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PNP study cards > Behavioral & Developmental Pediatrics > Flashcards

Behavioral & Developmental Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

When do primitive reflexes (moro reflex) appear? When do they disappear?

A

Present at birth and usually disappear between 3 and 6 months of age

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2
Q

What does it mean when an infant shows stronger and more-sustained primitive reflexes?

A

Central nervous system injury

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3
Q

Infants with CNS damage may have delayed development of ________ reactions

A

postural

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4
Q

Gross Motor Milestones

  • Birth:
  • 2 months:
  • 4 months:
A
  • Birth: Turns head to side
  • 2 months: Lifts head when lying prone, head lag when pulled from supine position
  • 4 months: Rolls over, no head lag, pushes chest up with arms
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5
Q

Gross Motor Milestones

  • 6 months:
  • 9 months:
  • 12 months:
A
  • 6 months: Sits alone, leads with head when pulled from supine position
  • 9 months: Pulls to stand, cruises
  • 12 months: Walks
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6
Q

An infant’s fine motor skills progress from control over ______ muscles to control over ______ muscles

A

Proximal; Distal

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7
Q

What are the primitive reflexes?

A
  • Moro reflex: symmetric abduction and extension of arms with trunk extension
  • Hand grasp: reflex grasp of any object placed in palm
  • Atonic neck reflex: If head is turned to one side, arms and legs extend on same side and flex on the opposite
  • Rooting reflex: turning of head toward same side as stimulus when corner of infant’s mouth is stimulated
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8
Q

What are the postural reactions, and when do they start?

A
  • Head righting: ability to keep head vertical despite body being tilted (4-6 months)
  • Parachute: Outstretched arms and legs when body is abruptly moved head first in downward direction (8-9 months)
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9
Q

What are the fine motor milestones?

  • Birth:
  • 3-4 months:
  • 4-5 months:
A
  • Birth: Keeps hands tightly fisted
  • 3-4 months: Brings hands together to midline and then to mouth
  • 4-5 months: Reaches for objects
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10
Q

Fine motor milestones:

  • 6-7 months:
  • 9 months:
  • 12 months:
A
  • 6-7 months: Rakes object with whole hand; transfers object from hand to hand
  • 9 months: Uses immature pincer (ability to hold small object between thumb and index finger)
    12 months: Uses mature pincer (between thumb and tip of index finger)
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11
Q

What is the earliest sign of neuromotor problems in development?

A

Persistent fisting beyond 3 months of age

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12
Q

What red flags in motor development indicate spasticity?

A

Early rolling over, early pulling to a stand instead of sitting, and persistent toe walking

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13
Q

Early hand dominance (before 18 months of age) may be a sign of…

A

weakness in the opposite upper extremity associated with hemiparesis

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14
Q

Delays in ______ development are more common than delays in other domains

A

language

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15
Q

When is the window of opportunity for optimal language acquisition?

A

first 2 years of life

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16
Q

What is the difference between language and speech?

A
  • Language: refers to the ability to communicate with symbols
  • Speech: The vocal expression of language
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17
Q

At what age are cooing and musical sounds expected?

A

2-3 months

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18
Q

At what age is there babbling? When are words first used?

A

6 months: babbling

12 months: 1-3 words (mama, dada)

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19
Q

By 18 months, a child should know __ - __ words

By 3 years, more than __% of the child’s speech should be intelligible

A

By 18 months, a child should know 20-50 words

By 3 years, more than 75% of the child’s speech should be intelligible

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20
Q

What is the prespeech period?

A

0-10 months: expressive language consists of musical like vowel sounds (cooing) and adding consonants to the vowel sounds; receptive language is characterized by increasing ability to localize sounds

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21
Q

What is the naming period?

A

10-18 months: Characterized by the infant’s understanding that people have names and objects have labels

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22
Q

What is the word combination period?

A

18-24 months: Early word combinations are “telegraphic” (no prepositions, pronouns, articles)

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23
Q

Intellecutal development depends on what three things?

A
  1. Attention
  2. Information processing
  3. Memory
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24
Q

What is the single best indicator of intellectual potential?

A

Language

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25
Q

What are the 5 stages of cognitive development? When does each start?

