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Behavioral science Flashcards

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1
Q

Aspects evaluated by the APGAR score

A
  • Appearance
  • Pulse
  • Grimace
  • Activity
  • Respiration
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2
Q

Describe the points evaluated in the appearance aspect of the APGAR score

A
  • 0 points - pale/blue
  • 1 point - pale with blue extremities
  • 2 points - pink
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3
Q

Describe the points evaluated in the pulse aspect of the APGAR score

A
  • 0 points - no pulse
  • 1 point - less than a 100 bpm
  • 2 points - more than a 100 bpm
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4
Q

Describe the points evaluated in the grimace aspect of the APGAR score

A
  • 0 points - no response
  • 1 point - grimaces or weak cry
  • 2 points - cries and pulls away
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5
Q

Describe the points evaluated in the activity aspect of the APGAR score

A
  • 0 points - no movements
  • 1 point - arms and legs flexed
  • 2 points - active movement
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6
Q

Describe the points evaluated in the respiration aspect of the APGAR score

A
  • 0 points - no breathing
  • 1 point - slow and irregular
  • 2 points - strong cry
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7
Q

When do primitive reflexes disappear

A
  • Moro by 3 months
  • Rooting by 4 months
  • Palmar by 6 months
  • Babinski by 12 months
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8
Q

Describe the postural developmental milestones of the infant (0-12 months)

A
  • Lifts head up prone by 1 month
  • Rolls and sits by 6 months
  • Crawls by 8 months
  • Stands by 10 months
  • Walks by 12 months
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9
Q

Describe the social developmental milestones of the infant (0-12 months)

A
  • Social smile by 2 months
  • Stranger anxiety by 6 months
  • Separation anxiety by 9 months
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10
Q

When does object permanence appear

A

By 9 months

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11
Q

At what age can a toddler (1-3 years) climb stairs

A

18 months

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12
Q

At what age can a toddler (1-3 years) run

A

18 months

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13
Q

How many cubes can be stacked by a toddler (1-3 years)

A

Depends on age, formula is:

Number of cubes stacked = age (yrs) x 3

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14
Q

Describe the verbal developmental milestones of a toddler (1-3 years)

A
  • Says 200 words by age 2 (2 zeros) and 2-word sentences

* Follows 2-steps commands

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15
Q

At what age does a toddler (1-3 years) use parallel play

A

At 2 to 3 years

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16
Q

At what age is core gender identity formed

A

At 3 years

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17
Q

At what age can a child ride a tricycle

A

At 3 years (3 wheels at 3 years)

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18
Q

At what age can a child hop on one foot

A

At 4 years

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19
Q

Describe the drawing developmental milestones of a preeschool child (3-5 years)

A
  • Copies line or circle (by 3 years)

* Stick figure (by 4 years)

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20
Q

At what age does a child use cooperative play

A

Starts at 3 years

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21
Q

At what age does a child start having imaginary friends

A

At 4 years

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22
Q

Describe the verbal developmental milestones of a preschool child (3-5 years)

A
  • Says 1000 words by age 3 (3 zeros)
  • Uses complete sentences and prepositions (by age 4)
  • Can tell detailed stories (by age 4)
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23
Q

At what age can a child copy a triangle

A

6 years

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24
Q

At what age can a child copy a diamond

A

7 years

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25
Q

Describe the Tanner stages of development of the female breast

A
  • Stage 1: preadolescent (flat)
  • Stage 2: breast bud (telarche)
  • Stage 3: areolar diameter enlarges
  • Stage 4: secondary mound, separation
  • Stage 5: mature female
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26
Q

Average age of onset of telarche

A

10 to 11.5 years

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27
Q

Describe the Tanner stages of development for pubic hair

A
  • Stage 1: none
  • Stage 2: sparse, long straight
  • Stage 3: darker, curling, increased amount
  • Stage 4: coarse, curly, adult type
  • Stage 5: extends to thighs
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28
Q

Average age of onset of pubarche

A

10 to 11.5 years

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29
Q

Describe the Tanner stages fo development for male genitalia

A
  • Stage 1: childhood size
  • Stage 2: enlargement of scrotum and testes
  • Stage 3: penis grows in length
  • Stage 4: penis grows in length and width
  • Stage 5: adult shape
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30
Q

