is one reason why color vision has greater sensitivity to fine detal than balck-and-white vision does?

Answer 75

the number of cones converging onto ganglion cells is smaller than for rods

Question 76

What are two purposes of the amacrine and horizontal cells?

Answer 76

1. receive input from multiple retinal cells in the same area through bipolar cells before passed to ganglion cells
2. increase our perception of contrast/edge detection because they can accentuate slight differences btw visual info from each bipolar cell

Question 77

What is the optic chiasm? Purpose?

Answer 77

1. fibers from the nasal half of each retina cross paths. the temporal fibers do not cross
2. All fibers corresponding to right visual field from both eyes go to the left side of brain vise versa

Question 78

What is the pathway called after the optic chiasm?

Answer 78

optic tracts: reorganized pathwat after optic chiasm

Question 79

What is one function of the superior colliculus in vision?

Answer 79

controls some reflexive response to visual stimuli and reflex eye movt

Question 80

What are two characteristics of parvocellular cells in LGN?

Answer 80

1. high spatial resolution: detect fine detail when examining an object/its boundaries (form)
2. low temporal resolution: can only work with stationary or slow moving objects

Question 81

What are the three characteristics of magnocellular cells in LGN?

Answer 81

1. high temporal resolution (detect motion)
2. receive info from periphery of vision
3. low spatial resolution

Question 82

What is the primary purpose of binocular neurons?

Answer 82

responsible for comparing the inputs from both eyes/hemispheres and detecting differences –> detect depth

Question 83

what is the primary purpose of feature detectors in visual cortex?

Answer 83

detect specific feature/associate dertain patterns with expected behavior/outcomes (store info)–> all act in parallel

Question 84

What is the main function of the pinna/auricle?

Answer 84

to channel sound waves into the external auditory canal

Question 85

What is the main purpose of the external auditory canal?

Answer 85

directs sound waves into the tympanic membrane

Question 86

What are the three smallest bones in the body and where are they located?

Answer 86

1. ossicle
2. in the middle ear

Question 87

How is the middle ear connected to the inner ear? Purpose of structure?

Answer 87

eustachain tube: equalize pressure between the middle ear and environment

Question 88

What 2 traits of the membranous labyrinth?

Answer 88

1. receptors that sense equilibrium and hearing
2. has potassium rich fluid (endolymph)

Question 89

What are the two purposes of the perilymph?

Answer 89

1. transmits vibrations from outside world
2. Cushions the inner ear

Question 90

The two traits of the round window?

Answer 90

1. membrane covered hole in the cochlea
2. permits the perilymph to move within the cochlea

Question 91

What are the two structures in the vestibule in bony labyrinth? Functions?

Answer 91

1. utricle and saccule (contain modified hair cells called otoliths)
2. sensitive to linear acceleration–> used as a balancing apparatus and to determine orientation

Question 92

What is sensitive to rotational acceleration? How are they structured?

Answer 92

1. three semi-circular canals
2. arranged perpendiculary to each other and each ends in a swelling called an ampulla (where hair cells are located)

Question 93

What are the structures/order of the auditory pathway?

Answer 93

1. Pinna
2. External auditory canal
3. tympanic membrane
4. Malleus
5. incus
6. stapes
7. oval window
8. perilymph in cochlea
9. basilar membrane
10. hair cells
11. Vestibulocohlear
12. brainstem
13. MGN
14. auditory cortex (temporal lobe)/superior olive (localizes sound)/ inferior colliculus (startle reflex and helps keep eyes fixed)

Question 94

How is the basilar membrane organized?

Answer 94

highest freq pitch cause it to vibrate close to oval window

low freq pitch cause vibrations at the apex

(tonotopically organized)

Question 95

What is the 6 step pathway of the olfactory pathway?

Answer 95

1. Nostril
2. Nasal Cavity
3. olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) on olfactory epithelium
4. olfactory bulb
5. olfactory tract
6. higher-order brain regions (limbic system)

Question 96

Where are tastebuds found?

Answer 96

papillae

Question 97

What are the 4 different modalities of somatosensation?

Answer 97

1. pressure
2. vibration
3. pain
4. tempature

Question 98

What are the five different receptors of somatosensation in dermis?

Answer 98

1. Pacinian corpuscles: respond to deep pressure and vibration
2. Meissner corpuscles: respond to light touch
3. Merkel cells: respond to deep pressure and texture
4. Ruffini endings: respond to stretch
5. Free nerve endings: respond to pain and temp

Question 99

Define two-point threshold

Answer 99

refers to the minimum distance necessary btw two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli

(depends on density of nerves)

Question 100

Define physiological zero?

Answer 100

the normal temp of skin

Question 101

Define the gate theory of pain?

Answer 101

gating mechanism can turn pain signals on and off, affecting wether or not we perceive pain

Question 102

Define kinesthetic sense (proprioception). Where are proprioceptors mostly found?

Answer 102

1. the ability to tell where one’s body is in space
2. muscle and joints (hand-eye coordination/balance/mobility)

Question 103

What is the difference between Bottom-up and Top-down processing?

Answer 103

Top-Down is driven by memories and expectations that allow brain to recognize the object and its components. Start with whole object and through memories, create expectations for the features of the object

Bottom-Up refers to object recognition by parallel processing and feature detection, then integrated into one whole image

Question 104

What are the two visual cues depth perception relies on?

Answer 104

Monocular: only require one eye

Binocular cues: require both eyes

Question 105

What are the four main factors that make up monocular cues?

Answer 105

1. Relative size: objects appear larger the closer they are
2. Interposition: when two objects overlap, the one in front is closer
3. Linear perspective: the convergence of parallel lines at a distance… the greater the convergence, the further they are
4. Motion parallas: the objects closer to use seem to move faster when we look somewhere else

Question 106

What are the two factors that make up binocular cues?

Answer 106

1. Retinal disparity: the slight differences in image projects on the two retinas
2. Convergence: the brain detects the angle between the two eyes required to bring an object into focus–> the difference in the degree of convergence is used to perceive distance

Question 107

Define constancy?

Answer 107

the ability to perceive that certain characteristics of an object remain the same, despite changes in environment

Question 108

What are the 6 Gestalt principles?

Answer 108

1. Law of proximity: elements close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit
2. law of similarity: objects that ar similar appear to be grouped together
3. law of good continuation: elements that appear to follow the sma pathway tend to be group together
4. Subjective contours: the perception of nonexistent edges in figures, based on surrounding visual cues
5. law of closure: when a space is enclosed by a group of lines, it is perceived as a complete or closed line
6. law of prägnaz: perceptual organization will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible

all allow the brain to infer missing parts of a picture

Question 109

What three structures support the eye?

Answer 109

Inside: Virteous

Outside: sclera and choroid

Question 110

What three structures make up the outer ear?

Answer 110

1. Pinna
2. external auditory canal
3. Tympanic membrane

Question 111

How is the middle ear connects to the nasal cavity?

Answer 111

Eustachian tube

Question 112

What are the bony labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth filled with?

Answer 112

bony labyrinth: perilymph

membranous labyrinth: endolymph

Question 113

Define dishabituation?

Answer 113

recovery of a response to a stimulus after habituation

Question 114

What is generalization and what is the opposite of generalization?

Answer 114

1. Stimuli similar to each other will ellicit similar reponse
2. Discrimination

Question 115

What are the two categories negative reinforcement can be divided into?

Answer 115

1. Escape Learning: experience unpleasant stimulus and display desired behavior to remove stimulus
2. Avoidance Learning: show desired behavior in anticipation of the unpleasant stimulus to avoid unpleasant stimulus

Question 116

What is the differene between primary reinforcer, secondary reinforcer. discriminative stimulus?

Answer 116

1. Primary: reinforcer respond to naturally
2. Secondary: conditioned reinforcer
3. indicate reward is potentially available

Ex: Dolphin and trainer

Question 117

What is another name for positive punishment?

Answer 117

aversive conditioning

Question 118

Which reinforcement schedule works the fastest and is most resistent to extinction?

Answer 118

variable-ratio

Question 119

What is shaping?

Answer 119

process odf rewarding increasingly specific behaviors that become closer to a disired response

Question 120

Define latent learning? What is an example?

Answer 120

learning that occurs without the reward but is spontaneously demonstrated once a reward is introduced

Ex: rats that were carried through maze and then incentivized with food reward for completeing it preformed just as well as the rats that ran through the maze using operate conditioning

Question 121

What is preparedness?

Answer 121

Animals are able to learn behavior that coincide with their natural behaviors

Question 122

What is instictive drift?

Answer 122

when animals revert to their instinctive behavior after learning a new behavior that is similar

Question 123

What are mirror neurons and where are they located?

Answer 123

1. involved in motor processes/epathy and cicarious emotions
2. play a role in imitative learning
3. located in frontal and parietal lobes

Question 124

What is encoding?

Answer 124

putting new info into memory

Question 125

What is the difference between autonomic processing and controlled processing?

Answer 125

Autonomic: info gained without any effort

controlled: active memorization

Question 126

What are the four different types of encoding?

Answer 126

1. Acoustic
2. Visual
3. Elaborative: link to knoledge that is already in memory
4. Semantic: put into a meaningful context (self-reference effect)

Question 127

What is Mnemonic and what are three examples?

Answer 127

memorize info (particulary lists)

1. method of loci: associating item in a list with a location
2. peg-word: associate numbers with items that rhyme with or resemble the number
3. chuncking: taking elements from a list and grouping them together

Question 128

Define sensory memory and what are the two subgroups? Is it short term memory yet?

Answer 128

preserve info in sensory form/high accuracy but lasts short amount of time

1. iconic memory: fast-decaying memory of visual stimuli
2. echoic memory: fast decay memory of auditory stimuli
   ex: this is tested in partial report procedures

NO

Question 129

How can the capcaity of short term memory be increased?

Answer 129

1. clustering
2. maintenance rehearsal

Question 130

What is our memory capacity?

Answer 130

the number of items we can hold in our short-term memory

around 7 items

Question 131

Where is short-term memory housed?

Answer 131

hippocampus –> consolidation of short term to long term memory

Question 132

What is working memory?

Answer 132

Allows us to keep a few peices of info in our consciounesness simultaneously and to manipulate that info. Must integrate short-term memory, attention and executive function

Question 133

How is long-term memory consolidated?

Answer 133

elaborative rehearsal –> tied to self-reference and is controlled by hippocampus but are mvoed overtime to cerebral cortex

Question 134

What are the two types of long-term memory?

Answer 134

1. Implicit memory (non-declarative memory): consists of our skills, habits, and conditioned reponses. Includes procedural memory, which is our unconscious memory of skills required for a task, and priming. which is the presentation of a stimulus which will impact the perception of another
2. Explicit memory (declarative memory): require conscious recall. Include episodic memory (recollection of life experiences) and semantic memory (ideas, concepts, and facts that we know but are not tied to life experiences)

Question 135

What is autobiographic memory? What type of long-term memory is it?

Answer 135

are explicit memories of our lives and include all of our episodic memories of our life experiences

Question 136

What is the difference between negative and positive priming?

Answer 136

positive: exposure to stimulus improves the processing of second stimulus
negative: first stimulis interfers with processing of second

Question 137

What is the spacing effect?

Answer 137

longer amount of time between sessions of relearning, leads to greater retention of info

Question 138

How is semantic network, spreading activation, and positive priming related?

