BDOC QC Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible to follow the Communication Outage Check List during a communication outage?

A

The BDOC

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2
Q

What is a Security Status Checks by BDOC used for?

A

It provides a simple, fast and effective method to determine the safety and security of posts and patrols.

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3
Q

During Multiple alarm activations patrols will be advised to respond to the alarm by?

A

The Base Defense Operations Center will dispatch patrol according to the priority.

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4
Q

During a Communication Outage to the Primary Security Channel (SEC CH1) what channel would you use a as an alternate?

A

Security Channel 2

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5
Q

When multiple incidents occur what incidents are patrols dispatched to first?

A

The most serious incident or accident is handled first

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6
Q

Who will call the public health facility manager to arrange for disposal of bio waste bags?

A

a. Safety
b. Fire Dept
c. BDOC
d. Local Hospital

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7
Q

Reasonable Suspicion” to further investigate suspected drunken or drug impaired driving may include what type(s) of abnormal driving behavior?

A

a. Odor of an alcoholic beverage
b. Traffic violations, including fast or slow driving
c. Crossing or “hugging” the centerline
d. All of the above are correct

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8
Q

The odor of an alcoholic beverage by itself is enough probable cause for making an apprehension for drunk driving.

A

B. False

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9
Q

Which of the following is a requirement for personnel to be posted as a clearing barrel official?

A

a. Current authority to bear firearms
b. Concurrent qualification on the weapon they are clearing
c. Documented training on clearing procedures for each weapon
d. All of the above

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10
Q

When recovering a stolen vehicle with any evidentiary value the vehicle should be kept in Air Force custody.

A

True

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11
Q

Code responses (emergency lights and /or sirens) will NOT be used when conducting flight level exercises.

A

True

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12
Q

When operating a government vehicle the use of emergency lights and siren guarantees you the right of way. In addition, you must wear your seat belt at all times unless wearing the seat belt interferes with your assigned duties.

A

False

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13
Q

Which of the following aircraft is not designated as a Protection Level 3 resource?

A

Alert Compass Call (EC-130H) aircraft

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14
Q

Persons in Security Forces custody may be handcuffed to a desk or other heavy object to help maintain physical control. In addition, a suspect may be locked in the interview room without guards as long as the suspect is physically checked every 15 minutes.

A

False

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15
Q

The criteria supporting objective reasonableness is provided from three essential areas within the confrontational environment. What are they?

A

Subject(s) action(s), officer perception, and the officer response(s)

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16
Q

Who will make the determination to downgrade a protection level on an aircraft plane that is in a non flyable status, due to maintenance for a period longer then 72 hours.

A

Watch Commander

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17
Q

What factors will always take priority over initiating or continuing a vehicle pursuit?

A

Safety Considerations

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18
Q

What are the Security Forces rules on speeding while you are pursuing a suspect with your patrol vehicle?

A

Do not exceed the posted speed limit by more than a moderate speed

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19
Q

Which of the following incidents does not require issuance of a Victim Witness Assistance Program pamphlet?

A

Minor Vehicle Accident

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20
Q

The Victim Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) provides guidance on the treatment of victims and witnesses. The program includes reasonable protection from threats, intimidation, or any other form of harassment by the accused. The program is designed for victims and witnesses who suffer physical, financial, or emotional trauma to receive the assistance and protection to which they are entitled.

A

True

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21
Q

All personnel performing Security Forces duties have the potential to become exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials. As a minimum, what should you do to prevent contact with blood borne pathogens?

A

Always wear rubber/latex gloves when touching contaminated items

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22
Q

. If you are exposed to blood or other infectious material who should you report it to?

A

a. Notify immediate supervisor
b. