BECOM 2 Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

atrial natriuretic factor

A

found in the myocardium

  • Secreted when excessively stretched
  • Increases sodium and water loss by the kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Zonula adherens are responsible for what in the myocardium and associated protein

A
  • Anchoring sites for actin filaments of terminal sarcomeres
  • α-actinin is main actin-binding protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Macula adherens are responsible for what in the myocardium and associated protein

A
  • Bind cells together to prevent separation during contraction
  • Desmin and vimentin are main intermediate filaments inserting into attachment plaque
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gap junctions are responsible for what in the myocardium and associated protein

A

-Provide ionic continuity for spread of action potentials between cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lipofuscin granules

A
  • Remnants of stuff lysosome cant break down

- Occurs in long-lived cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 tunics of heart and what they contain

A

endocardium (contains purkinje fibers)
myocardium (thickest)
epicardium (adipose and coronary vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cardiac skeleton purpose

A
  • support valves
  • attachment for valve and leaflets
  • electrical insulator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chordae tendineae

A

Connect cusp free edge to papillary muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blood vessels three layers

A

Tunica Intima (Inside)
Tunica media
Tunica Externa or Adventitia (Outside and connects vessel to surrounding connective tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the role of endothelial layer and sub endothelial layer of the tunica intima

A
  • antithrombogenic via PGI2 which also causes vasodilation

- platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vasa vasorum

A

is a network of small blood vessels that supply the walls of large blood vessels, such as elastic arteries (e.g. aorta) and large veins (e.g. venae cavae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carotid/Aortic bodies purpose

A

They are chemoreceptors sensitive to:

  • Low oxygen content
  • High carbon dioxide concentration
  • Low arterial blood pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Carotid sinus location and purpose

A

is a slight dilation of the proximal internal carotid arteries:
Contain baroreceptors:
Tunica media layer is thin, allowing the carotid sinus to respond to changes in blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pericytes cells role in capillaries

A

Roles:

  • contractile function
  • May proliferate and give rise to new blood vessels following injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Capillary types

A

Continuous
Fenestrated
Sinusoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sites at which white blood cells enter damaged or infected tissues

A

venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Left umbilical vein is obliterated

A

ligamentum teres hepatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ductus venosus is also obliterated (right umbilical)

A

ligamentum venosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Superior Vena Cava is formed by

A

Right common cardinal vein and proximal part of right anterior cardinal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Left renal vein formed by

A

Anastomosis between subcardinal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Renal segment of IVC formed by

A

Right subcardinal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Post renal segment of IVC

A

Right supracardinal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Proximal part of bulbus cordis forms

A

right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Conus arteriosus incorporated into

A

right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Conus cordis forms

A

outflow tracts of both ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Truncus arteriosus forms

A

roots of aorta and pulmonary trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

aortic/pulm artery formed by (embryo)

A

neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

contruncal septum

A

separates pulmonary/aortic channels

-formed by L/R conotruncal ridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Semilunar Valves formed from

A

endocardium Tubercles on truncus swellings - neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Osteum secundum defect

A

-Leaves a large opening between atria
-Due to excessive resorption of septum primum or
inadequate development of septum secundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tricuspid Atresia

A

Characterized by either absence or fusion of tricuspid valves, resulting in obliteration of right atrioventricular orifice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common congenital heart malformation

A

Membranous Ventricular Septal Defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Produces 4 alterations:

  1. Pulmonary infundibular stenosis
  2. Large interventricular septal defect
  3. Overriding aorta that arises directly above septal defect
  4. Hypertrophy of right ventricular wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Persistent Truncus Arteriosus

A
  • Failure of fusion of conotruncal ridges
  • Always accompanied by a defective interventricular septum
  • Undivided truncus receives blood from both sides of heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Transposition of Great vessels

A

Occurs when conotruncal septum fails to follow spiral course, and instead runs straight down
Because of this aorta originates from right ventricle and pulmonary artery originates form left ventricle
Usually accompanied by an open ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Valvular Stenosis

A

Semilunar valves are fused for a variable distance, reducing the opening of the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ectopia cordis

A

Heart lies on surface of chest due to failure of closure of ventral body wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
Phases of infectious disease progression
Prodrome 
Invasive
Acme
Decline
Convalescence `
A
Incubation – interval btwn infection and signs/symptoms
Prodrome – mild symptoms
Invasive – classical signs/symptoms
Acme – signs/symptoms peak
Decline – dwindling signs/symptoms
Convalescence – healing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Three components of LPS

A

outer oligosaccharide chains (O-antigen)
Core polysaccharide
Inner Lipid A (a.k.a. ENDOTOXIN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sepsis-Related Organ Failure Assessment

A

Brain: Altered mental status
Lungs: Tachypnea (>22 bpm)
Cardiovascular: Low SBP (<100 mmHg)

2 or more = septic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bacterial propeller made of

A

flagellin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Eukaryote whip made of

A

tubulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Key Spore-formers

A

Actinomyces anaerobe
Bacillus aerobe
Clostridium anaerobe

usually gram pos rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

likes it HOT (42°C)

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

likes it COLD (< 5°C)

A

Listeria monocytogenes
Yersinia entercolitica
Aeromonas hydrophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Peptidoglycan
Lipopolysaccharides (LPS/endotoxin)
Flagellin
receptor recognition

A

TLR-2
TLR-4/CD14
TLR-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Strict anaerobes

A
Freaks Can't Breath Air
Fusobacterium
Clostridium
Bacteroides
Actinomyces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does IgA Protease do and presenting pathogens

A

-cleaves antibody produced by mucus membrane (IgA) allowing these bacteria to adhere to mucus membrane
-My SHiN protects my spleen
Str. Pneumoniae
H. influenza
Neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is M protien and what pathogen carries it?

A

-doesnt allow the bacteria to be phagocytosed via Breaks down C3 convertase, prevents opsonization by c3b
Str. Pyogenes (Group A strep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is protein A and pathogen?

A

-Binds Fc portion of IgG, inhibiting phagocytosis

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how does Protein A work

A

binds Fc portion of IgG flipping it and not allowing phagocytosis to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Endotoxins cause cytokine release … via …

A

TNFalpha and IL-1 via TLR4 and CD14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

LOS releases from

A

Neisseria meningitides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

capsule facts

A

antiphagocytosis
can cross blood brain barrier (meningitis)
many produce IgA protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

M gate

A

activation Na+ gate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

H gate

A

inactivation Na+ gate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Gram Pos only

A
  • endotoxins (LPS) - lipid A
  • porin channels
  • reistant to lysozyme and penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Gram neg only

A
  • teichonic acid
  • no porins/endotoxins
  • vulnerable to penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

bacteria vs human ribosome construciton

A

70s (50s + 30s)

80s (60s + 40s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Peptidoglycan structure and what breaks it down

A

Amino acids cross linked with sugars (NAG and NAM)

  • transpeptidase binds AA to each other (penicillin binds to transpeptidase)
  • lysozymes cleave sugars (NAG and NAM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

enterotoxins
pyrogenic toxins
neurotoxins

A

gut toxins
produce fever
paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Main capsule bacteria and all mneumonic

A
Make spleen protects my SHiN
-Strep pneumonia
-H. influenza
-Neisseria meningitidis
YES, Sadly Some Bad Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules
Yersinia Pestis (F1 capsule)
E. coli (meningeal strains only)
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B strep)
Salmonella typhi
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Bacillus anthracis (protein – Poly-D-glutamate)
Klebsiella
Haemophilus influenzae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Neisseria
Cryptococcus neoformans (fungal pathogen)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Exotoxins group A and B component

A

‘A’ component is active/toxic

‘B’ component binds to cell receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors (pathogens and action)

A
Corynebacterium diphtheria (Diphtheria toxin) (gray plaque on throat)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Exotoxin A)
-Mechanism: ADP-ribosylating A-B toxin  inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
Both toxins (Diphtheria and Exotoxin A) add ADP-  Ribose to EF-2
Addition of ADP-Ribose makes protein dysfunctional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Shigella causes and how

A

-Causes bloody infectious diarrhea
-Secretes shiga toxin
Binds to 60S ribosome in cells
Removes a specific adenine residue from rRNA in the 60S ribosomal subunit
Blocks protein synthesis
***Toxin causes tissue destruction, but invasion of GI mucosal cells is main cause of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) causes

A

-Causes bloody infectious diarrhea
-Secretes shiga-like toxin (Same mechanism as shiga toxin)
**EHEC does not invade GI mucosa
Unlike shigella, the shiga-like toxin does the damage!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Increased Fluid Secretion pathogens

A

Bacillus anthracis
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
Vibrio cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Bacillus anthracis toxins and action