A
  1. Sensorimotor period - Physical manipulation of objects (birth to 2 years)
  2. Stage of functional play (begins at about 1 year of age)
  3. Stage of imaginitve play (24-30 months)
  4. Concrete thinking (preschool and early elementary years)
  5. Abstract thinking (Adolescent years)
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26
Q

Object permanence develops at about _ months

As a result of this ability to maintain an image of a person ______ _______ develops when a loved one leaves the room

A

9 months; separation anxiety

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27
Q

What is magical thinking?

A

A normal state of mind during the preschool toddler years when a child assumes inanimate objects are alive and have feelings

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28
Q

What are some red flags in cognitive development?

A
  • Skills significantly delayed in language and problem solving: mental retardation
  • Language skills delayed: hearing impairment of communication disorder
  • Problem solving skills delayed: Visual or fine motor problems
  • Discrepance between language and problem solving skills: Learning disabilities
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29
Q

Social skill milestones in order include…

A
  1. Attachment
  2. A sense of independence
  3. Social play
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30
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

A group of static (nonprogressive) encephalopathies caused by injury to the developing brain in which motor function is primarily affected

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31
Q

How is cerebral palsy diagnosed?

A

Repeated neurodevelopmental examinations

  • Increasing tone or spasticity
  • Hypotonia
  • Assymetric reflexes or movement
  • Abnormal primitive reflexes or emergence of postural responses
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32
Q
  • Maternal risk factors for cerebral palsy:
  • Prenatal:
  • Perinatal:
A
  • Maternal: multiple gestation; preterm labor
  • Prenatal: intrauterine growth retardation; congenital malformations, infections (TORCH)
  • Perinatal: Prolonged, traumatic delivery; Apgar score < 3 at 15 minutes; Premature or postdates
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33
Q

What are postnatal risk factors for cerebral palsy?

A
  • Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
  • Intraventricular hemorrhage
  • Trauma
  • Kernicterus
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34
Q

What are the two types of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic cerebral palsy; Extrapyramidal cerebral palsy

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35
Q

What are the three types of spastic cerebral palsy?

A
  • Spastic diplegia: involves lower extremities > upper extremities or face
  • Spastic hemiplegia: unilateral spastic motor weakness
  • Spastic quadriplegia: motor involvement of head, neck, and all four limbs
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36
Q

What is extrapyramidal cerebral palsy (athetoid cerebral palsy)?

A

Patients have problems modulating control of the face, trunk, and extremities, often writhing; significant oral motor involvement often occurs

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37
Q

Define mental retardation

A

Significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning associated with deficits in adaptive behavior such as self care, social skills, work, and leisure

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38
Q

What IQ ranges are associated with mild, moderate, severe, and profound mental retardation?

  • Mild:
  • Moderate:
  • Severe:
  • Profound:
A
  • Mild: (IQ = 56-69)
  • Moderate: (IQ = 40-54)
  • Severe: (IQ = 25-39)
  • Profound: (IQ < 25)
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39
Q

What are some genetic causes of mental retardation?

What are some environmental causes?

A
  • Genetic:
    • Chromosomal abnormalities
    • Inborn errors of metabolism
    • Single gene abnormalities
  • Environmental:
    • Psychosocial deprivation
    • Parental mental illness
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40
Q

What is the most common cause of learning disabilities?

A

Idiopathic

41
Q

What are the two types of learning disabilities?

A
  1. Deficiencies in specific academic subjects
  2. Defects in processing of information
42
Q

Autism

  • Onset:
  • More common in:
A

Autism

  • Onset: prior to 3 years of age
  • More common in: boys
43
Q

What are the clinical features of autism?

A
  • Difficulty using language to communicate with others
  • Unusual ways of relating
  • Unusual or restrictive ranges of interests
  • Unusual perseverative behavior or sterotypic movement rituals
  • Self injurious behaviors
44
Q

What is echolalia?

A

A clinical feature of autism - repetitive words and phrases

45
Q

What are the clinical features of Asperger syndrome?

A
  • Qualitative impairment in peer relationships and social interactions
  • Repetitive, restricted, and stereotyped patterns of behavior, activities, and interests
  • No clinically significant language delay
46
Q

Characteristics of ADHD include…

What associated behavior may or may not be present?