Characteristic sexual changes in elderly men

A
  • Longer refractory period

* Slower erection

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31
Q

Duration of grief

A

Can last up to 2 months (usually less tan 6)

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32
Q

When can grief be considered pathologic (needs treatment)

A
  • Lasts more than 2 months
  • Excessively strong
  • Delayed/inhibited/denied
  • When it meets criteria for a major depressive episode
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33
Q

Hypothalamic nucleus that drives the circadian rhythm

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus

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34
Q

Gland that secretes melatonin

A

Pineal gland

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35
Q

The pineal gland releases melatonin in response to which neurotransmitter

A

Norepinephrine

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36
Q

Name the 5 stages of grief according to the Kübler-Ross model

A
  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • Depression
  • Acceptance
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37
Q

Type of EEG waveform that appears with eyes open

A

Beta (highest frequency, lowest amplitude)

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38
Q

Type of EEG waveform that appears with eyes closed (but awake)

A

Alpha (8-12 Hz)

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39
Q

Describe what happens in the N1 stage of non-REM sleep and its EEG waveform

A
  • Light sleep

* Theta waves (4-7 Hz)

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40
Q

Describe what happens in the N2 stage of non-REM sleep and its EEG waveform

A
  • Deeper sleep
  • Bruxism occurs
  • Sleep spindles and K complexes (12-14 Hz)
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41
Q

Describe what happens in the N3 stage of non-REM sleep and its EEG waveform

A
  • Deepest non-REM sleep
  • Sleepwalking, night terrors, and bedwetting occurs
  • Delta waves (lowest frequency, highest amplitude, less than 4 Hz)
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42
Q

Physiologic changes that occur during REM sleep

A
  • Loss of motor tone
  • Increased brain oxygen use
  • Variable pulse and blood pressure
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43
Q

Main neurotransmitter of REM sleep

A

Acetylcholine

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44
Q

EEG waveform observed in REM sleep

A

Beta waves

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45
Q

Sleep stage characterized by dreaming, nightmares, and penile/clitoral tumescence

A

REM sleep

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46
Q

Changes in REM sleep seen in depression

A
  • Decreased REM latency and slow wave sleep
  • Increased REM in early sleep cycle and total REM sleep
  • Continual nighttime awakening
  • Early morning awakening
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47
Q

How often does REM sleep occurs through the night

A

Every 90 minutes

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48
Q

Main characteristic of night terrors

A

Extreme physiologic arousal (eg, screaming in the middle of the night)

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49
Q

Define projection (ego defense)

A

Attributing an unacceptable inner feeling to others

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50
Q

Define denial (ego defense)

A

Avoiding the awareness of a painful reality (saying it is not so)

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51
Q

Define splitting (ego defense) and to what type of personality it is related

A

When the world is composed of polar opposites

*Seen in borderline personality disorder

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52
Q

Define repression (ego defense)

A

Involuntarily forgetting (non retrievable)

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53
Q

Define somatization (ego defense)

A

Physical symptoms for psycological reasons

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54
Q

Define fixation (ego defense)

A

Partially remaining at a more childish level of development

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55
Q

Define identification (ego defense)

A

Unconciously assuming characteristics, qualities, or traits of another person or group (usually someone mor powerful)

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56
Q

Define displacement (ego defense)

A

Redirection of emotions or impulses to a neutral person or object

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57
Q

Define blocking (ego defense)

A

Transient inability to remember

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58
Q

Define isolation of affect (ego defense)

A

Separating feeling from ideas or events

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59
Q

Define intellectualization (ego defense)

A

Using facts and logic to emotionally distance onseself from a stressful situation

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60
Q

Define acting out (ego defense)

A

Expressing unacceptable feelings and thoughts thgough actions

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61
Q

Define rationalization (ego defense)

A

Proclaiming logical reasons for actions actually performed for other reasons (to avoid self-blame)

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62
Q

Define reaction formation (ego defense)

A

An unacceptable idea or feeling is transformed into its opposite

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63
Q

Define passive-aggressive (ego defense)