A

Edema toxin = protective antigen + edema factor

  • Acts like adenylyl cyclase
  • inc AC -> inc cAMP -> inc Cl- secretion, inc H2O secretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) toxins and action

A
  • Heat Labile Toxin (LT): Activates adenylyl cyclase/increases cAMP
  • Heat Stable Toxin (ST): Activates guanylyl cyclase/increases cGMP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Vibrio cholera toxin and action

A

cholera toxin: permanently activates Gs to increase cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

neurotoxin bacteria and action

A

Clostridium tetani: Tetanospasmin, Inhibits inhibitory neurons (GABA and glycine) -> RIGID (muscles always on)

  • Clostridium botulinum: Botulinum toxin, Prevents Acetyl choline release (no contraction) -> FLACCID paralysis
  • infants slow, adults fast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Superantigens action and classic case (toxic shock)

A

Non-specifically activate MASSIVE numbers of T-cells

-staphylococcus aureus + packed wound (women and tampons or surgical packed wounds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

toxic shock syndrome pathogens

A

Sta. aureus (packed wounds) (Staff that is Hot and Red with a Rash has the Runs!)
Str. Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Ventricular myocyte action potential (01234)

A

0: Depol. (Na+ influx)
1: ——-
2: Ca2+ influx, K+ efflux at lower rate
3: K+ efflux
4: Na+/K+ pump, K+ leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Why do cardio myocytes have such a long AP?

A

a long AP in myocytes causes a long refractory period that allows the heart to relax, preventing tetany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Nodal cell action potential (403)

A

4: slow Na+ influx, K+ blocked
0: Ca2+ influx
3: K+ efflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Norepinephrine and Acetylcholine effect on nodal cells

A

NE: B1 receptors, inc rate of Na+ entry -> faster phase 4
Ach: M2 receptor, inc K+ permeability and inhibit If channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Funny (If) channels

A

slow Na+ channels on nodal cells that are triggered by hyperpolarization (Na+ perm inc, K+ perm dec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Fungal cell wall are composed of?

A

chitin, ergosterol, and B glucan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

yeast and mold growth temps

A

yeast: 37°C
molds: 25°C
- Candida albicans is the opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Only yeast to have a capsule

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Primary fungal pathogens

A
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Coccidioides immitis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Paracoccioides brasiliensis
-All infect via inhalation of large numbers of spores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Fungi-Like Bacteria

A
Actinomyces israelii (Forms microscopic “sulfur” granules)
Nocardia asteroides (often mistaken for TB,Causes pulmonary abscesses and cavitations)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

athlete’s foot

A

Tinea pedis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Potassium hydroxide (KOH) used for

A

Used to visualize fungal elements

-Fungal elements visible in skin scrapings (hyphae)

86
Q

Rose Gardner’s Disease pathogen and reaction

A
  • Sporothrix schenkii

- Ascending lymphangitis

87
Q

Candida albicans can cause and test

A
Oral thrush
Vulvovaginitis (yeast infection)
Diaper rash
- test: “Germ tube test” Positive 
- opportunist pathogen so occurs in immunosuppressed individuals
88
Q

Virus like bacteria that like to hide in a host cell

A

Rickettsia and Chlamydia

89
Q

Tropism

A

viruses are tissue selective

90
Q

Capsid

A

protein coat surrounding virus core (DNA/RNA)

91
Q

dsDNA viruses and ssDNA virus

A
HHAPPPy
hepadenovirus
herpesviruses
adenovirus
papillomaviruses
poxvirus

parvovirus

92
Q

Reverse transcriptase viruses

A

HIV and Hep B

93
Q

Two types of virus spikes

A

Hemagglutinin(HA)..attachment

Neuraminidase(NA)..release/budding (exiting)

94
Q

drift vs shift

A

drift: small mutations over time (why vaccines need to be tweaked)
shift: abrupt/major assortment (pandemics)

95
Q

avian influeza

A

H5N1, H7N9

96
Q

How to detect viruses

A

IgM antibody: acute
IgG antibody: longer
and symptoms

97
Q

Virus replication cycle

A
Attachment
Penetration
Biosynthesis
Maturation/Assembly
New viruses are assembled
Release
98
Q