Answer 138

Our brain is organized into a semantic network (organized by similar meaning). When one node of semantic network is activated other linked concepts are unconciously activated (spreading activation). Like positive primary, you are exposed to a recall cue.

Question 139

What is the context effect?

Answer 139

memory is aided by being in a physical location when encoding took place

Question 140

What is source monitoring?

Answer 140

determining the origin of memories, and whether they are factual or fiction (dream)

Question 141

What is state-dependent memories/state-depedent effect?

Answer 141

retrieval cue based on preforming better when in the same mental state when encoded

Question 142

What is serial-position effect? And what are its two components?

Answer 142

item’s position in list affect ability to recall

1. primacy effect: first items
2. recency effect: last items–> hard to recall later on, might have been able to retrieve initially bc were stuck in short-term memory

Question 143

What is sundowning?

Answer 143

increase dysfunction for Alzheimer patients in late afternoon and evening

Question 144

What are four traits of Korsakoff’s syndrome?

Answer 144

1. retrograde amnesia
2. anterograde amnesia
3. thiamine deficiency in brain
4. confabulation:creating vivid and fabricated memories

Question 145

What is agnosia?

Answer 145

loss of the ability to recognize objectsw, people, or sounds from primarly physical damage to brain

Question 146

What is a common reason for memory loss? What are it’s two subdivisions?

Answer 146

Interference: retrieval error caused by similar info

1. Active interference: old info is interfering with new
2. Retroactive interference: new info cause forgetting of old info

1.

Question 147

What is the misinformation effect and how does it influence reproductive memory?

Answer 147

recall of a person’s memory becomes less accurate when inject outside info into memory

Question 148

What are two errors that occur to cause reconstructive memory?

Answer 148

1. Intrusion error: false memories that have included a false detail into a particular memory. Instrusion is from another memory that is very similar to original memory because they share a theme.
2. Source-monitoring error: confusion between semantic and episodic memory. Person remembers the details of an event, but confused the context under which those details were gained.

Question 149

What are three modes to encode info and list them from strongest to weakest?

Answer 149

1. Semantic
2. acoustic
3. visual

Question 150

What is the difference between maitenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal?

Answer 150

1. Maintenance is repetition of info to keep in short-terp and elaborative is association of info to other stored knowledge and more effective to store short term as long term

Question 151

How are facts stored and how are they retrieved

Answer 151

1. semantic network
2. priming

Question 152

What is the difference btw synaptic pruning and LTP?

Answer 152

1. weak neural connections are broken in synaptic pruning
2. strengthing memory of connection through increase activity (LTP)

Question 153

What is dual-coding theory?

Answer 153

both verbal association and visual images are used to process and store information

Question 154

What are the 4 key points of the information processing model?

Answer 154

1. thinking requires sensation–>encoding–>storage of stimuli
2. Stimuli must be analyzed by the brain to be useful in decision making
3. Decisions made in one situation can be extrapolated and adjusted to help solve new problems
4. problem solving is dependent on a person’s cognitive level, and context/complexity of problem

Question 155

How does Paiget theorize new info is processed? What are two complementary processes?

Answer 155

1. Adaptation
   - Assimalation: putting new info into existing schema
   - Accommodation: existing schema are modified to encompass new info

Question 156

What are the 4 stages of Paiget’s stages of cognitive development?

Answer 156

1. Sensorimotor stage (birth to 20: child learns to manipulate his or her environment to meet physical needs and learns to coordinate sensory input with motor actions. Ends with object permanance
2. Preoperation stage (2-7): symbolic thinking(ability to pretend, have an imagination) and egocentrism (inability to imagine what another person is thinking or feeling). Lack conservation(amount remains the same even if there is a change in shape or appearence)
3. Concrete operational stage (7-11): children can understand conservation and perspectives of others/ engage in logical thought
4. Fromal operational stage (starts at 11): think logically about abstract things/ reason about abstract concepts and problem solve. Hypothetical reasoning: mentally manipulate variables)

Question 157

What are two types of behavior in sensorimotor stage abnd what ends the sensorimotor stage?

Answer 157

1. Exhibit primary circular reactions (repetitions of body movement that orginally occured by chance)
2. secondary circular reactions (manipulation is focused on somthing outside the body).

Object permanence ends this stage because they begin to understand that objects continue to exists even when out of view. This marks the beginning of representational though (child begins to creat mental representations of external objects and events)

Question 158

What falw in cognition may cause the lack of conservation?

Answer 158

centration: tendency to focu on only one aspect and ignore other important elements

Question 159

What was Lev Vygotsky’s many theory?

Answer 159

a child’s internalization of his or her culture drives cognitive development

Question 160

What are the two sub categories intellengence can be divided into?

Answer 160

1. FLuid intelligenceL: solving new problems using creative methods

(peak in adult hood and decline with age)

2. CrystallizedL: solving problems using acquired knowledge and can be procedural (peak in middle adulthood and remains stable with age)

Question 161

What is delirium?

Answer 161

confused thinking, reduced awareness

Question 162

What is the difference between deductibe reasoning (top-down) and inductive reasoning (bottum-up)

Answer 162

1. Deductive: starts with rules and draw conclusions from info given (ex: logic puzzels)
2. Inductive: create a theory via generalization (start with specific instances and draw conclusions)

Question 163

What are heuristics and what are the two branched?

Answer 163

simplified principles to make decisions (“rules of thumb”)

1. Availability heuristic: base likelihood of an event on how easily examples of event come to bind (are there more works in english that start or end with k?
2. Representativeness heuristic: categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit the prototypical, stereotypical, or representative image of the category

Question 164

What is base rate fallacy? What can lead to this?

Answer 164

using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actualy numerical information–> heuristics can lead to this?

Question 165

Define disconfirmation principle?

Answer 165

evidence obtained from testing shows the solution does not work?

Question 166

What is conformation bias and what three things can this lead to?

Answer 166

1. tendency to focus on information that fits a belief, while rejecting information that goes against it
2. This contributes to overconfidence” tendecy to wrongly interpret one’s decisions, knowledge, and beliefs as infallible
3. Hindsight bias: tendecy for people to overestimate their ability to predict the outcome of events that already happened
4. Belief perseverence: inability to reject a belief despite clear evidence against it

Question 167

What is functional fixedness?

Answer 167

the tendency to use objects only in the way they are normally utilized, which may create barriers to problem solving

Question 168

What is a mental set?

Answer 168

pattern to approach a given problem

Question 169

What is intuition and how does it relate to recognition-primed decision model?

Answer 169

1. the ability to act on perceptions that may not be suported by evidence
2. Through the use of acquired knowledge sort through info to match a pattern

Question 170

What are the eight defined types of intelligence in the theory of multiple intelligence?

Answer 170

1. linguistic
2. logical-methematical
3. musicle
4. visual-spatial
5. bodily-kinesthetic
6. interpersonal: ability to detect and navigate the moods and motivations of other
7. intrapersonal: mindful of one’s own emotions, strengths, and weaknesses
8. naturalists

Question 171

What are the three subtypes of Sternberg’s triarchic theory?

Answer 171

1. Analytical intelligence: ability to evaluate and reason
2. creative intelligence: ability to solve problems using novel methods
3. practical intelligence: dealing with everyday problems at home/work

Question 172

What are the four components of emotional intellegence?

Answer 172

1. ability to express and perceive emotions in ourself and others
2. ability to comprehend and anaylze our emotions
3. ability to regulate our emotions
4. awareness of hor emotions shape our thoughts and decisions

Question 173

How is alertness maintained?

Answer 173

the prefrontal cortex communicates with the reticular formation (a neural structure located in the brainstem, to keep cortex awake and alert

Question 174

What are the three difference between beta and alpha wave?

Answer 174

1. beta are high freq and alpha are slower
2. beta occur when a person is alert or attending a task that requires concetration. Alpha occur when a person is awake but relaxing with eyes closed
3. Beta are more randomly firing and alpha are more synchronized

Question 175

What are the six stages of sleep-wake cycle?

Answer 175

1. Awake: beta and alpha waves
2. Stage 1: NREM1: theta waves (irregular wave forms with slow freq and high voltages)–> light sleeping and dozing
3. Stage 2: NREM2: theta waves with sleep spindles (bursts of high freq waves) and K complexes (singular high-amplitude waves)
4. Stage 3:NREM3: known as slow-wave sleep–> delta waves (low freq but high voltage waves) –> dreams, declarative memory consolidation, sleep-wake disorders occur here
5. Stage 4: delta, slow-wave sleep, dreams, declarative memory consolidation, sleep-wake disorders occur here
6. REM (Paradoxical sleep): mostly beta wave, ones heart rate, breathing patterns, EEG mimic wakefullness –> dreaming most likely to occur, procedural memory consolidation, body is paralyzed

Question 176

Besides melatonin being released from the pineal gland, what other hormone is involved in the sleep-wake cycle?

Answer 176

cortisol–> steroid hormone released from adrenal cortex and increases in the morning

increasing light increases the release of CRF from hypothalmus and causes the release of ACTH from anterior pituitary gland which stimulated cortisol release

Question 177

What is the activation-synthesis theory?

Answer 177

dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry. This activation can mimic incoming sensory info and consist of sotred memories, desires, needs, experiences. Cortext stitches this unrelated info together to form a dream

Question 178

What is the problem-solving dream theory?

Answer 178

dreams are a way to solve problems while sleeping. Dreams do not need to follow rules so can interpret obstacles differently

Question 179

What is cognitive process dream theory?

Answer 179

dreams are the sleeping counterpart of stream of consciousness

Question 180

What does the neurocognitive models of dreaming try to do?

Answer 180

unify biological and psychological perspectives on dreaming by correlating the subjective, cognitive experience of dreaming with measurable physiological changes. unify mind and brain

Question 181

What is the difference between dyssomnias and parasomnias?

Answer 181

dyssomnias: disorders that make it difficult to sleep
parasomnias: abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep

Question 182

What are the symptoms of narcolepsy called?

Answer 182

cataplexy: loss of muscle control and sudden intrusion of REM sleep during waking hours

Question 183

What are hyponagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations?

Answer 183

hallucinations when going to sleep or awakening

Question 184

What is another name for sleepwalking?

Answer 184

somnambulism

Question 185

What is one thing that happens to sleep cycle after sleep deprivation?

Answer 185

exhibit REM rebound, earlier onset and greater duration of REM sleep

Question 186

What type of sleep waves are shown during …

Night terrors

meditation

Answer 186

1. slow-wave sleep
2. stage 1 with theta and slow alpha waves

Question 187

What are four events that happen when someone drink’s alcohol?

Answer 187

1. increase activity of GABAR, hyperpolarization
2. disinhibition
3. increase dopamine levels
4. Alcohol myopia: inability to recognize consequences of actions

Question 188

What are two types of sedatives?

Answer 188

1. Barbiturates: anxiety-reducing and sleep medications
2. Benzodiazepines: less prone to overdose than barbiturates

both increase GABA (increase relaxation)–> additive

Question 189

What are 4 characteristics of amphetamines?

Answer 189

1. increase release of dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin

decrease reuptake

2. increase in arousal and reduction in appetite/need for sleep
3. increase in HR and BP

Question 190

What do opiods cause?

Answer 190

Can cause respiratory depression because bind to opiod receptors in PNS and CNS and act as endorphin agonists, casuing a decreased reaction to pain and sense of euphoria

Question 191

What are the three effects of marijuana?