A

poor selective attention, difficulty focusing, or distractibility

Hyperactivity may or may not be present

47
Q

The cause of ADHD is unknown. Abnormalities in neurotransmitter function, especially ______ and ________, also leads to symptoms

A

dopamine; norepinephrine

48
Q

What specific criteria must be present to diagnose ADHD? (don’t memorize)

A
  • Symptoms before 7 years of age
  • Symptoms in more than one environment
  • Impairment in functioning in school or personal relationships
  • Symptoms of inattention
  • Symptoms of hyperactivity
  • Symptoms of impulsivity
  • Social adjustment problems
  • Damage to self-esteem
  • Impaired relationships with parents and peers
  • Difficulty learning
49
Q

What is the key focus of assessments for ADHD?

A

identifying the child’s strengths and coping strategies

50
Q

What are some non-medical treatments for ADHD?

A
  • Demystification - explain ADHD to child and family
  • Classroom modifications - elimination of distractions
  • Educational assistance
  • Counseling
51
Q

What is the first line pharmacologic treatment for ADHD?

  • Mechanism of action:
  • Dosage
  • Side effects:
A

Stimulants (methylphenidate (Ritalin) and amphetamines (adderall))

  • MOA: enhance catecholamine transmission in the CNS (increase dopamine and norepinephrine)
  • Dosage: Varies among patients
  • Side effects: anorexia, insomnia, GI pain, headache, palpitations, Tics
52
Q

What is the second line medical therapy for ADHD?

A

Nonstimulant medications - Tricyclic antidepressants, and adrenergic agents such as clonidine (best for comorbid aggression or tic disorders)

53
Q

Permanent hearing loss occurs in at least ______ newborns

A

1/600

54
Q

Outcome of hearing-impaired children is demonstrably better if it occurs before what age?

A

6 months of age

55
Q

What are some sequelae of late identification of hearing impairment?

A
  • Delayed speech and language skills
  • Academic and behavioral problems
56
Q

What are some variables influencing impact of hearing loss on function and development

A
  • Degree of loss
  • Etiology (inherited > acquired)
  • Family atmosphere
  • Age at onset (better if after language acquisition)
  • TIming of amplification (earlier = better)
  • Cochlear implants
57
Q

During medical evaluation for hearing loss, which lab is important to order and why?

A

Creatinine level because of association between kidney disease and ear abnormalities (Alport syndrome)

58
Q

What are the three leading causes of blindness in children?

A
  • Trachoma infection (primary cause worldwide)
  • Retinopathy of prematurity
  • Congenital cataracts
59
Q

What is haptic perception?

A

Feeling someone’s face to form a mental image of them by combining kinesthetic spatial feedback and input from tactile sensation

60
Q

What is colic?

A

Crying that lasts > 3 hours per day and occurs > 3 days per week

61
Q

What re the characteristic features of colic?

A
  • Occurs in healthy, well fed infants
  • Begins at 2-4 weeks of age and resolves by 3-4 months of age
  • Involves periods of irritability (typically late afternoon or early evening)
62
Q

What is the general management for colic?

A
  • Treat identified conditions
  • Reassure patients that their infant is health
  • Recommend comfort measures
63
Q

What are the two classifications of enuresis?

A
  1. Nocturnal vs diurnal
  2. Primary (never been consistently dry) vs. secondary (at least 6 months of prior consecutive dryness)
64
Q

Which chromosome has a genetic association with nocturnal enuresis?

A

Stong famililal tendency for nocturnal primary enuresis found with gene identified on chromosome 13

65
Q

What are some causes of secondary enuresis in children?

A
  • Stressful situations
    • Birth of a sibling
    • Death of a family member
    • Separation of parents
66
Q

What should be included in a physical examination of enuresis?

A

Evaluate the abdomen, genitals, perineal sensations, anal wink reflex, and lower spine

A neurologic exam should be performed

67
Q

What labs should be oredered in evaluation of enuresis?

A

Urinalysis and urine culture

68
Q

What medications can be used for enuresis? What should they be combined with for maximum effectiveness?

A

DDAVP (Desmopressin acetate) and Tricyclic antidepressants (Imipramine is the most widely used)

Best efficacy uses a combination of medications, alarms, and behavioral modification

69
Q

What is the management for diurnal enuresis?