A

Demonstrating hostile feelings in a nonconfrontational manner; showing indirect opposition

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64
Q

Define dissociation (ego defense)

A

Temporarily separating self from one’s experience

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65
Q

Define idealization (ego defense)

A

Expressing extremely positive thoughts of self and other while ignoring negative thoughts

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66
Q

Define regression (ego defense)

A

Involuntarily going back to a more childish level of development

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67
Q

Name the mature ego defenses

A
  • Sublimation
  • Altruism
  • Suppression
  • Humor
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68
Q

Define sublimation (ego defense)

A

Moving an unacceptable impulse into an aceptable channel

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69
Q

Define suppression (ego defense)

A

Intentionally withholding an idea or feeling from conscious awareness, temporary

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70
Q

Brain region damaged in anterograde amnesia

A

Bilateral temporal lobes, including the hippocampus

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71
Q

Define dissociative amnesia

A

Inability to recall important personal information subsequent to CNS injury or stress, usually accompanied by dissociative fugue

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72
Q

Define dissociative fugue

A

Abrupt travel or wandering during a period of dissociative amnesia, associated with traumatic circumstances

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73
Q

Definition of delirium

A

“Waxing and waning” level of consciousness with acute onset; rapid decrease in attention span and level of arousal

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74
Q

Specific medications that can cause delirium

A

Medications with anticholinergic activity

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75
Q

Types of delirium in which benzodiazepines can be used

A
  • Alcohol

* BZD withdrawal

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76
Q

Common etiology of irreversible dementia

A

Neurodegenerative disease

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77
Q

Examples of reversible causes of dementia

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Depression
  • Vitamin deficiency (B1, 3, 12)
  • Normal pressure hydrocephalus
  • Neurosyphilis
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78
Q

Neurotransmitter changes in Alzheimer disease

A

Low acetylcholine

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79
Q

Neurotransmitter changes in anxiety

A
  • Increased NE

* Decrease GABA and serotonin

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80
Q

Neurotransmitter changes in depression

A

*Decreased NE, serotonin, and dopamine

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81
Q

Neurotransmitter changes in Huntington disease

A
  • Increased dopamine

* Decreased GABA and acetylcholine

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82
Q

Neurotransmitter changes in Parkinson disease

A
  • Decreased dopamine

* Increased serotonin and acetylcholine

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83
Q

Neurotransmitter changes in schizophrenia

A

Increased dopamine

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84
Q

Signs of child physical abuse

A
  • Healed fractures on x-ray
  • Bruises on unlikely áreas
  • Burns (cigarette)
  • Retinal hemorrhage
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85
Q

Most common person to commit child physical abuse

A

Biological mother

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86
Q

Signs of child sexual abuse

A
  • Genital, anal, or oral trauma
  • STIs
  • UTIs
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87
Q

Peak incidence of child sexual abuse

A

9 to 12 years old

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88
Q

Signs and symptoms of ADHD

A
  • Hyperactivity, impulsivity, and/or inattention in multiple settings
  • Normal intelligence with difficulties in school
  • Onset before age 12
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89
Q

Drug of choice for autism with irritability/aggressive behavior

A

Risperidone

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90
Q

Drug of choice for autism with depression/anxiety

A

SSRI (eg, fluoxetine)

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91
Q

Drug of choice for autism with repetitive behaviors

A

SSRI (eg, fluoxetine or fluvoxamine)

92
Q

Most important characteristics of Asperger disease

A
  • Repetitive behavior
  • Normal intelligence
  • All-absorbing interests
  • Problems developing social relationships
93
Q

Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia

A

2 of the following, and at least 1 should include 1-3:

  1. Delusions
  2. Hallucinations (auditory are most common)
  3. Disorganized speech
  4. Disorganized or catatonic behavior
  5. Negative symptoms

*Symptoms should last for more than 6 months

94
Q

Examples of negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A
  • Affective flattening
  • Avolition
  • Anhedonia
  • Asociality
  • Alogia
95
Q

Period of time with the criteria for schizophrenia to be diagnosed with brief psychotic disorder

A

Less than 1 month

96
Q

Period of time with the criteria for schizophrenia to be diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder

A

From 1 month to 6 months

97
Q

Diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder

A
  • Meets criteria for schizophrenia
  • Major mood disorder (major depressive or bipolar)
  • More than 2 weeks of hallucinations or delusions without major mood episodes
98
Q

Name the high potency typical antipsychotics and their characteristic side effect

A

“TRy to FLy High”

  • Haloperidol, trifluoperazine, fluphenazine
  • Cause more extrapiramidal sypmtoms (EPS) and less nonspecific side effects
99
Q

Name the low potency typical antypsichotics and ther characteristic side effects

A

“CHeating THIeves are low”

  • Chlorpromazine and thioridazine
  • Cause more nonspecific side effects and less extrapiramidal sypmtoms (EPS)
100
Q

Mechanism of action of typical antipsychotics

A

Selective antagonism of D2 receptors

101
Q

Name the nonspecific side effects of typical antipsychotics (caused by alpha and muscarinic blockade)

A
  • Alpha blockade: orthostatic hypotension and male sexual dysfunction
  • Muscarinic blockade: constipation, dry mouth, urinary retention, visual problems
  • Sedation
102
Q

Name the specific side effects of typical antipsychotics (caused by D2 blockade)

A
  • Hyperprolactinemia
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
  • Extrapyramidal sypmtoms (EPS)
103
Q

Name the extrapiramidal sypmtoms

A
  • Acute dystonia
  • Akathisia
  • Parkinsonism
  • Tardive dyskinesia
104
Q

How long do a patient needs to be exposed to neuroleptics to develop tardive dyskinesia

A

At least 3 months

105
Q

Signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia

A

Involuntary repetitive movements of lips, face, tongue, and limbs

106
Q

Mechanism of action of atypical antipsychotics

A

Blockage of 5HT2 and weaker block of D2

  • Clozapine blocks D4 instead of D2
  • Aripiprazole is D2 partial agonist
107
Q

Characteristic side effect of chlorpromazine

A

Corneal deposits

108
Q

Characteristic side effect of thioridazine

A

Retinal deposits

109
Q

Drug of choice in a patient with treatment resistant schizophrenia

A

Clozapine

110
Q

Characteristic side effect of olanzapine

A

Obesity

111
Q

Cardiac side effect of atypical antipsychotics

A

Prolongation of QT interval

112
Q

Atypical antipsychotics with increased risk of causing metabolic syndrome

A

All those that end in “-pine”

113
Q

Characteristics of cyclothymic disorder

A
  • Persisten depressive disorder with hypomania

* Chronic (at least 2 years)

114
Q

Definition of bipolar type 1 disorder

A

At least 1 manic episode +/- a hypomanic or depressive episode

115
Q

Definition of bipolar type 2 disorder

A

Presence of a hypomanic and a depressive episode

116
Q

Use of what type of drugs can precipitate mania

A

Antidepressants (SSRIs)

117
Q

Treatment of bipolar disorders

A
  • Mood stabilizers (eg, lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine)
  • Atypical antipsychotics
118
Q

Diagnostic criteria for a manic episode

A

Requires hospitalization or at least 3 of the following, lasting at least 1 week (“DIG FAST”):

  • Distractibility
  • Irresponsibility
  • Grandiosity
  • Flight of ideas
  • increased in goal-directed Activity or psychomotor Agitation
  • decreased need for Sleep
  • Talkativeness or pressured speech
119
Q

Definition of a hypomanic episode

A
  • Same symptoms as manic episode but not as severe to cause impairment or to necessitate hospitalization
  • Lasts at least 4 days
120
Q

Mechanism of action of lithium

A

Possible inhibition of phosphoinositol cascade, thereby altering neuronal sodium transport

121
Q

Lithium side effects

A

“LiTHIUM”

  • Low Thyroid (hypothyroidism with goiter)
  • Heart (Ebstein anomaly)
  • Insipidus (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus)
  • Unwanted Movements (tremor)
122
Q

Treatment for lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Amiloride

123
Q

Definition of persistent depressive disorder

A

Mild form of depression lasting at least 2 years

124
Q

Treatment of seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

A

Bright light therapy (SSRIs when unresponsive)