Answer 191

1.Stimulant, depressant, hallucinogen

(increase dopamine activity, decrease GABA activity)

Question 192

What is one dopaminergic pathway associated with drug addiction?

Answer 192

mesolimbic reqward pathway: includes NAc, ventral tegmental areas (VTA), connect between them called the medial forebrain bundle (MFB)–> reward pathway to encourage positive reinforcment

Question 193

What is a dichotic listening test and what does it test?

Answer 193

stimuli is going to both ears and they are ask to repeat what they heard in attended ear through shadowing

this testins for selective attention

Question 194

What is the difference between selective and divided attention?

Answer 194

Selective attention: filter permits us to focus on one set of stimuli while scanning other stimuli in the background (cocktail party effect)

Divided attention: ability to rpeform multiple tasks at the same time. New complec tasks require controlled (effortful) processing–> maintain undivided attention on task and autonomic processing –> used for less critical stimuli in divided attention and is used for familiar and repetitive actions

Question 195

What is phonology?

Answer 195

sound of language

Question 196

What is categorical perception?

Answer 196

language has subtle difference in speech that represent a change in meaning

Question 197

What is constancy?

Answer 197

ability to recognize a word as being the same even if the pronunciations varies

Question 198

What is Morphology?

Answer 198

the structure of words. words are composed of morphemes

Question 199

What does semantics refer to?

Answer 199

association of meaning with word

Question 200

What is syntax?

Answer 200

how words are put together to form sentences

Question 201

What does pragmatics?

Answer 201

dependence of language on context and preexisting knowledge (prosdy: the inflection in your voice)/ the way you speak to different audiences

Question 202

What is naming explosion and when does it usually start?

Answer 202

the child quickly learns dozens of words and uses each word with varying inflections and gestures

starts around 18 months

Question 203

What is overextension and what is it usually paired with?

Answer 203

• a child inappropriately apply a term to an object thats bears similarities to the term
• paried with naming explosion

Question 204

What is errors of growth and when does it usually begin?

Answer 204

• a child applies a grammatical rule of grammar where it does not apply
• begins around 2-3 years

Question 205

What are four points that the nativist (biological) theory argue?

Answer 205

• innate capacity for language
• transformation grammar (changes in word order that retain the same meaning) happens effortlessly
• innate ability is called language acquisition device (LAD) (a theoretical pathway in the brain that allows infants to process and absorb language rules)
• critical period of language acquisition is btw 2yr-pubertyn and if no exposure occurs during this time it is hard to train later

Chomsky

Question 206

How is the sensitive period different from critical period?

Answer 206

• time when environmental input has max effect on language development
• learning language beyond this time is not impossible

Question 207

What are three points of the learning (behaviorist) theory?

Answer 207

1. language acquisition through reinforcement/operant conditioning
2. parents and caregivers repeat and reinforce sounds that sound most like the language spoken by the parents
3. but theory cannot fully explain explosion in vocab that occurs in early childhood

Skinner

Question 208

What are two points to the interactionist theory?

Answer 208

1. language development focuses on the interplay btw biological and social processes
2. language acquisition is driven by child’s desire to communicate and behave in social manner

Question 209

What is the Whorfian hypothesis (linguistic relativity hypothesis)?

Answer 209

our perception of reality is determined by the content of language (language affects the way we think

-expansive framework with more specific voab allows for more sophisticated processing

Question 210

What are the two regions that are responsible for speech production and language? What hemisphere are they located in?

Answer 210

Broca’s area (inferior frontal gyrus of frontal lobe): controls motor function of speech with connections to motor cortex

Wernicke’s area (superior temporay gyrus of the temporal): responsible for language comprehension

left hemisphere

Question 211

How are Wernicke’s area and Broca’s area connected?

Answer 211

arcuate fasciculus: bundle of axons that allows appropriate association between language comprehension and speech production

Question 212

What is aphasia? What are the three types?

Answer 212

is a deficit of language production or comprehension

1. Broca’s (expressive) aphasia: have speech comprehension but reduced or absent ability to produce spoken language. generating each word requires effort/difficulty producing language
2. Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia; comprehension is lost but motor production and fluency of speech is retained (nonsesical sounds)
3. conduction aphasia: if the arcuate fasciculus is affected (patient is unable to repeat something that has been said bc the connection btw these regions is lost). intact speach production and comprehension

Question 213

What are the five milestones of language development?

Answer 213

1. 9-12 months: babbling
2. 12-18 months; increase of one word per month
3. 18-20 months: “explosion of language” and combining words (two word sentences)
4. 2-3 years: longer sentences of three or more words
5. 5 years: language rules largely mastered

Question 214

What is the difference between entrinsic and intrinsic motivation?

Answer 214

1. entrinsic: working hard for a desired reward or to avioid punishment
2. intrinsic: comes from within one’s self that is driven by interest or enjoyment

Question 215

What is the primary idea of instinct theory?

Answer 215

certain behaviors are based on evolutionary programmed instincts

Question 216

What is the main idea of arousal theory? What is the Yerkes-Dodson Law?

Answer 216

1. people perform actions in order to maintain an optimal level of arousal –> seeking to inccrease arousal when it falls
2. The law postualtes a U shaped function between the level of arousal and performance (performance is worse at extremely high and low levels of arousal)

Question 217

What is the difference between primary drives and secondary drives?

Answer 217

1. Primary drives: need for food, water, warmth to ensure homeostasis
2. Secondary drives: not directly realted to biological functions. The drive to succeed

Question 218

What is the drive reduction theory?

Answer 218

Explains that motivation is based on the goal of eliminating uncomfortable states

Drives: internal states of tension or discomfort that can be relieved with an action

Question 219

What are the five main themes of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

Answer 219

(Bases of pyriamid)Physiological needs –> safety–> love/belonging –> esteem–> self actualization (morality/problem solving/ realize one’s fullest potential)

-need to satisfy lowest needs to meet higher ones

Question 220

What is the main idea of self-determination theory?

Answer 220

emphasizes the role of three universal needs: autonomy; the needs to be in control of one’s actions and ideas; competence; the need to complete and excel at difficult tasks; and relatedness, the need to feel accepted and wanted in relatioships

Question 221

What is the main idea of Expectancy-value theory?

Answer 221

the amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individual’s expectations of success in reaching the goal and the degree to which he or she values succeeding at the goal

Question 222

What is two main ideas of opponent-process theory?

Answer 222

-when a drug is taken repeatedly, the body will attempt to counteract the effects of the drug by changing its physiology

(counteract a depressant like alcohol through arousal)

-can lead to withdraw and tolerance–> decrease in perceived effect of drug overtime

Question 223

What is the main idea of incentive theory?

Answer 223

motivation as the desire to purseu rewards and avoid punishments

Question 224

What are the three elements to emotion?

Answer 224

1, Physiological response: arousal leads to stimulation of autonomic nervous system

2. Behavioral response:facial expressions/body language
3. Cognitive response: subjective interpretation of feeling, subjective interpretation, memories of past experiences, perception of causes of emotions

Question 225

What are the seven universal emotions?

Answer 225

1. Happiness
2. Sadness
3. Contempt
4. Surprise
5. Fear
6. Disgust
7. Anger

Question 226

What is emotional memory and what does it refer to?

Answer 226

refers to the unconscious implicit meory and is the storage of feelings of emotion associated with an event

when experiencing a similar event later one will retrieve those emotions (related to PTSD)

Question 227

What are the two divisions of the prefrontal cortex?

Answer 227

1. Dorsal prefrontal cortex: associated wiith attention and cognition
2. ventral prefrontal cortex: connects with regions of the brain responsible for experiencing emotion

Question 228

What is cognitive appraisal and what are its two stages?

Answer 228

It is the subjective evaluation of a situation that induces stress

1. Primary appraisal: intial evaluation of the environment and the assoicated threat (identification of stress as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful)

If primary appraisal reveals a threat…

2. Secondary appraisal: directed as evaluating whether the organism can cope with the stress (evaluation of harm/damage, threat, and challenging; potentail to overcome)

Question 229

What is the social readjustment rating scale?

Answer 229

stress level can be measured in “life change units”

Question 230

What are the three distinct stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

Answer 230

1. Alarm: initial reaction to a stressor and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system (hypothalamus stimulates pitutitary to release ACTH–> stimulate adrenal glands to secrete cortisol/adrenal medulla leadsing to release of epinephrine and norepinephrine)
2. resistance: continuous release of hormones allows the sympathetic nervous systems to remain engaged to fight the stressor
3. exhasution: body can not loner maintain an elevated responses with sympathetic nervous activity –> become more susceptible to illnesses and medical conditions

Question 231

What feeling are the left and right frontal lobe associated with?

Answer 231

1. Left–> positive feelings
2. right–> negative feelings

Question 232

What is the

1. Approach-approach conflict
2. Avoidance-avoidance conflict
3. Approach-avoidance conflict

Answer 232

1. choose btw two desriable options
2. choose between two negative outcomes
3. deal with only one choice, goal, or event, but the outcome could have both positive and negative outcomes

Question 233

What is the main idea of hiearchy of salience?

Answer 233

We let situations dictate which idenity holds the most importance for us at any given moment

Question 234

What is the seld-discrepancy theory and what are the three main components?

Answer 234

Each of us have three sevles and that perceived difference between these selves leads to negative feelings. The closer these three selves are, the higher self-esttem

1. Idea self: person we want to be
2. Actual self
3. Ought Self: the representation of the way others think we should be

Question 235

What is self-efficacy? What happens when it is low and high?

Answer 235

Is our belief in our ability to scceed

1. Overconfidence: is when it is high
2. Learned helpness: is when it is low and perceived lack of control, from repeated events

Question 236

What is the difference between self-concept and self-identity?

Answer 236

Self concept describes the sum of all the phrases that come to mind when we think of who we are (self-schemata), who we used to be, who we may become.

Identity is a set of heaviors or labels we take on when in a specific group.

Question 237

What are Freud’s 4 stages of Psychosexual Development?

Answer 237

1. Oral(0 to 1): libidinal energy centered on the mouth; fixation can lead to excessive dependency
2. Anal (1 to 3): toilet training occurs durring this time; fixation can lead to excessive organization or messiness
3. Phallic: oedipal (for male) or Electra (for female —> have penis envy and will exhibit less female stereotypical behavior conflicts is resolves during this stage
4. Genital: begings at purberty; if previous stages have been successfully resolved, the person will enter into normal heterosexual relationship

Question 238

What is neurosis caused from?

Answer 238

Fixation occurs when a child overindulged or overly frustrated during a stage of development and will lead to anxiety where the child will perform a personality patterns based on a particular state which persists into adulthood

Question 239

What are Erikson’s 8 stages of psychosocial development?

Answer 239

Need to gain a positive outcome to develope and can develope other stages without developing previous stages

1. Trust vs. Mistrust(0 to 1): Trust work? Cargivers? parents
2. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt (1 to 3): Able to exert control on environment? Able to excersise choice? Ok to be me?
3. Initative vs, guilt (3 to 6): Is it ok for me to do, move, and act?
4. Industry vs inferiority (6 to 12): Can i make it in the world of people and things?
5. Identity vs. role confusion (12-20): Who am I? What can I be?
6. Intiamcy vs. isolation (20 to 40): Can I love?
7. Generatibity vs. Stagnation (40 to 65): Can I make my life count?
8. Integrity vs. depair (65 to death): Is it ok to have been me?

Question 240

What are the three phases of Kohlberg’s Stages of Moral Development?