Latency

A

period of dormancy

99
Q

Lytic

A

cell rupturing

100
Q

Hepatitis B virus cancer

A

liver cancer

101
Q

HIV / HHV-8 cancer

A

Kaposi sarcoma

102
Q

P wave
PR interval
QRS

A

P wave: .06 - .11
PR interval: .12 - .20
QRS: >.12

103
Q

small box in sec

A

.04 sec

104
Q

P
QRS
T

A

P: atrium depol
QRS: ventricle depol (Q: septal depol)
T: ventricle repol

105
Q

Depolarization direction and deflection

A
  • ———-> + depol, up

- ———-> - depol, down

106
Q

V wave

A

filling of the atrium w a closed AV valve to opening of AV valve

107
Q

ST segment depression

A

subendocardial injury (ischemia)

108
Q

ST segment elevation

A

epicardial injury (ischemia)

109
Q

Identify the bacterial pathogen that causes the body to produce anti-streptolysin O (ASO) antibodies

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

110
Q

acid fast and is commonly confused with TB

A

Nocardia asteroides

111
Q

S4 sound

A

Atrial kick: Fill a ventricle with low compliance (stiff) sound produced

112
Q

Dihydropyridine channels

A

Ca2+ channel through T tubule

113
Q

ryanodine channels

A

Ca2+ channels on the sarcomere

114
Q

phospholamban

A

wedges next to Ca2+ pump to SR (inhibitor). Phosphorylate phospholamban will cause it to leave Ca2+ pumped into the SR at a faster rate (dec AP length)
-SERCA2

115
Q

Ca2+/Na+ exchanger

A

Ca2+ out, Na+ in

116
Q

Methylxanthine

A

inhibits phosphodiesterase, inc in cAMP, inc in intracellular Ca2+

117
Q

stretching of the myocardial muscle casues

A

high affinity of troponin to Ca2+

get myosin and action closer together

118
Q

cardiac glycosides (digitoxin)

A
  1. inhibits Na+/K+ ATPas
  2. Less extracellular Na+
  3. Ca2+ out, Na+ in (exchange) –> more intracellular Ca2+
119
Q

Virus Replicates in Cytoplasm

A

poxvirus (pox-like lesion)

120
Q

Herpes Virus family

A
  • herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2)
  • Varicella-Zoster virus (VZV, which may also be called by its ICTV name, HHV-3)
  • Epstein–Barr virus (EBV or HHV-4)
  • Human Cytomegalovirus (HCMV or HHV-5)
  • Human Herpesvirus 6A and 6B (HHV-6A and HHV-6B)
121
Q

Greatest influenza threat to humans

A

H5N1 and H7N9 (avian influeza)

122
Q

Hemagglutinin (H)

A

facilitates attachment and penetration of virus into host cell

123
Q

Neuraminidase (N)

A

assists the virion into entry and budding (escaping) host cell

124
Q

Human Papilloma Virus cancer

A

cervical, penis, mouth, anus, throat, vaginacancer

125
Q

Hepatitis B Virus cancer

A

Liver Cancer

126
Q

Hepatitis C Virus cancer

A

Liver Cancer

127
Q

Human T-cell leukemia virus cancer

A

T-Cell Leukemia

128
Q

HIV/HHV-8 cancer

A

Kaposi sarcoma

129
Q

main place that regulates blood pressure

A

arterioles because high sympathetic innervation

130
Q

compliance equation and meaning

A

compliance = delta V / delta P

more volume = more compliance

131
Q

ohm’s law equation and meaning

A

F = deltaP / R
more pressure = faster flow
more resistance = slower flow

132
Q

POISEULLE’S LAW most important factor of flow

A

radius of vein/artery

-inc/dec by 16 times

133
Q

POISEULLE’S LAW

A

Pi (Pi - Po) R^4 / (8 x viscosity x length)

134
Q

Sheer force

A
  • All flowing fluids exert “rubbing” force against the inner wall of a cylinder
  • High flow rate reduces the lateral pressure BUT increases the sheer stress on the arterial wall
135
Q

Reynolds Number

A

(velocity) (diameter) (density) / viscosity

less than 2000 = laminar flow

136
Q

Law of LaPlace

A

Stress (S) = pressure (P) x radius (r)/ width (r)

-inc radius or pressure = inc stress

137
Q

Mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

MAP = diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure

pulse pressure = systole - diastole

138
Q

stiff aorta arterial pulse wave form

A

inc systole pressure

dec dicrotic notch

139
Q

aortic incompetence arterial pulse wave form

A

very low diastole because it will equal out with left vent pressure during diastole which is close to zero