125
Q

Diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder

A

5 of the following must be present for at least 2 weeks, with 1 being anhedonia (“SIG E CAPS”)

  • Anhedonia or depresed mood
  • Sleep disturbance (insomnia or hypersomnia)
  • loss of Interest
  • Guilt or feeling of worthlessness
  • Energy loss and fatigue
  • Concentration problems
  • Appetite/weight changes
  • Psychomotor retardation or agitation
  • Suicidal ideations
126
Q

Mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

A

Block NE and serotonin reuptake

127
Q

Signs and symptoms of TCA overdose/toxicity

A

“Tri-C’s”

  • Convulsions
  • Coma
  • Cardiotoxicity
128
Q

Name the monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)

A

“MAO Takes Pride In Shanghai”

  • Tranylcypromine
  • Phenelzine
  • Isocarboxazid
  • Selegiline (selective MAO-B inhibitor)
129
Q

Clinical uses of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)

A
  • Atypical depression
  • Treatment-resistant depression
  • Anxiety
  • Parkinson disease
130
Q

Most important side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)

A
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Weight gain
  • Hypertensive crisis if combined with ingestión of tyramine containing foods
  • Serotonin syndrome if combined with SSRIs
131
Q

How long does it take for SSRIs to have an effect

A

4 to 8 weeks

132
Q

Most important adverse effects of SSRIs

A
  • GI distress
  • SIADH
  • Sexual dysfunction (anorgasmia and decreased libido)
133
Q

SNRI indicated for the treatment of fibromyalgia and peripheral neuropathy

A

Duloxetine

134
Q

Indications of trazodone

A

Insomnia and depression

135
Q

Mechanism of action of trazodone

A
  • Blocks 5-HT2
  • Blocks alpha1 adrenergic
  • Blocks H1 receptors
136
Q

Side effects of trazodone

A

“traZZZoBONE”

  • Sedation
  • Priapism
137
Q

Indications of bupropion

A

Smoking cessation and depression

138
Q

Mechanism of action of bupropion

A

Inhibits reuptake of NE and dopamine

139
Q

Patients candidates for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A
  • Treatment-refractory depression
  • Depression with psychotic symptoms
  • Acute suicidality
  • Pregnant patients
140
Q

Treatment of generalized anxiety disorder

A
  • First line: CBT, SSRI, SNRI

* Second line: buspirone, TCA, BZD

141
Q

Short-acting benzodiazepines (BZD) with high addictive potential

A

“ATOM”

  • Alprazolam
  • Triazolam
  • Oxazepam
  • Midazolam
142
Q

Benzodiazepines (BZD) that are not metabolized by the liver

A

“Outside The Liver”

  • Oxazepam
  • Temazepam
  • Lorazepam

*These drugs are preferred for the elderly and those with decreased hepatic function

143
Q

Benzodiazepine that is given in alcohol detoxification

A

Chlordiazepoxide

144
Q

Advantages of buspirone in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) treatment

A
  • Does not cause sedation, addiction, or tolerance

* Does not interact with alcohol

145
Q

How long does it take for buspirone to take effect

A

1 to 2 weeks

146
Q

Mechanism of action of buspirone

A

Stimulates 5HT1a receptors

147
Q

Diagnostic criteria for a panic disorder

A

Panic attack followed by 1 month or more of 1 or more of the following:

  • Persisten concern of additional attacks
  • Worrying about consequences of attack
  • Behavioral change related to attacks
148
Q

Examples of panicogens

A
  • CO2
  • Yohimbine
  • Sodium
  • Hyperventilation
  • Lactate
  • Epinephrine
149
Q

Treatment of panic disorder

A
  • First line acute: CBT +/- alprazolam or clonazepam
  • First line chronic: SSRI, SNRI (venlafaxine)
  • Second line chronic: TCAs
150
Q

Definition of social anxiety disorder

A

Exagerated fear of embarrassment in social situations (eg, public speaking or using public restrooms)

151
Q

Beta blocker used in performance anxiety

A

Propranolol

152
Q

Definition of obsessive-compulsive disorders

A

Recurrent intrusive thoughts, feelings, or sensantions (obsessions) that cause severe distress; relieved in part by the performance of repetitive actions (compulsions)

153
Q

Treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorders

A

CBT +/- SSRI or clomipramine

154
Q

Definition of body dysmorphic disorder

A

Preoccupation with minor or imagined defect in appearance that causes significant emotional distress or impaired functioning

155
Q

Important characteristic of body dysmorphic disorder

A

Patients repeatedly seek cosmetic treatment

156
Q

Definition of somatic symptom disorder

A

Variety of bodily complaints lasting for months to years associated with excessive, persistent thoughts and anxiety about symptoms

157
Q

Treatment of somatic symptom disorder

A

Regular office visits with the same physician in combination with psychotherapy

158
Q

Definition of conversion disorder (functional neurologic symptom disorder)

A

Loss of sensory or motor function often following an acute stressor

159
Q

Name the cluster A personality disorders

A

“Weird” “Accusatory, Aloof, Awkward”

  • Paranoid
  • Schizoid
  • Schizotypal
160
Q

Name the cluster B personality disorders

A

“Wild” “Bad, Borderline, flamBoyant, must be the Best”

  • Antisocial
  • Borderline
  • Histrionic
  • Narcissistic
161
Q

Name the cluster C personality disorders

A

“Worried” “Cowardly, obsessive-Compulsive, Clingy”

  • Avoidant
  • Obsessive-compulsive
  • Dependent
162
Q

Main difference between schizoid and avoidant personality disorders

A

Schizoids voluntarily withdraw from society, while avoidants desire relationships but are socially inhibited

163
Q

Requirements for the diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder

A
  • Must be 18 years or older

* Must have a history of conduct disorder before age 15

164
Q

Main characteristics of anorexia nervosa

A
  • BMI less than 18.5 kg/m2

* Intense fear of gaining weight

165
Q

First line treatment of anorexia nervosa

A

Psychotherapy and nutritional rehabilitation

166
Q

Main characteristics of bulimia nervosa

A
  • Normal body weight

* Binge eating with recurrent inappropiate compensatory behavior ocurring weekly for at least 3 months

167
Q

First line treatment of binge eating disorder

A

SSRIs, lisdexamfetamine, topiramate

168
Q

Drugs that can decrease vaginal lubrication and lead to female sexual arousal disorders

A
  • Antihistamines

* Anticholinergics

169
Q

Drug used to help prevent alcoholism relapse

A

Acomprosate

170
Q

Drug used to prevent alcohol craving in alcoholism

A

Naltrexone

171
Q

Signs and symptoms of opioid withdrawal

A
  • Goose bumps
  • Diarrhea
  • Rhinorrhea
  • Lacrimation
  • Sweating
  • Yawning
  • Muscle jerks
172
Q

Characteristics of maternal (postpartum) blues

A
  • Starts 2 to 3 days after delivery
  • Depressed affect
  • Tearfulness
  • Fatigue
  • Resolves within 10 days
173
Q

Treatment of maternal (postpartum) blues

A

Supportive

174
Q

Characteristics of postpartum depression

A
  • Lasts for more than 2 weeks
  • Depressed affect
  • Anxiety
  • Poor concentration
175
Q

Treatment of postpartum depression

A

CBT and SSRIs are first line

176
Q

Characteristics of postpartum psychosis

A
  • Mood-congruent delusions
  • Hallucinations
  • Thgoughts of harmins the baby or self
177
Q

Treatment of postpartum psychosis

A

Hospitalization and atypical antipsychotics

178
Q

Most important electrolyte abnormality in refeeding syndrome

A

Hypophosphatemia

179
Q

Most common acid-base disturbance seen in bulima nervosa

A

Metabolic alkalosis (with low chloride and potassium)

180
Q

Pathogenesis of narcolepsy

A

Decreased hypocretin (orexin) production in lateral hypothalamus

181
Q

Cataplexy (the los of all muscle tone following strong emotional stimulus) is specific of what pathology

A

Narcolepsy

182
Q

Treatment for narcolepsy

A
  • Daytime stimulants (amphetamine and modafinil)

* Nighttime sodium oxybate (GHB)