Answer 240

1. Preconventional morality (preadolescence): 1)Obedience (avoiding punishment) and 2) Self-interest (gain rewards and instrimental relativist stage; mutual sharing)
2. Conventional morality (adolescence to adulthood): 3) conformity (seek approval from others) 4) law and order (social order)
3. Postconventional morality (adulthood): level of reasoning not everyone is capable of 5) social contract (moral rules as conventions to ensure greater good) 6)universal human ethics (decisions should be made based on abstract principles)

Question 241

What concept is Vygotsky known for?

Answer 241

Zone of proximal development: referring to skills and abilities that have not yet fully developed but are in the process of developing. Require a more knowledgable other to accomplish

Question 242

What is theory of mind?

Answer 242

The ability to sense how another mind works, we become aware of judgments

Question 243

What is looking-glass self?

Answer 243

Our understanding of how others see us, which relies on perceieving a relfection of ourselves based on the words and actions of others

Question 244

What were the three entities of Freud’s perception on personality?

Answer 244

1. id: basic, primal, inborn urges to survive and reproduce, functions according to the pleasure principle. Primary process is id’s response to furstration based on pleasure principle. Wish fufillment is through mental imagery (daydreaming)
2. Ego: operated according to reality principle that taks into accound reality as it guides and inhibits activity of id. Secondary process is to postpone the pleasure principle until satifisfaction can be obtained. Ego is the organizer of the mind and it receives its power from id and can never be independent from it
3. Superego: personality’s perfectionist, judging our actions and responding with pride at our accomplishment and guild at our failures. Is divided into 1) conscience (collection of improper actions for which a child is punished) 2) ego-ideal (proper actions for which s a child is rewarded)

Id is in unconscious relm and ego and superego are unconsicous and preconscious relm

Question 245

What are the 8 main defense mechanisms that ego uses to relieve anxiety caused by the clash of Id and superego?

Answer 245

1. Repression: ego’s way fo forcing undesired thoughts and urges to the unconscious. disguis threatening impulses from unconscious.
2. supression which is more deliberate conscious form of forgetting
3. Regression: reversion to an earlier developmental state/ return to earlier behaviors
4. Reaction formation: individual supresses urges by unconsciously converting them into opposites
5. Projection: individuals attribute their undesired feelings to others. “I hate my parents” to “my parents hate me”
6. Rationalization: justification of behaviors in a manners that is acceptable to self and society.
7. Displacement: the transference of an undesired urge from one person or object to another.
8. Sublimation: transformation of unacceptable urges into socially acceptable behaviors (anger convert to drive for success)

Question 246

What were the two components Carl Jung divided the unconscious into?

Answer 246

1. personal unconscious
2. collective unconscious: powerful system that is shared among all humans and considers to be a residue of the experiences of earlier ancestors. Images have an emotion elemtns (archetypes)

Question 247

What are the 4 different archetypes?

Answer 247

1. Persona: is linked to a mask we wear in public/ it is the part of our personality we present to the world/ adaptive to social interactions
2. Anima: feminine qualities in men
3. Animus: masculine qualities in females
4. Shadow: responsible for the appearance of unpleasant and sociallt reprehensible thoughts, feelings, and actions experiences in the unconscious mind

Question 248

What are Jung’s 3 dichotomies of personality? What did it provide the framework for?

Answer 248

1. Extraversion vs introversion
2. Sensing (obtaining objective info about the world) vs intuiting (working with info abstractly)
3. Thinking vs feeling

Myers-Bruggs Tyoe Inventory

Question 249

What are four main components to Adler’s theory of personality?

Answer 249

1. Inferiority complex
2. creative self: force by which each individual shapes his uniqueness and establishes his personality
3. Style of life: the manifestation of the creative self/a person’s unique way of achieving superiority
4. fictional finalism: an individual is motivated more by his expectations of the future than by past experiences

Adler assumes people are motivated by striving for superiority

Question 250

What is the object relations theory?

Answer 250

the representation of parents or other caregivers based on subjective experiences during early infancy

Question 251

What do humanistic theorists focus on?

Answer 251

1. values of individuals and take a more person-centered approach, describing those ways inwhich healthy people strive towards self-realization.

Question 252

What two theories flow from humanistic theory?

Answer 252

1. Maslow’s hiercharchy of needs: Self-actualized people are more likely to have peack experiences: profound and deeply moving experiences in a person’s life that have important and lasting effects on the individual
2. Roger’s therapeutic approach of unconditional positive regard

Question 253

What is Kelly’s personal construct psychology?

Answer 253

Individuals are scientists who devise and test predictions about the behavior of significant people. The individual constructs a scheme of anticipation of what others will do, based on his or her knowledge, perception, and relationship with other people.

Question 254

What is Roger’s client-centered, person-centered, or nondirective therapy?

Answer 254

Roger believed people have the freedom to control their own behavior. Person centered approach helped client reflect on problems, make choices, generate solutions

Question 255

What is the main idea of unconditional positive regard?

Answer 255

A therapeutic technique by which the therapists accepts the client completely and expressed empathy in order to promote a positive therapeutic environment

Question 256

What is the difference between Type Theorists and trait theorists?

Answer 256

1. Type theorists attempts to create taxonomy of personality types/personalities are set of distinct qualities and dispositions into which people can be grouped
2. Trait theorists perfer to descrive individual oersonality as the sumer of a person’s characteristic behaviors. personalities are assembled from having different degrees of certain qualities and dispositions

Question 257

What are four examples of Type Theories?

Answer 257

1. Personality Types based on humors or body fluids
2. somatotypes: personaility types based on body types
3. Type A vs. Type B
4. Myers-Briggs Type Inventory

Question 258

What are four examples of trait theorists?

Answer 258

1. PEN model: Psychoticism (a measure of nonconformity or social deviance), extraversion (measure of tolerance to social interactions and stimulation), Neuroticism (measure of emotional arousal in stressful situations)
2. Five Factor Theory: openness, consientiosness, Agreeableness, extraversion, neuroticism
3. Gordan Allport’s three traits: Cardinal traits (traints around which a person organizes her or his life), Central Traits (major characteristics of personaility that are easy to infer), Secondary Traits (other personal characterisitcs that are more limited in occurrence. Funcational Autonomy is important and explains that behaviors continues despite the absence of orginally drive of the behavior
4. McClelland identified the personalilty trait of the need for achievement (N-Ach)

Question 259

What are the two main ideas of social cognitive perspective?

Answer 259

1. Focuses on how our environment influences our behaviors and how we interact with the environment, so intern affect out identity
2. Reciprocal determinism: our thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and environment all interact with each other to determine our actions in a given situtations. People mold their environments according to their personalities, and those environments in turn shape our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

Question 260

What is the main idea of psychoanalysis?

Answer 260

Personality is the result of unconscious urges and desires

Question 261

What is androgyny

Answer 261

1. scoring high in both masculitnity and feminity

Question 262

What is the difference between biomedical and biopsychosocial model?

Answer 262

1. Biomedical consered the physical, pathological mechanisms that underlie mental illness
2. Biopsychosocial considered the contributions of biological factors along with psychology (thoughts, emotions, beahviors) and social instituions(environment, social class, discrimination, or stigmatization)

Question 263

What are four different types of delusions?

Answer 263

1. Delusion of reference: belief that common elements in the environment are directed toward the individual (person on TV is talking to you directly)
2. Delusion of persecution: belief that the person is being deliberately interfer with, discriminated against, plotted against or threatened.
3. Delusions of grandeur: the belief that the person is remarkable in some signifcant way, such as being an inventor, historical figure, or religious icon
4. Thought broadcasting(belief that one’s thoughts are broadcast directly from one’s heads to the external world), Thought withdrawal (the belief that thoughts are being removed from one’s head), thought insertion (belief that thoughts are being placed in one’s head

Question 264

What are three types of disorganized behavior?

Answer 264

1. Catatonia: certain motor beahvior characteristic of some people with schizophrenia (ex: maintain a rigid poster and refuse to move/spontaneous movements)
2. Echolalia: repeating another’s words)
3. echopraxia: imitating another’s actions

Question 265

What are four types of negative symptoms in psychotic disorders?

Answer 265

1. Disturbance of affect: disruption in the experience and display of emotions
2. Blunting: severe reduction in the intensity of affect expression
3. emotional flattening: no signs of emotional expression
4. inappropriate affect: ex: laugh hysterically while discribing death
5. avolition: decreased engagement in purposeful, goal=direct actions

Question 266

What are the 3 phases of schizophrenia?

Answer 266

1. Prodromal phase: evidence of deterioration, social withdrawl, role functioning impairment, peculiar behavior, inappropriate affect, and unsual experience
2. Actin Phase: psychotic symptoms are displayed
3. residual phase (recovery phaser): occurs after an active episode and is mental clarity resulting in concern or depression as they become aware of previous behavior

Question 267

What is brief Psychotic disorder?

Answer 267

Positive psychotic symptoms are present for at least a day, but less than a month

Question 268

What is Schizophreniform Disorder?

Answer 268

Same diagnostic criteria as schizophrenia except in duration (require duration for diagnosis is only for a month)

Question 269

What are the 9 symptoms of depressive disorders?

Answer 269

Sadness + SIG E. CAPS

Sleep

Interest

Guilt

Energy

Concentration

Appetite

Psychomotor symptoms (slowed thoughts and physical movements)

Suicidal thoughts

Question 270

What is major depressive disorder?

Answer 270

Major despressive episode where there is a 2 week period a person experiences 5 of the 9 depressive symptoms, must include depressed mood or anhedonia (inability to feel)

Question 271

What us disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?

Answer 271

diagnosed between 6-10 years, persistent and recurrent emotional irritability in multiple environments

Question 272

What are the 7 manic symptoms? What is a manic episode?

Answer 272

DIG FAST

Distractibility

Irresponsibility

Grandiosity: exagerated increase in self-esteem

Flight of Thought: rapid thoughts

Activity or agitation

Sleep: decrease sleep

Talkative

one week duration of at least 3 of the above symptoms

Question 273

How is Bipolar II disorder different fron Bipolar I disorder/major depressive disorder?

Answer 273

Bipolar II disorder: both major depressive episode with hypomanic episode (2 or more of manic symptoms for at least 4 days)

Bipolar I disorder: manic episodes with or with out major depressive

Major depressive disroder: at least one major depressive episode with no manic episodes

Question 274

What us cyclothymic disorder?

Answer 274

hypomanic episodes and dysthymia (persistent depressive disorder: depressive symptoms for at least 2 years) that is not sever enough to be a major depressive episode

experience numeric manic and depressive symptoms over 2 years

Question 275

What does the monoamine or catecholamine theory of depression explain?

Answer 275

Too much serotonine or nonepinethrine in synapse can lead to mania but too little leads to depression

Question 276

What is selective mutism?

Answer 276

consistent inability to speak in situations where speaking is expected

Question 277

What is Agoraphobia?

Answer 277

fear of being in paces or situations where it might be difficult to escape

associated with panic attacks and fear of being negatibely evaluated by others

Question 278

What are trichotillomania and excoriation disorder?

Answer 278

trichotillomania: compelled to pull out hair

excoriation disorder: compelled to pick their skin

Question 279

What are the 4 symptoms associated with PTSD?

