BDS2 Flashcards
1
Q
what is kennedy class 1
A
bilateral free end saddles
2
Q
what is kennedy class 2
A
unilateral free end saddle
3
Q
what is kennedy class 3
A
unilateral bounded saddle
4
Q
what is kennedy class 4
A
anterior saddle crossing midline only
5
Q
what is craddock class 1
A
tooth supported
6
Q
what is craddock class 2
A
mucosa supported
7
Q
what is craddock class 3
A
mixed support
8
Q
what does impression compound capture
A
saddle areas not teeth
9
Q
what is the process for primary impressions
A
modify stock tray
take impression and inspect
disinfect
10
Q
what is the aim of jaw registration
A
to tell technician where you want teeth to be
11
Q
what is the purpose of a spacer
A
prevents distortion
12
Q
if the framework fits the cast but not patient what is the issue
A
impressions or damage to cast
13
Q
what do you check with delivery of dentures
A
fit, retention, stability, aesthetics, speech, occlusal contacts
14
Q
what should denture instructions include
A
insertion/removal
coping with new dentures
pain
denture cleaning
speech and eating
15
Q
what do you check for denture base pain
A
the extension
16
Q
what do you check if the denture patient comes in with TMJ and MoM pain
A
OVD
17
Q
what could the problem be if there is a retention issue for denture
A
overextension causing displacement
clasp engagement
18
Q
what is RPI
A
stress relieving clasp system protecting abutment so no torque applied
19
Q
what are the components of RPI
A
mesial rest
proximal plate
I bar clasp
20
Q
what is plasma half life
A
time taken to eliminate half of drug
21
Q
what is first order kinetics
A
drug metabolism increases with drug concentration
22
Q
what is zero order kinetics
A
metabolise drug at fixed rate leading to accumulation if overdosed
23
Q
what is first pass metabolism
A
liver metabolises all drugs taken orally to inactivate/activate drugs
24
Q
what is bioavailability
A
portion of ingested drug available for clinical effect
25
what protein do drugs bind to transport around body system
plasma albumin
26
what do agonists do
cause an effect
27
what do antagonists do
stop an effect from happening
28
what affects drug efficacy
occupancy and affinity
29
what is anaemia
reduced haemoglobin
30
what can cause iron deficiency
coeliac
gastric ulcers
IBD
cancer
haemorrhoids
31
how is iron absorbed
through intestinal walls where it is converted from Fe3 to Fe2 and stored as ferritin
32
how is vitB12 absorbed
binds intrinsic factor and absorbed in terminal ileum
33
what does vitb12 come from
dairy and meat
34
what causes vitb12 deficiency
veganism
lack of intrinsic factor
terminal ileum disease
35
what does folic acid come from
vegetables
36
what is thalassaemia
issue with globin chains causing anaemia, cirrhosis and gallstones
37
what is sickle cell anaemia
globin chain issue preventing RBC passing through capillaries leading to ischaemia and necrosis
38
what do you need to diagnose which type of anaemia you have
Hb, RCC, HCT, MCV
39
what are the signs of anaemia
pallor, tachycardia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
40
what are the symptoms of anaemia
tired, weak, dizzy, palpitations
41
what are the dental signs of anaemia
glossitis
fissured tongue
RAS
candidiasis
42
what does leukaemia result in
anaemic
infection
bleeding
43
what is Hodgkins lymphoma
painless lymphadenopathy
high cure rate
44
what is non-Hodgkins lymphoma
extending further than lymph nodes and is aggressive with poor prognosis
associated with autoimmune disease/microbial/immunosuppression
45
what do inherited bleeding disorders affect
coagulation cascade or platelets
46
what affects the severity of haemophilia
amount of factor produced
47
how do you manage severe and moderate haemophilia A
recombinant factor VIII
48
how do you manage mild haemophilia A
DDAVP/tranexamic acid
49
how do you manage haemophilia B
factor IX
50
what dental anaesthetic procedures do you need to be careful with for haemophilia
IDB
posterior superior and lingual infiltration
51
what is warfarin
vitamin K antagonist
52
what drugs do you be careful with when someone is on warfarin
aspirin, azoles, NSAIDs, metronidazole
53
what do DOACs do
inhibit factor X
54
what drugs do you avoid if someone is on DOACs
NSAIDs
carbamazepine
55
