Becker A1-A6 Flashcards

1
Q

According to SOX II, Auditor Independence, the lead audit partner and concurring partner must rotate off the audit every______ year(s).

A

5 Years

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2
Q

According to SOX Title I, Public Company Accounting Oversight Board, audit documentation must be maintained for_______ year(s).

A

7 years

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3
Q

According to the SEC, other audit partners should rotate off the audit engagement after no more than______year(s).

A

7 years.

(after 7 cycles of the audit engagement, like 7 dispensations of the earth, other audit partners should rotate off the audit engagement after no more than 7 years.)

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4
Q

According to the SEC, lead partners and concurring partners are subject to a _____year “time-out” period before returning to an engagement.

A

5 years.

(Like how the lead audit partners and concurring partners must rotate off the audit every 5 years, they must have a “time-out” period of 5 years to avoid reveiwing their own past audit work.)

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5
Q

Under SEC rules, covered persons include the audit engagement team and individuals within the audit chain of command. This includes any other partner, principal, shareholder, or managerial employee of the firm who provided______ or more hours of non-audit services.

A

10 hours.

(you would think it would have to be more than 10 hours, but nope, as soon as you hit double digits you qualify as a covered individual.)

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6
Q

A cool-off period of _____year(s) is required before a member of an issuer’s audit engagement team may begin working for a registrant in a key position.

A

1 year.

(to avoid something like a familiarity threat, there must be at least 1 years time between working on an audit engagement, to working in a key position at the audit client.)

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7
Q

The PCAOB will conduct annual inspections of registered public accounting firms that regularly provide audit reports for more than_____issuer(s).

A

100 issuers.

(idk this is the answer, but its kinda like a company that hits 100 employees must then provide medical insurance.)

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8
Q

Independence is considered impaired if a covered member’s aggregate outstanding balance from consumer loans has a balance greater than $____ after payment of the most recent monthly statements made by the due date or within any available grace period.

A

$10,000

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9
Q

In which situation would an auditor who is rendering an audit opinion on the financial statements of an employee benefit plan that will be filed with the Department of Labor be considered independent?

A

A member of the auditor’s firm was a voting trustee of the plan in a prior year but has since disassociated from the plan and did not participate in auditing the financial statements of the plan.

(it was important that the firm member was disassociated from the plan to prevent a familiarity threat, and as well for them to not audit the financial statements to prevent the self review threat.)

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10
Q

when communicating internal control related matters noted in a financial statement audit of a nonissuer, one of the things an auditor’s report issued on significant deficiencies should indicate is….

A

That the purpose of the audit was to report on the financial statements and not to provide assurance on internal control.

(it is important that the users of the audited financial statements understand exactly what was done so as to not confuse whats going on when the auditor is giving their opinion.)

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11
Q

An auditor may achieve audit objectives related to particular assertions by:

A

Performing analytical procedures.

(an auditor may use analytical procedures when evaluating actual vs expectations.)

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12
Q

10/MCQ-05004

A

The missing invoice should be counted as a deviation, resulting in a 2% sample deviation rate. However, this information alone is not sufficient to determine whether the control can be relied upon. The auditor would also need to know the upper deviation rate(or the allowance for sampling risk, which would allow the auditor to calculate the upper deviation rate). It is the upper deviation rate that needs to be compared to the tolerable rate in making decisions.

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13
Q

What would NOT be considered an analytical procedure?

A

Projecting an error rate by comparing the results of a statistical sample with the actual population characteristics.

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14
Q

Analytical procedures used in the planning phase of an audit should focus on:

A

Enhancing the auditor’s understanding of the transactions and events that have occurred since the last audit.

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15
Q

When there has been a change in accounting principles, but the effect of the change on the comparability of the financial statements is not material, the auditor should:

A

Not refer to the change in the auditor’s report.

(The change didn’t make any material difference, like a red dot being put on a slightly redder car, why worry about it? The normal user wouldn’t notice a difference anyways.)

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16
Q

Which of the following expressions most likely would be included in a management representation letter?

A

No events have occurred subsequent to the balance sheet date that require adjustment to, or disclosure in, the financial statements.

(this is something that management can directly testafy to.)

17
Q

What procedure would be included in a review engagement of a nonissuer?

A

Inquring about related party transactions.

18
Q

What statement is correct concerning the use of negative confirmation requests?

A

Unreturned negative confirmation requests rarely provide significant explicit evidence.

(just because the confirmation is unreturned, doesn’t mean the confirming party confirmed it. They probably didn’t even see it, or they just tossed the confirm in the trash.)

19
Q

A scope limitation requires the auditor to disclaim an opinion or withdraw from the engagment, and a material weakness in internal control requires the auditor to issue an adverse opinion. NEITHER situation would result in a qualified opinion.

A
20
Q

Trading securities are both current asssets and quick assets. If they are sold for their carrying value, then both total current assets and total quick assets remain constant since one type of current asset and quick asset is traded for another. Thus, both the current ratio and the quick ration would be unaffected by the sale of trading securities.

A
21
Q

The auditor of a nonissuer would most appropriately use reperformance to obtain audit evidence for what purpose?

A

To test the operating effectiveness of a bank reconciliation control.

(Reperformance occurs when an auditor independently perfoms procedures or controls to ensure that they were performed appropriately.)

22
Q

What procedure is performed first for unreturned positive confirmations of accounts receivable?

A

Sending second requests for confirmation of accounts receivables.

23
Q

What situation would not impair objectivity, integrity, or independence with respect to an audit client?

A

An out-of-town client takes the audit engagement team out to dinner at a renowned local restaurant.

(Things to consider:
*The nature of the gift or entertainment.
*The occasion giving rise to the gift or entertainment.
*The cost or value of the gift or entertainment)

24
Q

Sending confirmations may help facilitate the identification of fraud through fictitous customers/fake receivables.

A
25
Q

A clients accounting data cannot be considered sufficient audit evidence to support the financial statements.

A
26
Q

Data about future events cannot be accumulated in a cost-effective manner, is NOT a reason justifying the use of accounting estimates.

A
27
Q

If, while performing a review engagment, an accountant has reason to believe that a material misappropriation of assets might have occured, what should the accountant do?

A

Document communications with senior management about the matter.

28
Q

The independent auditor would not confirm directly with the client’s lawyer that all claims have been recorded in the financial statements. Managment has the responsibility to include all claims in the financial statements, not the lawyers. The purpose of a legal letter is to obtain outside CORROBORATION of the information furnished by management concerning litigation, claims, and assessments.

A
29
Q

SSARS requires compiled financial statements to be accompanied by a compilation report even if the financial statements are not expected to be used by a third party.

A
30
Q

An auditor’s analytical procedures indicate a lower than expected return on an equity method investment. This situation most likely could have been caused by:

A

An error in recording amortization of the excess of the investor’s cost over the investment’s underlying book value.

(If amortization is calculated incorrectly/i.e., the amortization is too high/, this could lower the return on the investment.)

31
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning probability proportional to size (PPS) sampling, also known as dollar unit sampling?

A

The auditor controls the risk of incorrect acceptance by specifying that risk level for the sampling plan.

32
Q

An issuer’s auditor is prohibited from providing tax services to which of the following individuals?

A

The CEO.