Answer 279

1. Intrusion symptoms: recurrent reliving of the even, flashbacks, nightmares, and prolonged distress
2. Arousal symptoms: increased starle response, irritability, anxiety, self-destructive or reckless behavior, sleep distrubances
3. Avoidance symptoms: deliberate attemtps to avoid the memories, people, places, activities, and objects associated with the trauma
4. Negative cognitive symptoms: inability to recall key features of the event, negative mood or emotions, feeling distanced from others, and a persistent negative view of the world

Question 280

What is dissociative amnesia?

Answer 280

inability to recall past experiences

May also experience dissociative fugue (sudden unpected move or puposeless wandering away from one’s home or location), assumption of new identity

Question 281

What is Depersonalization/derealization disorder?

Answer 281

individuals feel detached from own mind and bodies (depersonalization) or surroundings (derealization)

Question 282

What is two somatic disorders (involve bodily symptoms and may be related to medical condition)?

Answer 282

1. Illness anxiety disorder: consumed with thoughts about having or developing a serious medical condition
2. Conversion disorder: symptoms affecting volunteray motor or sensory functions that are incompatible with patient’s neurophysiological condition (ex: paralysis or blindness withouth evidence of neuological damage)

Question 283

Why are personality disorders considered ego-syntonic? What is the opposite of ego-syntonic?

Answer 283

1. individual percieves her beahvior as correct, normal, or in harmony with goals
2. Ego-dystonic: individual sees the illness as somthing thrust upon her that is intrusive and bothersome

Question 284

What is Cluster A of personality disorders? What are the 3 disorders under it?

Answer 284

Is marked by behavior that is labeled as odd or eccentric by others

1. Paranoid PD: pervasive distrust/ suspicion
2. Schizotypal PD: pattern of odd or eccentric thinking (delusion/magical thinking/superstitiousness), eccentricity
3. Scizoid PD: pervasive pattern of detachment from social relatioships and restricted rnge of emotional expression (little desire for social interactions)

Question 285

What is Cluster B of personality disorders? What are the 4 disorders under it?

Answer 285

Marked by heabior that is dramtic, emotional, or erratic

1. Antisocial PD(more common in males): disregard for and violation of rights of others (illegal acts, deceitfulness, aggressiveness, lack of remorse)
2. Borderline PD(more common in females): instability in interpersonal behavior, mood, and self-image. Uncertainty about self-image, sexual identity, long term goals and values. Use splitting as a defense mech (things are all good or all bad)
3. Histrionic PD: constant attention-seeking behavior
4. Narcissitic PD: preccupation with fantasies of success, need constant admiration and attention, fragile self-esteem

Question 286

What is Cluster C of personality disorders? What are the 3 disorders under it?

Answer 286

Makred by behavior that is labeled as anxious or fearful of others

1. Avidan PD: extreme shyness and fear of rejection. Socially isolated despite a desire for social affection and acceptance. Stay in same jobs, relatioships despite wanting change
2. Dependent PD: continuous need for reassurance. Remained dependent on one specific person to take action and make decisions
3. Obsessive-compulsive PD: perfectionaist and inflexible, like rules and order, dislike change, excessibe stubbornnes

Question 287

What are the four markers for depression?

Answer 287

1. High glucose metabolism in amygdala
2. Hippocampal atrophy after a long duration of illness
3. Abnormally high levels of glucocorticoids (cortisol)
4. Decreased norepinephrine, serotonine, and dopamine

Question 288

What are the 4 markers for bipolar disorders?

Answer 288

1. Increased nonrepinephrine and serotonin
2. higher risk if parent has disorder
3. higher risks for persons with multiple sclerosis

Question 289

What are 6 traits of Parkinson’s disease?

Answer 289

1. Bradykinesia: slowness in movement
2. Resting tremor
3. pill-rolling tremor: flexing and extending fingures while moving thumb back and forth
4. masklike facies: static and expressionless facial features, staring eyes, open mouth
5. cogwheel rigidity: muscle tension that intermittently halts movement as an examiner attempts to manipuate limb
6. Shuffling gait with stooped posture

Question 290

What are the 3 ideas of Yerkes-Dodoson Law of social facilitation?

Answer 290

1. being in the presences of other will raise arousal
2. which enhances the ability to rpeform tasks one is already good at (simple tasks)
3. hinders the performation of less familiar tasks (complex tasks)

Question 291

What is deindividuation? What is it also refered to as?

Answer 291

1. the loss of one’s self awareness in a group setting and adoption of a more group oriented identity
2. mob mentality: individuals of the group lose their own sense of morals and ethics and adopt the mob mentaility

Question 292

What does deindividuation lead to?

Answer 292

Antinormative behavior: behavior that is not socially acceptable in most social circumstances

Question 293

What is cognitive dissonance?

Answer 293

the presence of two opposing thoughts or opinions

Question 294

What is the difference between primary and secondary socialization?

Answer 294

1. Primary: occurs during childhood when we learn acceptable actions and attitudes in our society
2. Secondary: learning appropriate behavior within smaller sections of larger society (outside home)

Question 295

What is anticipatory socialization?

Answer 295

persons prepare for future changes in occupations, living situations, or relationships

Question 296

Define labeling theory?

Answer 296

labels given to a person affect how other respond to that person but also the label will affect that person’s self image

Question 297

What is differential association theory?

Answer 297

initimate exposure to otherws who enage in deviant behavior lays the groundwork for one to engage in deviant behavior themselves

Question 298

What is strain theory?

Answer 298

deviance as a natural reactions to the disconnect between social goals and social structure

Question 299

What is normative conformity?

Answer 299

the desire to fit into a group because of fear of rejection

Question 300

What is identification?

Answer 300

outward acceptance of other’s ideas without personally taking on these ideas

Question 301

What is compliance?

Answer 301

change in behavior based on a direct request from people who do not wield authority over the individual (different from obedience)

Question 302

What are four different compliance techniques?

Answer 302

1. foot-in-the-door: technique begins with a small request, and after gaining compliance, a larger request is made
2. door-in-the-face technique: a large request is made at first, and if refused, a second smaller request is made /make person feel guilty
3. lowball technique: requestor will get an initial commitment from an individual, and then raise the cost of the comitment. gaining compliance without revealing the full cost (money, time, effort)
4. that’s-not-all technique: individual makes an offer, but before making a decision, is told the deal is even better than she expected. increasing the reward for a request before an individual has the chance to make a decision

Question 303

What does the functional attitudes theory state?

Answer 303

attitudes serve four functions

1. knowledge function: knowing the attitudes of others helps to predict their behavior
2. ego-expressive: allowing use to communicate and solidify our self-identity
3. adaptive: expressed socially acceptable attitude will lead to acceptance
4. ego-defensive: protect our self-esteem or justify actions that we know are wrong

Question 304

What is learning theory?

Answer 304

attitudes are developed through different forms of learning (through direct contact, direct interaction, direct instruction, conditioning)

EX: parents do not allow you to sue curse words, do not like people that use curse words

Question 305

What us the elaboration likelihood model? What are the two extremes?

Answer 305

attitudes are formed and change through different routEs of information processing based on degree of elaboration

1. Central route processing: deeping thinking, draw conclusions and make decisions based on deep analysis–> lead to central route persuasion: attempt to influence attitudes that using inforation that appeals to central route processing
2. Peripheral route processing: do not elaborate and focus on superficial details–> lead to peripheral route to persuasion when attempt to influence attitudes by appealing to peripheral route processing

Question 306

What us social cognitive theory?

Answer 306

people learn how to behave and shape attitudes by observing the behaviors of others, personal factors, environment (The three interacive factors of Bandura’s triadic recprocal causation). Behavior is not learned through trial and error but rather direct obersvation and replication of actions of others

Question 307

What is internalization?

Answer 307

tyoe of conformity in which individuals change their outward opinions to match the group

Question 308

What are the three types of statuses?

Answer 308

1. Ascribed Status: one given involuntarily (usually at birth) due to race, ethnicity, gender, family background
2. Achieved status: status that is gined as a result of one’s efforts or choices
3. Master Status: a status a person is most identified/ most important to them

Question 309

What is the difference between role conflict, role strain, and role exit?

Answer 309

Role conflict: difficulty satisfying the requirement or expectations of multiple roles

role strain: difficulty in satifying mutlple requirements of the same role

role exit: dropping of one idenity for another

Question 310

What is a network? What is the difference between immediate and distant networks?

Answer 310

use to describe an observable pattern of socialr elatiohsips amoung groups

immediate network: dense group of people with strong ties

distant: are looser with weaker ties

Question 311

What are organizations?

Answer 311

are complex secondary groups that are set up to achieve specific goals and have a structure and culture

Question 312

What does Gemeinshaft and Gesellschaft mean

Answer 312

1. community: group unified by feelings of togetherness due to chared beliefs, ancestry, geography
2. society: is a group of unified mutal self-intersts in achieving a goal

Question 313

What is the iron law of oligarchy?

Answer 313

states that democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shift to being ruled by an elite group

Question 314

What does the social construction model assume?

Answer 314

there is no biological basis for emotion. EMotions are based on experiences and situational context alone

Question 315

What are display rules?

Answer 315

govern which emotions can be expressed and to what degree

Question 316

What is cultural syndrome?

Answer 316

1. is shared set of beliefs, attitudes, norms, values, and behaviors among members of the same cutlure that are organized around a central theme

Question 317

What us impression mamangemnet and what are the three selves?

Answer 317

refers to our attempts to influence how other perceive us

1. Authenic self: whp the person actually is
2. ideal self: who would we like to be
3. tactile selfL who we market outselves to be

Question 318

What are 5 stratiegies for impression managment?

Answer 318

1. self disclosure
2. managing appearence
3. ingratiation: using flattery or conforming to expectation to win someone over
4. aligning actions” making questional behavior acceptable through excused
5. altering-casting: imposing idenity onto one another

Question 319

What is dramaturgical appraoch?

Answer 319

using theatrical performace to describe how individuals create images of themselves in various situtations

1. front stage self: persona they present to an audience and strives to preserve his desired image
2. back-stage self: persona adopted when not in a social situations and there is no concern about upholding the performance of a desired public image

Question 320

What is the Me and the I?

Answer 320

Me: part of a self that is developed through interaction with society. Consider the generalize other, which is based on a peron’s establioshed perceptions of expectations of society. I is the indivduals impulses. Persons impulses are shped by interpreations of society’s expecations

Question 321

What is presented self?

Answer 321

it is composed of authentic, idea, and tactial(self we present to others when we adher to their expectations) selves

Question 322

What is the difference between intra and interspecific animal communication?

Answer 322

Intra: communication between members of the same species

inter: communication between members of different species

Question 323

What are the 4 different modes of attachment?

Answer 323

1. Secure Attachment: child has a consistent caregiver and is able to go out and explore, knowing that they have a secure base to return to
2. Avoidant Attachment: caregiver has little to no response to a distressed child. Children will show no preference between a stranger and a caregiver
3. Ambivalent Attachment: caregiver has an inconsistent response to a child’s distress, sometimes responding appropriately, sometimes neglectfully. Child is unable to form a secure base (anxious-ambivalent attachment)
4. Disorganized Attachment: child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to caregiver;s absences or presences (mix of avoidance or resistence, confusion)

Question 324

What does the cognitive neoassociation model state?

Answer 324

We are more likely to respond to to other aggressively when we are feeling negative emotions

Question 325

What are the five fators that influence interpersonal attraction?

Answer 325

1. physical attractiveness
2. similarity
3. selc-disclosure
4. reciprocity
5. proximity

Question 326

What are the five different types of social support?