what do antiplatelets do
inhibit platelet aggregation
56
what does warfarin do
inhibit synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2,7,9,10)
57
what INR levels do you need for someone on warfarin to continue with treatment
2-4
58
what do statins do
give example of one
inhibit cholesterol synthesis in liver
atorvastatin
59
what do beta blocker do
give example of one
reduce heart muscle excitability
propranolol
60
what do diuretics do
give example
increase salt and water loss (antihypertensive)
bendroflumethazide
61
what dental implication can diuretics have
dry mouth
62
what do nitrates do
give example
dilate veins and arteries
GTN/isosorbide mononitrate
63
what do Ca channel blockers do
give example
block calcium channels in smooth muscle
nifedipine
64
what dental implication do Ca channel blockers have
gingival hyperplasia
65
what do ACE inhibitors do
give example
inhibit conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 preventing reabsorption of salt and water and reduce BP
ramipril
66
what dental implication do ACE inhibitors have
lichenoid reaction
angio-oedema
67
what is stable angina
exercise only
plaque only
68
what is unstable angina
anytime
plaque and thrombus
69
what is NSTEMI
partial occlusion of vessel
70
what is STEMI
complete occlusal of vessel
71
what are the symptoms of MI
pain, nausea, pale, sweaty
72
over what BP is hypertension
140/90
73
what guidelines are used for IE
NICE
74
name a common congenital heart disease
septal defect
75
what procedures are risky for IE
procedures manipulating the dento-gingival junction
76
what is the responsibility of the dentist for IE
identify at risk patients
prevention and OHI
remove dental sepsis
consult cardiologist, NICE, SDCEP
77
what is type 1 respiratory failure
gas exchange failure
78
what is type 2 respiratory failure
ventilation failure
79
what do beta agonists do
give example
bronchodilate
salbutamol (SA)
salmeterol (LA)
80
what do anticholinergics do
give example
inhibit muscarinic nerve transmission in autonomic nerves aiding dilation
ipsatropium
81
what do respiratory corticosteroids do
give example
reduce inflammation of bronchial walls
beclomethasone
82
what is asthma
narrowing due to bronchial smooth muscle constriction, bronchial mucosal oedema, excessive mucous secretion into airway lumen
83
what makes up COPD
bronchiectasis
emphysema
asthma
84
what do antacids do
eliminate formed acid
85
what do H2 receptor blockers and PPI do
reduce acid secretion
86
how do H2 receptor blockers work
prevent histamine activation
87
how do PPIs work
inhibits all 3 pumps
88
what are the features of crohns
cobbled and fissured mucosa
non-vascular
OFG potentially
89
what are the features of UC
granulated and ulcers on mucosa
vascular so bleeding
90
what is jaundice
accumulation of bilirubin in skin
91
what is cirrhosis
damage, fibrosis and reorganisation of liver structure
92
what fails in liver failure
synthetic function and metabolic function
93
what dental considerations do we need to have for liver failure
clotting issues and altered metabolism
ensure INR is 1
make sure platelets are normal
care with drugs and doses
LA is okay to use
94
what causes acromegaly
excess growth hormone
95
what are the dental features of acromegaly
enlarged tongue
spacing
reverse overbite
96
what are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism
excess sweating, weight loss, anxiety, muscle weakness
97
what are the symptoms of hypothyroidism
tiredness, weight gain, cold, goitre, puffy face, angina, hair loss
98
what do you need to avoid with hypothyroidism
sedatives
99
what are the side effects of steroids
hypertension
diabetes
skin thinning
peptic ulcers
cancer
100
what is cushings disease
adrenal hyperfunction
101
what are the oral side effects of cushings
pigment in mucosa
candida
102
what is addisons disease
adrenal hypofunction
103
what drugs do we avoid with renal failure
NSAIDs
104
what are the dental implications of renal failure
delayed eruption
oral ulceration
dysaesthesias
white patches
oral infections
dry mouth and taste issues
bleeding
105
what is dental treatment like for people on renal replacement
do after dialysis
liaise for drugs
no long treatment plans
check drug interactions
increased cancer risk