A
  • Bladder stretching exercises (if small bladder capacity is suggested)
  • Schedule timed voiding every 90-120 mintes
  • Treatment of and coexisting constipation may be effective
70
Q

What are normal sleep patterns for newborns?

A
  • Day-night reversals are common in the first weeks of life; normal patterns is random sleep for 4 weeks, after which clustering of sleep time occurs
  • Sleeping through the night is defined as sleeping more than 5 hours after midnight for a 4 week period
71
Q

What is trained night waking? How is it managed?

A

Trained night waking: between 4-8 months of age when the infant does not resettle without parental intervention during normal night stiffings and awakening

Management: Establishing routines and placing infant in bed while drowsy but still awake

72
Q

What is trained night feeding? How is it managed?

A

Infant continues to wake to eat because the parents keep responding witha feeding

Management: lengthening intervals of daytime feeding and teaching parents not to respond with a feeding every time the infant stirs

73
Q

Nightmares are common after __ years of age

A

3

74
Q

At what stage of sleep do nightmares occur?

A

During REM sleep

75
Q

How are nightmares managed?

A

Reassurance by the parents and comforting measures are helpful; important to address the child’s needs for security and to promote regular sleep patterns and good sleep habits

76
Q

In what age range are night terrors common?

At what stage of sleep do they occur?

A

3-5 years of age

Stage 4 non-REM sleep

77
Q

What is the difference in history between nightmares and night terrors?

A

Nightmare: Child is able to give a detailed recall of extended and frightening dreams

Night terror: Parents describe child who suddenly arouses screaming and thrashing with signs of autonomic arousal - The child does NOT remember the incident the next day

78
Q

What is the management of night terrors?

A

Reassuring parents, telling them that the episodes usually terminate spontaneously and will resolve over time

79
Q

Appetitie normally decreases after __ _____

A

1 year of age

80
Q

What is the key issue surrounding toddler feeding problems?

A

Control - autonomy is more importan than hunger to the child at this stage

81
Q

What are symptoms of school phobia?

A

Complaints such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, fatigue and headache typically occur in the morning and worsen on departure for school

Symptoms frequently disappear on the weekends and during summer vacation

82
Q

Temper tantrums are common between _ and _ years of age

A

1 and 3 years of age

83
Q

Define a temper tantrum

A

Expressions of emotion (usually anger) that are beyond the child’s ability to control

84
Q

Why do temper tantrums decrease after age 3?

A

The ability to verbalize feelings decreases tantrums

85
Q

What is a breath-holding spell?

A

Benign episodes in which children hold their breath long enough to cause parental concern; the spells are involuntary in nature, harmless, and always stop by themselves

86
Q

What are the two types of breath-holding spells?

A
  1. Cyanotic spells: Most common and usually precipitated by an event that makes the child frustrated or angry
  2. Pallid spells: Often provoked by unexpected event that frightens the child, resulting in hypervasovagal response - child becomes pale and limp
87
Q

How do you manage breath-holding spells?

A
  • Reassure the parents that the episodes will resolve without harm
  • Counsel parents not ot undertake potentially harmful resuscitation efforts
  • Iron has been reported to help some patients
88
Q

The arrival of a newborn is especially stressful for children younger than __ years of age

A

3 years of age

89
Q

At what age does the average child achieve bowel control?

Bladder control?

A

Bowel control: 29 months of age (16 - 48 range)

Bladder control: 32 months of age (18-60 range)

90
Q
A
91
Q

What can cause resistance to toilet training in a child?

A

Pressure or force tends to make the child uncooperative - creates power struggle between child and parents

92
Q

When do children develop self-control?

A

between 3 and 4 years of age

93
Q

Before _____ months, no discipline is indicated

A

6 months

94
Q

What discipline methods are effective between 18 months and 3 years of age?

A

Ignoring, time-out, and disapproval (both verbal and nonverbal)

95
Q

When are logical consequences an effective disciplinary tool?

A

Preschool children

96
Q

After 5 years of age, what discipline is effective?

A

Negotiation and restriction of privileges

97
Q

How long should a timeout be?

A

1 minute per year of age (maximum 5 minutes, even in the older child)

98
Q

What is the most likely cause of childhood hearing impariment?

A

Genetic factors - autosomal recessive inheritance

PNP study cards (14 decks)

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