Answer 326

1. Emotional support: listening, affirming, empathizing with someone’s feelings
2. Esteem Support: affirming the qualities and skills of a person
3. Material Suppor: financial or material contributions to another person
4. Informational Support: provide information that will help someone.
5. Network Support: social suppor that gives a person a sense of belonging

Question 327

What are the 5 different mechanisms of mate choice?

Answer 327

1. Phenotypic benefits: observable traites that make a mate more attactive to the opposite sex
2. Sensory bias: development of a trait to match a preexisting preferenece that exists in the population
3. Fisherian or runaway selection: positive feedback mechanism where a particular trait that has no effect or a negative effect on survival becmes more exgerated over time. trait is deemed desirable and more likely to pass on
4. indicator traits: traits that signify fgood health and well being
5. Genetic compatibility: complementary genes between mates. Explaintation for reduced freq of recessive genetic disorders in a pop

Question 328

What is the empalthy-altruism hypothesis?

Answer 328

one explanation for the relatioship between empathy and helping behavior

Question 329

What is the Hawk-Dove game and what are the 4 alternatives for competitos when dealing with strategic interactions?

Answer 329

Game theory: attempts to explain decision making behavior

1. Altruism: donor provides a benefit to the recipient at cost to themselves
2. cooperation: both the donor and recipient benefit by cooperating
3. spite: both the donor and recipient are negatively impacted
4. selfishness: donor benefits while the recipient is negatively impacted

Question 330

What is inclusive fitness?

Answer 330

measure of an organism’s success in a population. based on number of offspring, success in supporting offspring, and ability of offspring to support others

Question 331

What is implicit personality theory?

Answer 331

set of assumptions people make about how different types of people, their traits, and their behavior relate

Question 332

What is reliance on central traits?

Answer 332

people dent to organize the perception of others based on traits and personality charcteristics of the target that are most relevants to the perceiver

Question 333

What is the halo effect?

Answer 333

judgment about a specific aspect of an individual can be affected one’s overall impression of the individual

Question 334

What are the two motivational processes that influence self-serving bias?

Answer 334

1. Self-enhancement: on the need to maintain self-worth
2. self-verification: suggests people will seek the companionshp of others who see them as they seem themselves

Question 335

What are 3 types of cues?

Answer 335

1. Consistency cues: behavior over time/ more regular the behavior, the more we aasociate the beahviors with the motives of person
2. Consensus cuesL extent to which a person’s behaviors differs from the group. If person deviates from socially excepted behavior, we are likely to form dispositional attributions
3. Distinctiveness Cues: extent to which a person engages in similar behavior across a series of scenarios. If person’s behavior varies–> situational attributions

Question 336

What is correspondent inference theory?

Answer 336

is used to describe attributions made by observing the intentional behaviors performed by another

Question 337

What are the 4 different types of stereotypes?

Answer 337

1. Paternalistic: a group is looked down upon as inferios, dismissed, ignored
2. Contemptuous: group is viewed with resentment, annoyance, anger
3. Envious: those which the group is viewed with jealousy, bitterness, distrust
4. admiration: which the group is viewed with pride or positive feelings

Question 338

What are three things that influence prejudice?

Answer 338

power, prestige, class

Question 339

What is symbolic interactionism? Who founded it?

Answer 339

1. attempts to understand human actions and interaction by studying symbols we sue to communiate (three assumptions: humans act towards symbols based on meanings of symbol, the meanings of symbols carry from social interaction, humans interpret the meaning of symbols and interpretations influence actions). overlooks macrolevel structures
2. Herbert

Question 340

What is social constructionism?

Answer 340

attempt to understand society through the study of social constructs. Individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality. Overlooks macrolevel strucutre

Question 341

What is structural functionalism? Who founded it?

Answer 341

1. each social group’s role is a function: the contribution made by that group to the system. Different groups in society work together in an unconscious, automatic way towards equilibrium. Not good for explaining social change
2. Durkheim

Question 342

What is feminist theory?

Answer 342

1. critques the institutional power structures that disadvantage women in society
2. society as inherently patriarchal (even study of sociology has been dominated by men)
3. glass ceiling vs glass escalator (invisible social forces push men to top expecially in female dominated jobs)

Question 343

What is teacher expectancy?

Answer 343

teachers tend to get what they expect from students (place high demands on students, students will suceed–> ex of self-fufilling prophacy)

Question 344

What is fundamentalism?

Answer 344

groups maintance of strict adherence to religious code

Question 345

What are the dependecy ration, youth ratio, age dependency ratio?

Answer 345

dependecy ration: ratio of the number of memebers of a pop that are not in workforce to the the number that is

youth ratio: number of people under 15 yrs old divided by the number of people ages 15-65

age dependecy ratio: number of people over 65 divided by number of people ages 15-65

Question 346

What is demograohic transition theory? What are its 4 stages?

Answer 346

Explains link btw economic development and demographic shift

1. preindutrial society; birth and death rates high (stable pop)
2. economic progress leads to improvements to healthcare, nutrition, sanitation, wages, causing decrease in death rates
3. improvements in contraception, women’s rights, shift to industrial economy. birth and death rates level off
4. industrialized society, birth and death rates low, constant pop

Question 347

Wnat is Malthusian theory?

Answer 347

How exponential growth of a pop can outspace growth of food supply and lead to social degradation and disorder

Question 348

what is ageism?

Answer 348

prejudice or discrimination based on age

Question 349

What is the difference between Birth/Mortality rate and fertility rate?

Answer 349

Birth and mortality rate are measure per 1000 people per year and fertility rate is measured number of children per woman during lifetime

Question 350

What is the Kinsey scale?

Answer 350

scores 6 as exclusively homosexual and 3 as bisexual

Question 351

What is class consciousness? What is false consciouness?

Answer 351

1. refers to the organization of the working class around shared goals and recognition of a need for collective political action
2. a misperception of one’s action position within society

Question 352

What is the difference between Meritocracy and plutocracy?

Answer 352

Meritocracy is a social structure in which intellectual talent and achievement are means for a person to advance up the social ladder

Plutotocracy: rule by upper class

Question 353

What is suburbanization and how does it relate to urban decay?

Answer 353

Suburbanization: greater concetration of poor individuals in urban centers/ migration pattern of the middle class to sburban communities. lower classes stay in urban centerws

Can lead to urban decay, where a previously functional protion of a city deteriorates and becomes decrepit overtime

Question 354

What is second sickness?

Answer 354

an exacerbation of health outcomes caused by social justice and social inequalities

Question 355

What is the difference between medicare and medicaid?

Answer 355

Medicare: patients in older age group

medicaid: low socioeconomic status

Question 356

What is the elaboration likelihood model?

Answer 356

there are 2 pathways to attitude change:

1. central path: more interested/spend more time examining
2. peropheral path: not interested/get distracted easily

Question 357

What is content analysis method of research?

Answer 357

focused on identifying patterns of communications by analyzing the content of text/speech (communication based data)

Question 358

What is the difference between a mediating variable and a moderating variable?

Answer 358

1. mediating: explains a counter intuitive relationship btw dep variable and ID
2. moderating variable: modulates intensity of certain relationship

Question 359

What is aversive conditioning?

Answer 359

trained by positive punishment

Question 360

What are the two structure of the midbrain and what are their purposes?

Answer 360

1. inferior and superior colliculi
2. superior is involved in visual processing
3. inferior is involved auditory

Question 361

What is the patellar reflex? Palmar reflex?

Answer 361

patellar: hit knee and kick
palmar: baby clench palm when pressure applied

Question 362

What is fantacy?

Answer 362

mental images that stimulate the person to behave to achieve the fantacy

Question 363

What does valence mean?

Answer 363

the value that a person sets on reinforcements and rewards. these values are ussualy based on an individual’s values, needs, goals, or intrinsic or extrinsic forms of motivation

Question 364

What is drive reduction theory?

Answer 364

motivation that is centered around need for homeostasis

Question 365

What are the 8 stages of Erikson’s development?

Answer 365

trust vs. mistrust (0-1), autonomy vs. shame/doubt (1-3), initiative vs. guilt (3-6), industry vs. inferiority (6-12), identity vs. role confusion (12-20), intimacy vs. isolation (20-39), generativity vs. stagnation (40-65), integrity vs. despair

Question 366

How do self-deafing or self destructive behaviors manifest?

Answer 366

They are due to the inability to handle anxiety or stress so these behaviors provide immediate relief

Question 367

What is delirium tremens?

Answer 367

acude episode of delirium (confused/reduced awareness) caused from withdrawal of alcohol

Question 368

What is General paresis?

Answer 368

paralysis caused by lage stage syphilis

Question 369

What is Korasoff’s syndrome?

Answer 369

neurological disorder from lack of B1. Onset is linked to chronic alcohol abuse or severe malnutrition

reduction in mitochondrial activity

Question 370

What are the 3 functions of mirror neurons?

Answer 370

1. empathy
2. theory of mind: to take another’s perspective
3. assessment of individuals repeated behavior

Question 371

What is Chomsky’s language aquisition theory?

Answer 371

people have innate language acquisition device

Question 372

What are the three structures that make up the brainstem?

Answer 372

pons, medulla oblogata, midbrain

(provides a connect to brain and spinal cord

Question 373

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

Answer 373

voluntary movt, emotion, learning, habitual behavior

Question 374

What stage of sleep do bed wtting and sleep walkig occur?

Answer 374

3/4

Question 375

What is the difference between beta and alpha wave?

Answer 375

Beta: low amp, high frew

alpha: high amp, high freq (are more consistent)

Question 376

How does the length of the sleep cycle change with age?

Answer 376

increases with age

Question 377

How do the duration of stages of sleep change throughout the night?

Answer 377

REM starts to predominate

Question 378

Stages of sleep?

Answer 378

1. theta wave (low amp, irregular freq), moderate eye movt, skeletal muscle activity
2. theta waves/ K complexes(single high amp, low freq)/sleep spindles (burst of high freq, moderate amp), no eye movt, little skeletal movt

3/4. delta waves(slow-wave sleep, high amp, low freq)

REM (dreams)

Question 379

What is anchoring?

Answer 379

form of bias: individual’s descisions are influenced by a reference point

Question 380

What is the social cognitive perspective?

Answer 380

based on expectations of others

Question 381

What 4 contrasts does the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory use?

Answer 381

Jung’s extraversion vs. introversion, sensing vs. intuiting, and thinking vs. feeling

AND

(judging vs. perceiving)

Question 382

What are stimulus motives?

Answer 382

innate but not necessary for survival

Question 383

What is construct validity?

Answer 383

degree to which items measure what research intends for them to measure

Question 384

What is critical validity?

Answer 384

how well a test correlates with another well establishes criterion

Question 385

what is content validity?

Answer 385

tests covers the full range of content that the researchs desire to test

Question 386

What is operationalization?

Answer 386

is the process of making a variable measurable

Question 387

What is test validity?

Answer 387

test actually succeed

Question 388

What is internal validity?

Answer 388

degress to which casual conclusions can be drawn

Question 389

What is a case control study?

Answer 389

comparison-no comparison in case studies

Question 390

What is referent power?

Answer 390

exert control by appealing to other’s desire to belong

Question 391

What does declaritive memory consist of?

Answer 391

facts, events(explicit)

Question 392

What us looking glass self?

Answer 392

we incorporate others’ perceptions of us into our perceptions of ourselves

Question 393

What is a projective personality assessment?

