Behavior Flashcards

1
Q

What will small ruminants start to do as you approach their herd?

A

(Become alert and start to group together)

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2
Q

(T/F) For small ruminants, it is best to move them as a group and then separate individuals once the group is in a pen.

A

(T)

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3
Q

There are two options for making a small ruminant more comfortable with needing to be isolated for treatments, what are those two options?

A

(Give them a companion in an adjacent pen or they need to be in complete isolation where they cannot see or hear other sheep/goats)

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4
Q

What do the critical distances (alert, flight, and escape distances) and flight zones of a flock depend on? Two answers.

A

(Breed and conditioning)

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5
Q

Of sheep and goats, which tend to be more individualistic?

A

(Goats, especially the dairy goats that are handled more often)

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6
Q

(T/F) If introducing a new leader to a herd of small ruminants, it should be of the same species.

A

(F, not necessarily)

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7
Q

What is a benefit to herd behavior in relation to sick animals?

A

(Sick animals will separate themselves from the herd which gives you a clue as to who is sick)

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8
Q

How can you confirm that a lamb is appropriately suckling from mom?

A

(The tail should be wagging during suckling)

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9
Q

(T/F) Lambs always stretch after waking up.

A

(T)

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10
Q

(T/F) Kids are more independent than lambs.

A

(T)

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11
Q

What is the purpose of isolating small ruminant newborns and dams from the rest of the herd?

A

(To improve bonding)

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12
Q

Why should females be selected to be bred based on their mothering ability?

A

(To prevent maternal rejection)

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13
Q

Orphan grafting needs to occur within what time period post gestation in small ruminants? Range in hours.

A

(12-24 hours)

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14
Q

When should you avoid mixing or introducing new small ruminants? Two answers.

A

(During breeding season and late gestation/lambing season → should aim to do it during low stress periods)

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15
Q

Why can sheep and goats be co-grazed with cattle?

A

(Because they graze/browse pastures differently than cattle)

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16
Q

When does fighting between sows most often occur, which will result in wounds of the udder, flank, and/or vulva?

A

(During the remixing of sows after weaning)

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17
Q

Why is it important to have an area of retreat for loser pigs that includes a dark corner or hole?

A

(Eye contact is important for fighting between pigs, if they can disrupt the eye contact the dominant pig will usually stop fighting)

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18
Q

(T/F) Hogs with floppy ears are more skittish than hogs with erect ears and will generally eat less and become more quickly agitated.

A

(T)

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19
Q

How do commercial versus naturally weaning times differ for pigs?

A

(Weaning is done at 3-5 weeks of age in commercial settings; naturally will occur at 3-4 months of age)

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20
Q

Aggressive behavior in pot belly pigs is associated with two instances/situations, what are they?

A

(Their estrous cycle and when defending the family unit)

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21
Q

Do swine prefer to eat individually or as a part of a group?

A

(Group)

22
Q

Will the piglets that feed on the posterior or anterior teats gain more weight?

A

(Anterior → the dams hindlimb makes the posterior teats harder to access)

23
Q

In what dimension are cows limited vision wise?

A

(Vertical, can see very wide range horizontally but not so much up and down)

24
Q

The vomeronasal organ is used to detect pheromones particularly in what body secretion?

A

(Urine, for detecting heat)

25
Q

Are cows more sensitive to cold or heat?

A

(Heat, will start to attempt to mitigate increased temperatures a lot sooner than decreased temperatures)

26
Q

Is eating time decreased or increased when a cow is being fed concentrate instead of being let out to graze?

A

(Decreased, grazing usually 8-9 hours, concentrates usually 5 hours)

27
Q

Why is ruminating time decreased when a cow is being fed concentrates?

A

(Bc roughage obtaining from grazing is what takes so much time to ruminate, concentrates are easier to ferment and digest)

28
Q

Are Bos taurus or Bos indicus cattle more acquainted to heat and will therefore not need to intake as much water when temperatures are higher?

A

(Bos indicus)

29
Q

Do dairy or beef bulls have a higher libido?

A

(Dairy → this is why they are considered more dangerous)

30
Q

Is morbidity higher or lower in docile cows?

A

(Higher, will show signs of illness a lot sooner than super agitated cows)

31
Q

Will animals scoring 5-6 on the temperament scale have a higher or lower mortality?

A

(Higher, will not show signs of sickness until it kills them)

32
Q

What temperament scale scores are more likely to lead to ‘dark cutters’?

A

(High scores, 5-6)

33
Q

How does hunting and rearing of young differ between dogs and wolves?

A

(Dogs have decreased cooperative hunting and rearing of young when compared to wolves)

34
Q

(T/F) Dogs are unlikely to form stable packs.

A

(T)

35
Q

How do domestication and taming differ?

A

(Taming relates to the current animal(s) whereas domestication involves generational time)

36
Q

What is paedomorphosis?

A

(Retention of puppy/juvenile traits into adulthood)

37
Q

What is the neonatal period defined as?

A

(Birth until the eyes/ears open, takes approximately 2 weeks in dogs)

38
Q

What are the primary senses of the neonatal period in dogs?

A

(Touch and taste)

39
Q

(T/F) Early neurological stimulation in puppies can substitute routine handling, play socialization, and bonding.

A

(F)

40
Q

Full development of pain perception in puppies develops during what stage?

A

(The transition stage so between the neonatal and socialization stages)

41
Q

What does the transition period for puppy development end with?

A

(The onset of the acoustic startle response)

42
Q

Puppies will develop the skill of eliminating in specific locations based on odor primarily by what age?

A

(8.5 weeks)

43
Q

Do puppies in the age range of 3-5 weeks have a slow or rapid recovery from fearful incidents?

A

(Rapid)

44
Q

During what age in puppies is when peak avoidance of strangers and unfamiliar things occur?

A

(When puppies are 12-14 weeks of age)

45
Q

When is the common onset of aggression problems in dogs?

A

(1-3 years of age, this is when adult behavior patterns are established)

46
Q

A higher pitch bark can indicate a greeting, playfulness, or distress while a lower pitch bark can indicate threat or assertive aggression but barking needs to be interpreted within the context of what other characteristics of the dog?

A

(Their body language)

47
Q

What is the common social unit of a cat colony?

A

(Matrilineal → queen and her offspring)

48
Q

What tail position in a cat indicates a willingness to interact?

A

(Upright)

49
Q

(T/F) Boldness is an inherited trait in cats.

A

(T)

50
Q

What emotions are indicated when a cat has piloerection?

A

(Defense/fear)

51
Q

What about the eyes of a cat can indicate fear/emotional arousal?

A

(Dilated pupils)