106
what are the components of composite
filler particles
resin (bisGMA)
camphorquinone
low weight dimethacrylates
silane coupling agent
107
what is the purpose of bisGMA in composite
the part that polymerises
108
what is camphorquinone
photoinitiator
109
what is the purpose of low weight dimethacrylates
viscosity
110
what is the purpose of silane coupling agent
bonds filler to resin
111
what is the definition of depth of cure
depth at which material hardness is about 80% that of cured surface
112
what is compressive strength of composite
300MPa
113
what is the elastic modulus of composite
15GPa
114
what are the thermal properties of composite
conductivity low
diffusivity low
expansion high
115
what is amalgam made of
silver tin, copper, zinc as powder
mercury liquid
116
what is the issue with zinc in amalgam
reacts with saliva and blood causing hydrogen bubbles to form in amalgam causing expansion, pulpal pain, high restoration
117
what is compressive strength of amalgam
500MPa
118
what is the consequence of creep on amalgam
ditched margins
119
what are the thermal properties of amalgam
everything high
120
what is the difference with copper enriched amalgam
>6% copper, does not use SnHg (phase y2)
higher early strength, less creep, higher corrosion resistance, increased durability of margins
121
what is the purpose of cavity liners
pulpal protection
therapeutic
palliative
122
what is the setting reaction of CaOH
chelation reaction between ZnO and butylene glycol
123
what are the advantages of CaOH
bacteriocidal as pH is 12
irritates odontoblasts causing necrosis and tertiary dentine
124
what is the reaction of ZOE
ZnO reacting with eugenol to form a matrix
125
what are the properties of ZOE and how do we make it better
bad strength, soluble, good thermal properties, sets fast
add resin or EBA
126
what are the components of GIC
polyacrylic and tartaric acid
silica, alumina, CaF, AlF, AlPO, NaF
127
what are the stages of setting reaction of GIC
dissolution
gelation
hardening
128
what is dissolution
H+ ions from acid attack glass releasing Ca, Al, Na and F leaving silica gel around unreacted glass
129
what is gelation
Ca+ crosslinking (bivalent) with polyacrylic acid causing initial set
130
what is hardening
Al+ crosslinking (trivalent)
131
what is added to GIC to make it RMGIC
HEMA resin and photoinitiators
132
what is the dual cure of RMGIC
acid base and light cure
133
what is the tri cure of RMGIC
acid base, light cure, REDOX
134
what are the advantages of RMGIC compared to GIC
better strength, aesthetics, lower solubility
135
what are the disadvantages of RMGIC
polymerisation, shrinkage, swelling due to HEMA, monomer leaching
136
what are the beneficial properties of GIC and RMGIC
bacteriocidal
fluoride release
137
what type of material is alginate
hydrocolloid
138
what are the accuracy issues with alginate
poor tear strength
need to pour casts fast as dimensional change
can distort
139
what causes gaseous porosity
curing PMMA too fast
140
what causes contraction porosity
too much monomer in PMMA
141
what happens if PMMA is undercured
free monomer causing irritation
low molecular weight
142
what will porosity in PMMA affect
strength, appearance, texture, absorbs saliva
143
what are the thermal properties of PMMA
high softening temperature
low conductivity
expansion alright if acrylic tooth used
144
what does viscosity mean
flows readily and records surface detail
145
what does surface wetting mean
contact made with teeth
146
what does viscoelastic behaviour mean
material has some permanent deformation at the end (not truly elastic)
147
what is tear strength
stress material withstands before fracturing
148
what are the 7 elements of caries risk assessment
clinical evidence
dietary habits
social history
fluoride use
plaque control
saliva
medical history
149
what are the 8 preventative elements of caries
radiographs
toothbrushing instruction
F strength
F supplements
F varnish
diet advice
fissure sealants
sugar free medications
150
what clinical evidence is associated with high caries risk
dmft > 5
caries in 6s and 6yrs
3 year caries increment > 3
151
when are bitewings taken for high risk children
every 6 months
152
when are bitewings taken for low risk children
12-18months