183
Q

Most common initial symptom of alcohol withdrawal

A

Tremor

184
Q

Type of hallucinations seen in cocaine intoxications

A

Tactile

185
Q

Age at which the infant follows object to midline

A

4 weeks

186
Q

Age at which the infant laughs aloud

A

4 months

187
Q

Age at which parents can see a hand preference in the child

A

18 months

188
Q

Age at which a child can walk backwards and unscrew a jar lid

A

24 months

189
Q

At what age can a child stand on tiptoes

A

30 months

190
Q

At what age can a child identify body parts by pointing

A

24 months

191
Q

At what age is a child fully toilet trained

A

3 years

192
Q

At what age can a child copy a cross

A

4 years

193
Q

At what age can a child copy a rectangle

A

4.5 years

194
Q

At what age can a child copy a square

A

5 years

195
Q

At what age does the child enter the Oedipal phase

A

5 years

196
Q

Classic tetrad of narcolepsy

A
  • Excessive daytime sleepiness
  • Hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations
  • Sleep paralysis
  • Cataplexy
197
Q

Definition of sleep apnea

A

Repetitive apneas (more than 5 times per hour) with abscence of respiratory effort for extended periods during sleep

198
Q

Risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome

A

Maternal smoking

199
Q

Age at which enuresis should start being treated

A

7 years old

200
Q

Treatment of enuresis

A
  • Acute: imipramine

* Chronic: desmopressing or waking the child to urinate

201
Q

Drug used as second-line treatment of schizophrenia in case of failure with atypical antipsychotics and IM for acute psychotic episodes

A

Haloperidol

202
Q

Drug used in depression in anorexia nervosa

A

Mirtazapine

203
Q

Contraindication of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A

Increased intracranial pressure

204
Q

BZD receptor that mediates sedation

A

BZ1

205
Q

BZD receptor that mediates antianxiety and impaired cognitive functions

A

BZ2

206
Q

Defense mechanism associated with the paranoid personality disorder

A

Projection

207
Q

Personality disorders that have an increased incidence in families with history of schizophrenia

A
  • Paranoid

* Schizoid

208
Q

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor partial agonist that is used for smoking cessation

A

Varenicline

209
Q

Enzyme that increases with alcohol, and therefore, is a very sensitive indicator of its use

A

Serum gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)

*First index to react

210
Q

Drugs that, as alcohol, can increase levels of gamma-glutamyltransferase

A

Barbiturates and phenytoin

211
Q

Biomarker that becomes positive in urine almost immediately after alcohol intake

A

Ethyl glucuronide (EtG)

212
Q

Aminotransferase that is the most elevated in alcoholic hepatitis

A

AST (value is usually twice ALT)

213
Q

Drugs associated with thrombocytopenia

A
  • Valproic acid
  • Furosemide
  • Gold salts
  • NSAIDs
  • Quinidine
  • Quinine
  • Sulfonamides
214
Q

Side effects of valproic acid

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Pancreatitis
  • Neural tube defects
  • Alopecia
  • Weight gain
  • Tremor
215
Q

Age at which “no” is a favorite word

A

2 years

216
Q

Sleep changes in the elderly

A
  • Decreased REM sleep
  • Decreased slow-wave sleep
  • Increased sleep latency
  • Increased awakenings
217
Q

Age group with the highest suicide rate in the US

A

65 to 74

218
Q

Neurotransmitter that reduces REM sleep

A

Norepinephrine

219
Q

Alcohol and other depresseants affect which part of the sleep cycle

A

They decrease REM and delta wave sleep

220
Q

Number 1 cause of infant mortality in the US

A
  • Birth defects cause by low folic acid intake

* Alcohol, tobacco, and drug use

221
Q

Number 2 cause of infant mortality in the US

A

Preterm births and resultant low birth weight

222
Q

Number 3 cause of infant mortality in the US

A

Suddend infant death syndrome

223
Q

Type of drugs that can cause anterograde amnesia (usually administered before short invasive procedures)

A

Benzodiazepines

224
Q

Mode of inheritance of Rett’s syndrome

A

X linked dominant

225
Q

Alcohol withdrawal and cocaine abuse are associated with which type of hallucinations

A

Tactile hallucinations

Behavioral Science (1 decks)

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