140
Q

aortic stenosis arterial pulse wave form

A

low systole pressure bc dec blood in aorta

slow pressure rise to systole

141
Q

atherosclerosis arterial pulse wave form

A

multiple wave as pressure decreases because of reflective waves

142
Q

a1
b1
b2

A

a1: vasoconstriction
b1: inc HR
b2: vasodilation

143
Q

Vasoconstrictor center

A

Rostral ventrolateral medulla (RVLM)

-and also CARDIO STIMULATORY CENTER

144
Q

Vasodilator center

A

Caudal ventrolateral medulla (CVLM)

145
Q

Cardioinhibitory center

A

Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus (DMNV) and Nucleus Ambiguous (NA)

146
Q

Arterial Baroreceptor Reflex location

A

carotid sinus and aortic arch (baroreceptors)

-short term

147
Q

histamine

A

vasodilation

148
Q

oncotic pressure

A

albumin inside the vessel keep H2O in vessel through osmotic pressure counteracting hydrostatic pressure

149
Q

arterioles vs veins (filtration vs reabsorption)

A

arterioles: favor net filtration
veins: favor net reabsorption

150
Q

result of blood loss

A

vasoconstriction which will end up favoring reabsorption because fluid will be borrowed from tissue to make up for lack of blood

151
Q

Function of Lymph Capillaries

A
  • Remove excess fluid and proteins from interstitial space.

- Take up differential between filtration and reabsorption for return back to central circulation

152
Q

edema is caused by

A
  • Reduction in plasma proteins
  • Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
  • Increased protein permeability in post capillary venules
153
Q

Kwashiorkor Protein Deficiency

A

low protein diet has reduced albumin in blood resulting in inc fluid in the tissue

154
Q

chemoreflex

A

-PERIPHERAL chemoreceptors on carotid and aortic body measure blood oxygen, CO2, and pH
CENTRAL in brain
-low O2, high CO2 and low pH dec parasympathetic stimulation and inc sympathetic stimulation
-Result: inc heart rate (stroke volume), vasoconstriction, and

155
Q

Cardiopulmonary Reflexes

A

Goal is to minimize changes in blood pressure in response to changes in blood volume
-Located at artrio-venous junctions and pulmonary vessels of heart
-Activation: Diuresis (inc urine) (inhibition of RSNA)
ANP release (natriuresis: sodium loss)
Vasodilation – sympathetic inhibition
CAUSES LOSS OF CIRCULATING VOLUME
-Inhibition: Antidiuresis (RSNA increase)
ANP inhibition
Vasoconstriction – sympathetic activation

156
Q

Hypothalamic Mechanisms

A

when high low BP the hypothalamus stimulate the post. pituitary gland to release Vasopressin/Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

157
Q

angiotensinogen

A

inc blood pressure (released from liver)

158
Q

pressure equation

A

delta P = Q (flow) x resistance

159
Q

adenosine

A

vasodilation

160
Q

Short PR (delta wave) meaning

A

indicates that the heart may have an alternate faster

conduction route around the AV node, indicative of “pre-excitation”

161
Q

long PR interval meaning

A

AV block (reduced speed of conduction through AV node from atrial depolarization to ventricle depolarization)

162
Q

ST segment shift means
elevated?
depressed?

A

ACUTE injury

  • damaged tissue (MI) or ischemic tissue
  • when tissue completely dies there will be no ST segment shift
163
Q

faster part of laminar flow

A

center

164
Q

korotkoff sound

A

the sound turbulent flow makes when passing through narrow area

165
Q

flow velocity through aorta -> capillaries

A

High flow velocity in aorta and decreases in arterioles and bottoms out in capillaries

166
Q

inhalation S2 sound

A

aortic closes before pulmonic resulting in two sounds
-inhalation inc venous return, requiring the right ventricle more time for systole, resulting in a delay of the pulmonic valve closing

167
Q

Pulse pressure

A

pressure difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure

168
Q

arteriole constriction vs dilation

A

constriction: raises arterial diastolic BP and decreases capillary pressure
dilation: lowers arterial diastolic BP elevates capillary pressure

169
Q

what happened when hemorrhage occurs and why

A

dec in BP because a dec in mean systemic filling (venous return)
-acutely blood vessels constrict

170
Q

inc/dec pressure at baroreceptor

A
  • inc: afferent discharge inc causing dec in efferent sympathetic nerve activity and HR
  • dec: afferent discharge dec causing inc in efferent sympathetic nerves activity and HR
171
Q

NE vs EPI

A

NE: perdominently alpha 1 (constriction)
EPI: both alpha 1 and beta 2 depending on concentration

172
Q

Vasodilation goes hand in hand with

A

opening of capillary sphincters (need more nutrients)

173
Q

Inc/dec HR effect on stroke volume and why?

