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BDS4 Exam Revision > BDS2 > Flashcards

BDS2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is kennedy class 1

A

bilateral free end saddles

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2
Q

what is kennedy class 2

A

unilateral free end saddle

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3
Q

what is kennedy class 3

A

unilateral bounded saddle

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4
Q

what is kennedy class 4

A

anterior saddle crossing midline only

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5
Q

what is craddock class 1

A

tooth supported

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6
Q

what is craddock class 2

A

mucosa supported

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7
Q

what is craddock class 3

A

mixed support

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8
Q

what does impression compound capture

A

saddle areas not teeth

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9
Q

what is the process for primary impressions

A

modify stock tray
take impression and inspect
disinfect

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10
Q

what is the aim of jaw registration

A

to tell technician where you want teeth to be

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11
Q

what is the purpose of a spacer

A

prevents distortion

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12
Q

if the framework fits the cast but not patient what is the issue

A

impressions or damage to cast

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13
Q

what do you check with delivery of dentures

A

fit, retention, stability, aesthetics, speech, occlusal contacts

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14
Q

what should denture instructions include

A

insertion/removal
coping with new dentures
pain
denture cleaning
speech and eating

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15
Q

what do you check for denture base pain

A

the extension

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16
Q

what do you check if the denture patient comes in with TMJ and MoM pain

A

OVD

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17
Q

what could the problem be if there is a retention issue for denture

A

overextension causing displacement
clasp engagement

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18
Q

what is RPI

A

stress relieving clasp system protecting abutment so no torque applied

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19
Q

what are the components of RPI

A

mesial rest
proximal plate
I bar clasp

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20
Q

what is plasma half life

A

time taken to eliminate half of drug

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21
Q

what is first order kinetics

A

drug metabolism increases with drug concentration

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22
Q

what is zero order kinetics

A

metabolise drug at fixed rate leading to accumulation if overdosed

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23
Q

what is first pass metabolism

A

liver metabolises all drugs taken orally to inactivate/activate drugs

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24
Q

what is bioavailability

A

portion of ingested drug available for clinical effect

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25
Q

what protein do drugs bind to transport around body system

A

plasma albumin

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26
Q

what do agonists do

A

cause an effect

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27
Q

what do antagonists do

A

stop an effect from happening

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28
Q

what affects drug efficacy

A

occupancy and affinity

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29
Q

what is anaemia

A

reduced haemoglobin

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30
Q

what can cause iron deficiency

A

coeliac
gastric ulcers
IBD
cancer
haemorrhoids

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31
Q

how is iron absorbed

A

through intestinal walls where it is converted from Fe3 to Fe2 and stored as ferritin

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32
Q

how is vitB12 absorbed

A

binds intrinsic factor and absorbed in terminal ileum

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33
Q

what does vitb12 come from

A

dairy and meat

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34
Q

what causes vitb12 deficiency

A

veganism
lack of intrinsic factor
terminal ileum disease

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35
Q

what does folic acid come from

A

vegetables

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36
Q

what is thalassaemia

A

issue with globin chains causing anaemia, cirrhosis and gallstones

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37
Q

what is sickle cell anaemia

A

globin chain issue preventing RBC passing through capillaries leading to ischaemia and necrosis

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38
Q

what do you need to diagnose which type of anaemia you have

A

Hb, RCC, HCT, MCV

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39
Q

what are the signs of anaemia

A

pallor, tachycardia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

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40
Q

what are the symptoms of anaemia

A

tired, weak, dizzy, palpitations

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41
Q

what are the dental signs of anaemia

A

glossitis
fissured tongue
RAS
candidiasis

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42
Q

what does leukaemia result in

A

anaemic
infection
bleeding

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43
Q

what is Hodgkins lymphoma

A

painless lymphadenopathy
high cure rate

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44
Q

what is non-Hodgkins lymphoma

A

extending further than lymph nodes and is aggressive with poor prognosis
associated with autoimmune disease/microbial/immunosuppression

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45
Q

what do inherited bleeding disorders affect

A

coagulation cascade or platelets

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46
Q

what affects the severity of haemophilia

A

amount of factor produced

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47
Q

how do you manage severe and moderate haemophilia A

A

recombinant factor VIII

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48
Q

how do you manage mild haemophilia A

A

DDAVP/tranexamic acid

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49
Q

how do you manage haemophilia B

A

factor IX

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50
Q

what dental anaesthetic procedures do you need to be careful with for haemophilia

A

IDB
posterior superior and lingual infiltration

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51
Q

what is warfarin

A

vitamin K antagonist

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52
Q

what drugs do you be careful with when someone is on warfarin

A

aspirin, azoles, NSAIDs, metronidazole

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53
Q

what do DOACs do

A

inhibit factor X

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54
Q

what drugs do you avoid if someone is on DOACs

A

NSAIDs
carbamazepine

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55
Q

what do antiplatelets do

A

inhibit platelet aggregation

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56
Q

what does warfarin do

A

inhibit synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2,7,9,10)