Answer 393

participants respond, then their responses are assessed for meaning

Question 394

What us convergence theory?

Answer 394

people coming together (functionalist perspective)

Question 395

What is differential associatation theory?

Answer 395

individuals engage in criminal choices b/c they are exposed to it

Question 396

What is the difference between Psychoanalytic and humanistic perspective?

Answer 396

1. Pyschoanalytic: urges/desires (Ex: Freud and Jury(archetypes))
2. Humanistic: strive towards happiness and self realization (Maslow and Roger’s unconditional regard)

Question 397

What are conversion disorders?

Answer 397

unexplained symptoms affecting sensory or motor function

Question 398

What does the superior colliculus control?

Answer 398

reflex arcs

Question 399

What are parasomnias?

Answer 399

odd behavior during sleep

Question 400

What is the difference between deductive and inductive reasoning?

Answer 400

1. deductive: derive conclusions from rules
2. Inductive: generalization about evidence

Question 401

What is the difference between approach-avoidant and approach-approach/avoidant-avoidant?

Answer 401

Approach-avoidant have one option either + or -

others have two options

Question 402

What is signal detection theory?

Answer 402

nonsensory factors influence perceptions (emotion, motive, expectations)

Question 403

What three structures make up hindbrain?

Answer 403

cerrebellum, medulla oblongata, reticular formation

Question 404

what two structures make up midbrain?

Answer 404

inferior (auditory) and superior (visual) colliculi

Question 405

What 5 structures make up the forebrain?

Answer 405

thalamus(sensory), hypothalmus, basal ganglia (smooth movt), limbic system (septal nuclei, amygdala, hippocampus), cerebral cortex

Question 406

What is attrition bias?

Answer 406

participants drop out of long term study

Question 407

What is most resistant to extinction?

Answer 407

variable ratio

Question 408

What is ingratiation?

Answer 408

attempt to get someone to like you in order to get the to comply

Question 409

What is expectancy-value theory?

Answer 409

amount of motivation required to achieve a goal is affected by a person’s expectations of reaching goal and how that person values reaching that goal

Question 410

What is social proof?

Answer 410

adopt behavior of others, assumptions that other’s behavior must be correct

Question 411

What is the mesolimbic pathway?

Answer 411

reward

Question 412

What is etiologyz?

Answer 412

onset

Question 413

What does the pons control?

Answer 413

movt

Question 414

What is the frontal striatal loop?

Answer 414

learning/movt/ventral legmental area (learning)

Question 415

What are types of barbitrates and benzodiozepines are there? what do they do?

Answer 415

increase Gaba and examples are alperozolm and phenobarbital

Question 416

What is the cognitive theorist idea?

Answer 416

arousal: noepinephrine and epinephrine are essential to sustain behavior

Question 417

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

Answer 417

executive, impulse control, long term planning (prefrontal), motor function (primary motor cortext), Broca’s area

Question 418

What is the function of the parietal lobe?

Answer 418

somatosensory, spatial processing, orientation, manipulation

Question 419

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

Answer 419

auditory cortex, Wernicke’s area, limbic system

Question 420

What is Allport known for?

Answer 420

trait theory: cardinal traits (people orgnanize their enture lives), central traits (defining characteristics), secondary (traits only occur sometimes)

Question 421

What is the activation synthesis hypothesis?

Answer 421

differences in neuronal activity in brainstem during waking and REM/dreams result from brain activting during REM

Question 422

What is social cog theory?

Answer 422

people learn from observing others

Question 423

What is the main point of Soloman’s Asch’s conformity exp?

Answer 423

individuals often conform to a group view, even when the group view is different from correct answer

Question 424

What is Albert Bandura?

Answer 424

children can display observational learning for aggressive behavior when watch adults exhibit behavior

Question 425

What is Zimbardo’s Stanford Prison exp?

Answer 425

effect of power and authority

Question 426

What is Milgram’s exp?

Answer 426

authority and electric shock

Question 427

What is thinning?

Answer 427

reduce freq of reward

Question 428

What is Han Eysenous main idea?

Answer 428

personality differences to be result of biological factors

Question 429

What is false consciousness?

Answer 429

idea from Marxism that refers to ideology dominating the consciousness of exploited groups and justifies and perpetuates their exploitation

Ex: workers in an electronics factory in china told by their managers if they work hard for low wages, they may be promoted. The workers see the factory managers as potential allies, not the opposition that exploits them

Question 430

What is the difference between a mob and a crowd?

Answer 430

1. crowd:a group of people in a single location that is united by a shared purpose
2. mob: form of crowd with violent intentions

Question 431

What does aligning actions mean?

Answer 431

refers to a pattern of self-presentation where one plans actions in a light that seems favorable

Question 432

What does altercasting mean?

Answer 432

managing others by projecting expectations onto them

Question 433

What is Fisherian selection?

Answer 433

mate choice and the use of flashy signals as indicators of fitness, like a male peacock’s vibrant tail

Question 434

What is Sapir-Whorf hypothesis?

Answer 434

structure of a language affects its speakers’ worldview or cognition, and people’s perceptions are relative to their spoken language

Question 435

What did Bandura find?

Answer 435

reciprocal causation= behavior, personal factors, environment influence attitudes= interaction btw these factors is reciprocal determinism

Question 436

What did Goerge Mead find?

Answer 436

One’s identity is composed of “me” and “I” (one’s identity is developed through social interaction)

me: attitudes, roles, meaning, pressure, values of society and others are organized into one’s social self

I: desires, freedom, creativity, autonomy

Question 437

What is the difference between rods and cones?

Answer 437

Cones perceive color and fine detail, while rods allow for the perception of light and dark

Question 438

What croses at optical chiasm?

Answer 438

nasal fibers

Question 439

When does narcissism happen?

Answer 439

disconnect between self-concept and reality

Question 440

Where does ego fall? Superego?ID?

Answer 440

Question 441

What is the difference between prescriptive and descriptive?

Answer 441

prescriptive is what an individual believes should occur

descriptive: what one believes as actually occuring

Question 442

What are three things working memory requires?

Answer 442

short term memory, attention, executive function of brain

Question 443

What makes up long term memory?

Answer 443

Implicit memory (nondeclarative memory): acquired skills and conditioned responses/procedural memory (cerrebellum: motor skills and specific physical actions)

explicit memory(declarative memory): memories that we must consciously recall with effort and focus. Episodic memory–> our experiences. Semantic memory–> facts and concepts that we know (hippocampus)

Question 444

What is eidetic memory?

Answer 444

photgraphic memory

Question 445

What is lone dissenter?

Answer 445

can serve to reduce groupthink

Question 446

What is the cog behavior theory?

Answer 446

houghts, emotions, body sensations, and behavior are all connected, and that what we think and do affects the way we feel

Question 447

What two cells compose of the auditory nerve?

Answer 447

bipolar and polar cells

Question 448

One reason that individuals do not seek help with hearing until hearing problems are entrenched is related to?

Answer 448

Weber’s law implies that gradual changes in a stimulus may elude detection, as they may fall below the just-noticeable difference threshold

Question 449

What is the law of diminising return?

Answer 449

The law of diminishing returns refers to lessened results gained from some action over time.

Question 450

What is Thorndike’s law of effect?

Answer 450

Thorndike’s law of effect relates to learning through conditioning.

Question 451

What is the difference between beta and alpha waves when awake?

Answer 451

Beta (high freq, low amp) waves are up and alert, alpha (high amp, high freq) are up but fatigued

Question 452

The dopamine circulating throughout the mesolimbic pathway is largely produced in which brain location?

Answer 452

Ventral tegmental area

Question 453

How long must a patient experience symptoms of depression before he or she can be diagnosed with major depressive disorder?

Answer 453

Major depressive disorder can be diagnosed once a person has at least one major depressive episode. Major depressive episodes last a minimum of 2 weeks.

Question 454

Wat is diffusion?

Answer 454

Diffusion refers to a process being transmitted across groups, in this case across SES groups. Being exposed to and potentially internalizing new learning methods via the school environment would therefore be an example of diffusion.

Question 455

What is a cognitive theory of MDD?

Answer 455

Cognitive theories of behavior focus on how faulty ways of thinking can negatively manifest as behavioral and emotional disorders.

Question 456

What is a phsychoanalytic theory of MDD?

Answer 456

a significant loss or emotional void.

Question 457

What is a developmental theory of MDD?

Answer 457

disruption of certain critical periods during early development.

Question 458

What is anhedonia?

Answer 458

Anhedonia is a difficulty feeling pleasure,

Question 459

Why would pouring water into an ear cause dizziness?

Answer 459

Endolymph flow in the semicircular canals is disturbed, reducing the ability of hair cells to accurately detect angular acceleration.

Question 460

What is the temp of physiological 0?

Answer 460

25-30 degrees C

or

85-90 degrees F

Question 461

What is the difference between distal and proximal stimuli?

Answer 461

Distal: objects/events out in the world

proximal: the objects and events that actually reach your sense

Question 462

What are the three things serotonin can regulate?

Answer 462

Sleep, apeptite, mood

Question 463

What are three personality disorders?

Answer 463

avoidant, borderline, narcisistic

Question 464

What concepts deal with systems theory?

Answer 464

concepts involving familes. The view of organizations as open social systems that must interact with their environments in order to survive

Question 465

What is the stress-diathesis model?

Answer 465

The stress-diathesis model posits that underlying biological characteristics can be activated provided there is sufficient stress. An example of a stressor could be conflictual communication.

Question 466

What is affirmative action?

Answer 466

policy of favoring members of a social group that is perceived to suffer from discrimination within a culture. Examples include setting aside certain US federal government contracts for minority-owned businesses,

Question 467

What is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter?

Answer 467

The neurotransmitter released by the inner ear hair cells is known to excite the spiral ganglion it innervates. Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter used in the brain, making it the most likely answer.

Question 468

What is collective rationalization?

Answer 468

Collective rationalization is the tendency for individuals engaging in groupthink to discount warnings and fail to re-engage their assumptions.

Question 469

What is illusion of unanimity?

Answer 469

the tendency for members of a group affected by groupthink to act and speak as if all members agree with the group’s judgment.

Question 470

What are “mind guards”?

Answer 470

the tendency of a group engaging in groupthink to appoint an unofficial “thought police” charged with preventing it from being exposed to opposing ideas and opinions.

Question 471

What causes increase negative response to stress? increase positive response to stree?

Answer 471

1. High neuroticism (a long-term tendency to be in a negative emotional state) is associated with anxiety and increased susceptibility to stress. People with high neuroticism perceive everyday situations as being very stressful and potentially harmful. They respond poorly to trivial problems, and feel frustrated or upset very quickly.
2. High extraversion may be associated with decreases in stress responses, as highly extraverted individuals may have greater access to social support networks that can help with stress management.
3. High conscientiousness is associated with increased preparedness, which can decrease response to stress.

Question 472

What is familiarity heuristics?

Answer 472

The familiarity heuristic involves inferring that past behavior will continue to the present.

Question 473

What is conformation bias?

Answer 473

Confirmation bias is the tendency to search for, interpret, favor, and recall information in a way that confirms one’s beliefs or hypotheses while giving disproportionately less attention to information that contradicts them.

Question 474

What is the Likert Scale? What are its three weaknesses?

Answer 474

Require participants to rate their agreements with statements about attitudes, feelings, beliefs

Three:

1. may avoid extreme responses/go towards mean =central tendecy bias
2. if know what researcher is interested in and may try to please researcher= acquiescence bias
3. may want to present themselves in a certain way so socially accepted= social desirability bias

Question 475

What is the stress diathesis model?