A

Inc HR = dec SV
Dec HR = inc SV
-in order to maintain a constant CO on a beat to beat basis

174
Q

inotropic force

A

contractility (without inc EDV)

175
Q

venous return factors

A

blood volume
sympathetic tone
muscle pump

176
Q

how to identify muscular arteries

A

internal elastic lamina

177
Q

Mean systemic filling pressure (Psf) =

A

right atrial pressure when venous return equals zero

178
Q

Semi lunar valves are anchored to

A

annuli fibrosae

179
Q

Where are purkinje fibers found

A

in the subendocardium layer of the endocardium

180
Q

sinus venosus

A

right atrium, vena cava, coronary sinus

181
Q

primordial atrium

A

right and left auricle and left atrium

182
Q

primordial ventricle

A

left ventricle

183
Q

bulbus cordis (proximal 1/3)

A

muscular right vent

184
Q

bulbus cordis (conus cordis)

A

smooth outflow portion of right and left ventricle

185
Q

bulbus cordis (trunks arteriousus)

A

proximal aorta and pulmonary trunk

186
Q

aortic sac

A

aorta and pulmonary artery

187
Q

Vitelline veins form

A

superior mesenteric (right), splenic, and converge to make hepatic portal vein

188
Q

superior mesenteric vein comes from

A

right Vitelline Vein

189
Q

Left umbilical vein is obliterated

A

ligamentum teres hepatis

190
Q

Ductus venosus is also obliterated (right umbilical vein)

A

ligamentum venosum

191
Q

Double Inferior Vena Cava

A

persistent left sub cardinal vein

192
Q
S1
Ejection Click
S2
OS
S3
S4
A

S1: closure of the mitral and tricuspid valve
Ejection Click: opening of aortic valve (aortic stenosis)
S2: closure of aortic and pulmonic valve (aortic then pulmonic)
OS: opening of mitral/tricuspid valves (abnormal stenosis)
S3: sudden tension of chordae tendinea
S4: atrial kick (stiff ventricle)

193
Q

Accentuated S1

Diminished S1

A
  • exercise, sympathetic stimulation, mitral stenosis (mild)

- AV block, high diastolic filling pressure (stiff ventricle), and severe AV stenosis

194
Q

holosystole

A

all of systole (regurgitation)

195
Q

splitting occurring in expiration

A

-reversed splitting (LBBB)

196
Q

endothelin

A

vasoconstriction

197
Q

Natriuretic peptide

A

inc in renal blood flow, sodium loss

-fluid loss

198
Q

pressure inc/pressure dec, afferent discharge

A

inc/dec

199
Q

Angiotensin II

A

stimulates ACE

  • vasoconstrictor
  • inc thirst
  • reabsorption of Na+ -> fluid retention
200
Q

Long term control of blood pressure

A
  1. cardiovascular compensation mechanism
  2. Renin-angiosten alderstone system
  3. Renal mechansim
  4. Hypothalamic mechanism
  5. Atrial natriuretic peptide hormone
201
Q

Short term control of blood pressure

A
  1. baroreceptor reflex
202
Q

when and where is coronary blood flow least

A

endocardium left ventricle during isovolumic contraction

203
Q

why is aortic regurg high for MI

A

in systole more than normal

inc contraction puts more compression on CA

204
Q

how does enterotoxin work?

A

inhibits NaCl resorption
activates NaCl excretion
kills intestinal epithelial cells

205
Q

bacteria with capsule not made from polysaccharide

A

Bacillus anthracis

206
Q

most common viral nucleic acid

A

ssRNA

207
Q

During peak 0 phase of a cardiomyocyte what does the electrical and chemical gradient favor for Na+

A

chemical: in
electrical: out

208
Q

PR interval represents and long PR interval

A

AV conduction (AV block)

209
Q

Wide QRS

A

R/LBBB or Pre ventricular contraction (PVC) do to ischemia raising cell excitability

210
Q

Heart beat intervals

A

300 150 100 75 60 50 42

211
Q

paced by junctional tissue near the AV node

A

The absence of “P” waves along with a normal QRS complex morphology

212
Q

Cor triloculare biventriculare

A

Complete absence of atrial septum