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57
Q

what INR levels do you need for someone on warfarin to continue with treatment

A

2-4

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58
Q

what do statins do
give example of one

A

inhibit cholesterol synthesis in liver
atorvastatin

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59
Q

what do beta blocker do
give example of one

A

reduce heart muscle excitability
propranolol

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60
Q

what do diuretics do
give example

A

increase salt and water loss (antihypertensive)
bendroflumethazide

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61
Q

what dental implication can diuretics have

A

dry mouth

62
Q

what do nitrates do
give example

A

dilate veins and arteries
GTN/isosorbide mononitrate

63
Q

what do Ca channel blockers do
give example

A

block calcium channels in smooth muscle
nifedipine

64
Q

what dental implication do Ca channel blockers have

A

gingival hyperplasia

65
Q

what do ACE inhibitors do
give example

A

inhibit conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 preventing reabsorption of salt and water and reduce BP
ramipril

66
Q

what dental implication do ACE inhibitors have

A

lichenoid reaction
angio-oedema

67
Q

what is stable angina

A

exercise only
plaque only

68
Q

what is unstable angina

A

anytime
plaque and thrombus

69
Q

what is NSTEMI

A

partial occlusion of vessel

70
Q

what is STEMI

A

complete occlusal of vessel

71
Q

what are the symptoms of MI

A

pain, nausea, pale, sweaty

72
Q

over what BP is hypertension

A

140/90

73
Q

what guidelines are used for IE

A

NICE

74
Q

name a common congenital heart disease

A

septal defect

75
Q

what procedures are risky for IE

A

procedures manipulating the dento-gingival junction

76
Q

what is the responsibility of the dentist for IE

A

identify at risk patients
prevention and OHI
remove dental sepsis
consult cardiologist, NICE, SDCEP

77
Q

what is type 1 respiratory failure

A

gas exchange failure

78
Q

what is type 2 respiratory failure

A

ventilation failure

79
Q

what do beta agonists do
give example

A

bronchodilate
salbutamol (SA)
salmeterol (LA)

80
Q

what do anticholinergics do
give example

A

inhibit muscarinic nerve transmission in autonomic nerves aiding dilation
ipsatropium

81
Q

what do respiratory corticosteroids do
give example

A

reduce inflammation of bronchial walls
beclomethasone

82
Q

what is asthma

A

narrowing due to bronchial smooth muscle constriction, bronchial mucosal oedema, excessive mucous secretion into airway lumen

83
Q

what makes up COPD

A

bronchiectasis
emphysema
asthma

84
Q

what do antacids do

A

eliminate formed acid

85
Q

what do H2 receptor blockers and PPI do

A

reduce acid secretion

86
Q

how do H2 receptor blockers work

A

prevent histamine activation

87
Q

how do PPIs work

A

inhibits all 3 pumps

88
Q

what are the features of crohns

A

cobbled and fissured mucosa
non-vascular
OFG potentially

89
Q

what are the features of UC

A

granulated and ulcers on mucosa
vascular so bleeding

90
Q

what is jaundice

A

accumulation of bilirubin in skin

91
Q

what is cirrhosis

A

damage, fibrosis and reorganisation of liver structure

92
Q

what fails in liver failure

A

synthetic function and metabolic function

93
Q

what dental considerations do we need to have for liver failure

A

clotting issues and altered metabolism
ensure INR is 1
make sure platelets are normal
care with drugs and doses
LA is okay to use

94
Q

what causes acromegaly

A

excess growth hormone

95
Q

what are the dental features of acromegaly

A

enlarged tongue
spacing
reverse overbite

96
Q

what are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A

excess sweating, weight loss, anxiety, muscle weakness

97
Q

what are the symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

tiredness, weight gain, cold, goitre, puffy face, angina, hair loss

98
Q

what do you need to avoid with hypothyroidism

A

sedatives

99
Q

what are the side effects of steroids

A

hypertension
diabetes
skin thinning
peptic ulcers
cancer

100
Q

what is cushings disease

A

adrenal hyperfunction

101
Q

what are the oral side effects of cushings

A

pigment in mucosa
candida

102
Q

what is addisons disease

A

adrenal hypofunction

103
Q

what drugs do we avoid with renal failure

A

NSAIDs

104
Q

what are the dental implications of renal failure

A

delayed eruption
oral ulceration
dysaesthesias
white patches
oral infections
dry mouth and taste issues
bleeding

105
Q

what is dental treatment like for people on renal replacement

A

do after dialysis
liaise for drugs
no long treatment plans
check drug interactions
increased cancer risk

106
Q

what are the components of composite

A

filler particles
resin (bisGMA)
camphorquinone
low weight dimethacrylates
silane coupling agent

107
Q

what is the purpose of bisGMA in composite

A

the part that polymerises

108
Q

what is camphorquinone

A

photoinitiator

109
Q

what is the purpose of low weight dimethacrylates

A

viscosity

110
Q

what is the purpose of silane coupling agent

A

bonds filler to resin

111
Q

what is the definition of depth of cure

A

depth at which material hardness is about 80% that of cured surface

112
Q

what is compressive strength of composite

A

300MPa

113
Q

what is the elastic modulus of composite

A

15GPa

114
Q

what are the thermal properties of composite

A

conductivity low
diffusivity low
expansion high

115
Q

what is amalgam made of

A

silver tin, copper, zinc as powder
mercury liquid

116
Q

what is the issue with zinc in amalgam

A

reacts with saliva and blood causing hydrogen bubbles to form in amalgam causing expansion, pulpal pain, high restoration

117
Q

what is compressive strength of amalgam

A

500MPa

118
Q

what is the consequence of creep on amalgam

A

ditched margins

119
Q

what are the thermal properties of amalgam

A

everything high

120
Q

what is the difference with copper enriched amalgam

A

> 6% copper, does not use SnHg (phase y2)
higher early strength, less creep, higher corrosion resistance, increased durability of margins

121
Q

what is the purpose of cavity liners

A

pulpal protection
therapeutic
palliative

122
Q

what is the setting reaction of CaOH

A

chelation reaction between ZnO and butylene glycol

123
Q

what are the advantages of CaOH

A

bacteriocidal as pH is 12
irritates odontoblasts causing necrosis and tertiary dentine

124
Q

what is the reaction of ZOE

A

ZnO reacting with eugenol to form a matrix

125
Q

what are the properties of ZOE and how do we make it better

A

bad strength, soluble, good thermal properties, sets fast
add resin or EBA

126
Q

what are the components of GIC

A

polyacrylic and tartaric acid
silica, alumina, CaF, AlF, AlPO, NaF

127
Q

what are the stages of setting reaction of GIC

A

dissolution
gelation
hardening

128
Q

what is dissolution

A

H+ ions from acid attack glass releasing Ca, Al, Na and F leaving silica gel around unreacted glass

129
Q

what is gelation

A

Ca+ crosslinking (bivalent) with polyacrylic acid causing initial set

130
Q

what is hardening

A

Al+ crosslinking (trivalent)

131
Q

what is added to GIC to make it RMGIC

A

HEMA resin and photoinitiators

132
Q

what is the dual cure of RMGIC

A

acid base and light cure

133
Q

what is the tri cure of RMGIC

A

acid base, light cure, REDOX

134
Q

what are the advantages of RMGIC compared to GIC

A

better strength, aesthetics, lower solubility

135
Q

what are the disadvantages of RMGIC

A

polymerisation, shrinkage, swelling due to HEMA, monomer leaching

136
Q

what are the beneficial properties of GIC and RMGIC

A

bacteriocidal
fluoride release

137
Q

what type of material is alginate

A

hydrocolloid

138
Q

what are the accuracy issues with alginate

A

poor tear strength
need to pour casts fast as dimensional change
can distort

139
Q

what causes gaseous porosity

A

curing PMMA too fast

140
Q

what causes contraction porosity

A

too much monomer in PMMA

141
Q

what happens if PMMA is undercured

A

free monomer causing irritation
low molecular weight

142
Q

what will porosity in PMMA affect

A

strength, appearance, texture, absorbs saliva

143
Q

what are the thermal properties of PMMA

A

high softening temperature
low conductivity
expansion alright if acrylic tooth used

144
Q

what does viscosity mean

A

flows readily and records surface detail

145
Q

what does surface wetting mean

A

contact made with teeth

146
Q

what does viscoelastic behaviour mean

A

material has some permanent deformation at the end (not truly elastic)

147
Q

what is tear strength

A

stress material withstands before fracturing

148
Q

what are the 7 elements of caries risk assessment

A

clinical evidence
dietary habits
social history
fluoride use
plaque control
saliva
medical history

149
Q

what are the 8 preventative elements of caries

A

radiographs
toothbrushing instruction
F strength
F supplements
F varnish
diet advice
fissure sealants
sugar free medications

150
Q

what clinical evidence is associated with high caries risk

A

dmft > 5
caries in 6s and 6yrs
3 year caries increment > 3

151
Q

when are bitewings taken for high risk children

A

every 6 months

152
Q

when are bitewings taken for low risk children

A

12-18months

BDS4 Exam Revision (6 decks)

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