Answer 475

explains that underlying stress, when excerbated by current stressors, can lead to disturbed functioning

Question 476

What is the developmental model?

Answer 476

experiences at early age can impact a person now

Question 477

What is the pyschodynamic model?

Answer 477

relationship experiences can affect other relationships

Question 478

What is the difference between authoritarian and authoritative?

Answer 478

Authoritarian: harsh with little explanation

athoritative: having limits but not over top (good)

Question 479

What is the repertory grid test?

Answer 479

easily adapted to particular clients/using the interviewee’s own language and setting out their responses in the form of a grid

Question 480

What is the cochrane review?

Answer 480

investigate effects of intervention for prevention, treatment, rehabilitation

Question 481

What is power analysis?

Answer 481

min sample size needed to have enough power

Question 482

What is the difference between secondary and teritary kin?

Answer 482

secondary: husband/ mother in law
tertiary: son of wife’s brother

Question 483

What is the difference between primary and secondary deviance?

Answer 483

primary: devaince from a north that is considered acceptable, no long ter effects on self image
secondary: not considered acceptable and results from individual being excluded from society, behavior and self concept change after labeled deviant

Question 484

What two traits are found in both bipolar and schizophrenia?

Answer 484

delusions and anhedonia

Question 485

What is parallel processing?

Answer 485

ability to analyze and combine several pieces of information regarding color, motion, shape, at once (received through visual processing)

Question 486

What is Robbe’s cave experiment?

Answer 486

children grouped into different camps and through manipulation, were encouraged to have negative attitudes towards each other, but when collaborate, they begin to view each other favoribly

Question 487

What is Eyzenck’s contribution?

Answer 487

personality difference as a result of biologial differenes

Question 488

What was Bandura’s contribution?

Answer 488

Boboball, observational learning for aggressive behavior

Question 489

What was Albert’s contributions?

Answer 489

classsical conditioning/generalization (made boy fear furry animals)

Question 490

What did Harlow contribute to?

Answer 490

parent child attachment

Question 491

What are traits of stuck in anal stage?

Answer 491

obsessively organized/neat

Question 492

What are traits of stuck in genital stage?

Answer 492

sexual dysfunction

Question 493

What are traits of stuck in phallic stage?

Answer 493

odeipus or electra

Question 494

What are traits of stuck in latency stage?

Answer 494

repress/unfufilled with sexual experience

Question 495

Where is choroid?

Answer 495

behind retina

Question 496

If the participants in Study 1 differed in the degree to which their ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concept, which outcome would be most likely? Participants whose ethnic identity was a central part of their self-concepts would

Answer 496

be more affected by the positive stereotype regarding Asian Americans’ math ability. people whose ethnic identity is a central part of their self-concept would be more prone to the effects of stereotype threat regarding their ethnic identity. This does not mean that they would not be affected by gender stereotypes or affected by the conditions of the experiment

Question 497

What is the capacity of working memory? Who named it?

Answer 497

magic number 7 ± 2”

George Miller (1956)

Question 498

What is a mixed-methods study?

Answer 498

Bringing together quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology

Question 499

When does dreaming happen? When does body become paralyzed?

Answer 499

REM sleep

Question 500

What is the nucleus acaumbens involved with?

Answer 500

dopamine release in mesolimbic system/associated with addiction

Question 501

What can barbiturate use lead to?

Answer 501

memory loss

Question 502

What is Treisman’s attenuation?

Answer 502

salient info might jump out to us from the background (ie. cocktail party effect)

Question 503

What is sequential attention?

Answer 503

focus of our attention rapidly switches back and forth

Question 504

What is availability heuristic?

Answer 504

believe something due to immediate examples or readily obtainble from memory

Question 505

What is representative heuristic?

Answer 505

make conclusions and decisions based on average prototype

Question 506

What is belief bais?

Answer 506

accepting new information that is aligned with our current belief system and denying info that is not aligned with out current belief

Question 507

What is Howard Gardner known for?

Answer 507

7 intellengences

Question 508

What is Cattel known for?

Answer 508

fluid vs crystalized intellegence

Question 509

What is Selye’s general adaptation syndrome?

Answer 509

people’s responses to various stressors are similar

Question 510

What are the 6 requirements of bureaucracy?

Answer 510

1. hierarchy of authority
2. promotion based on achievement
3. division of labor
4. impersonality
5. written rules of conduct
6. effeciency

Question 511

What are five types of demographics?

Answer 511

1. age
2. sexual orientation
3. immigration status
4. gender
5. race

Question 512

What is the population pyramid?

Answer 512

the younger generations are at bottom

Question 513

What can globailization lead to?

Answer 513

civil unrest due to inequality from colonialism or disparities in economic development

Question 514

What is the difference between social identity threat and stereotype threat?

Answer 514

social identity threat: negative evaluations of social groups one belongs to

stereotype threat: is feeling of being at risk of confirming a negative stereotype about a group one belongs to

Question 515

What is the difference between Mead and Goffman’s theory?

Answer 515

Mead: socially acceptable projection of one’s self as the “me” and the true self as “I”

Goffman: uses actors and roles to explain social interactions (actor fits role)

Question 516

What is accomadation accoring to Paiget?

Answer 516

accommodation is the process by which new information results in a reshaping of one’s intellectual framework for viewing the world and this is reflected in the redefining of the self.

Question 517

How do semantic networks help with associative processes?

Answer 517

long term memory are organized into semantic networks where “nodes” are linked by association and causes adjacent nodes to be activated

Question 518

Is urbanization considered a demographic shift or transition?

Answer 518

demographic shift

transition refer the changes in fertility, mortality, women’s rights

Question 519

What is the main difference between fovea and periphery retina?

Answer 519

fovea has a high desnity of cones for day time visions and periphery retina has a high density of rods which are more photosensitive and can detect dim light

Question 520

What are Neuroleptics?

Answer 520

first antipsychotic drugs used to treat positive symptoms in schizophrenia, but can lead to worsening negativesymptoms

Question 521

What is negative priming?

Answer 521

an implicit memory effect in which prior exposure to a stimulus unfavorably influences the response to the same stimulus

Question 522

What is place theory?

Answer 522

one is able to hear different pitches because different sound waves trigger activity at different places along the basilar membrane

Question 523

What are the two defining traits of basal membrane?

Answer 523

basilar membrane is widest and least stiff at the apex of the cochlea, and narrowest and stiffest at the base (near the round and oval windows, closer to outter ear). High-frequency sounds localize near the base of the cochlea, while low-frequency sounds localize near the apex.

Question 524

What three structures are involved in reward pathway?

Answer 524

VTA, nucleus accumbens, prefrontal cortex

Question 525

In operant conditioning studies, how do you define the subject’s motivational state?

Answer 525

depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time

Question 526

What is flash bulb memory?

Answer 526

people claim to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event

Question 527

What type of intellengence does not change with age?

Answer 527

crystalized intellengence (semantic memory, general info)

Question 528

Why is continious reinforcement the best for the beginning of acquisition of operant conditioning?

Answer 528

schedule unambiguoisly informs the subject which behavior is correct

Question 529

What is the cognitive component of attitudes?

Answer 529

beliefs and ideas

Question 530

Are people more productive in groups or alone? Why?

Answer 530

Alone because of social loafing. People are more productive alone

Question 531

What is escape learning?

Answer 531

terminate unpleasant stimulus

Question 532

What is the first phase of conditioning?

Answer 532

acquisition: take a neutral stimulus and associate it with an unconditioned stimulus. This neutral stimulus will become the conditioned stimulus

Question 533

What is the hawthorne effect?

Answer 533

changes in research participants as a result of awareness of being observed

Question 534

What is the thomas theorem? What are 2 examples of it?

Answer 534

1. individuals believe something is real, then it is real in its consequences. interpretation causes actions/consequences
2. stereotype threat, self-fufilling prophecy

Question 535

What is Ullusion of invulnerability? What does it explain?

Answer 535

1. members encourage risks, ignore possible pitfalls, too optomistic
2. group think

Question 536

What is Collective rationalization? What does it explain?

Answer 536

1. members ignore expressed concerns about group approved ideas
2. group think

Question 537

What is Illusion of morality? What does it explain?

Answer 537

1. members believe ideas produced by the group are morally and ethically correct, disregarding evidence 2. groupthink

Question 538

What us Excessive stereotyping? When does it happen?

Answer 538

1. members construct stereotypes of those with outside opinions
2. groupthink

Question 539

What is pressure for conformity? When does it occur?

Answer 539

1. members feel pressured not to express opinions that disagree with group
2. groupthink

Question 540

What is Self-censorship? When does it occur?

Answer 540

1. members withhold ideas and opinions that disagree with the group
2. groupthink

Question 541

What is illusion of unanimity? When does it occur?

Answer 541

1. members believe the decisions and judgment of the group to be without disagreement, even if it does exist
2. groupthink

Question 542

What are informal and formal sanctions?

Answer 542

rewards and punishments

Question 543

What is cognitive dissonance?

Answer 543

people tend to change their attitudes to match their behavior, rather than change behavior

Question 544

What happens to external validity when you increase interal validity?

Answer 544

decrease external bc exp becomes too controlled

Question 545

What might lead to bias search for evidence and/or bias interpretation of evidence?

Answer 545

conformation bias: tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs

Question 546

What is binet’s idea of mental age?

Answer 546

measure of intelligence based on average abilities of children of a certain age

Question 547

What is Galton known for?

Answer 547

hereditary genius

Question 548

What is learning-performance theory?

Answer 548

learning something without actually performing behavior

Question 549

What are the differences btw Vygotsyky, Chomsky, and Skinner’s view on language development?

Answer 549

Vygotsky: language was determines by interaction of biological and social influences

Chomsky: animals do not have capacity to create language, humans have LAD

Skinner: language is learned through reinforcement and approximation

Question 550

What are the 4 aspects of McDonaldization?

Answer 550

efficiency, calculability, uniformity and control

Question 551

What did Albert Bandura say about attitude?

Answer 551

Behavior, environment, and personal factors influence attitude (sociocognitive)

Question 552

What are you more likely to change in cognitive dissonance?

Answer 552

attitudes to match actions

Question 553

What is rapid-cycling bipolar disorder

Answer 553

4 or more manic or depressive episodes in one year

Question 554

What is abasia?

Answer 554

inability to walk

Question 555

What is parapraxis?

Answer 555

slip of the tongue, unintended actions

Question 556

What is paredoilia?

Answer 556

see image and see something signifcant

Question 557

What experiment was harlow known for?

Answer 557

wire mother

Question 558

What is the function of the superior olive?

Answer 558

localize sound

Question 559

What is the function of the inferior colliculus?

Answer 559

coordinate head rotation vith visual focus

Question 560

What is the social interactionist theory?

Answer 560

development of brain + child’s ability to speak are correlated

Question 561

What is Vygostsky state?

Answer 561

language is determines by interaction of biological and social facts

Question 562

What are the two components of self-concept?

Answer 562

categorical: he/she is subject to a perception of others/ existential: can interact with world

Question 563

What is motion parallax?

Answer 563

objects moving at a constant speed across the frame will appear to move a greater amount if they are closer to an observer

Question 564

What is vestibular sense?

Answer 564

sense of balance and spatial orientation for the purpose of coordinating movement with balance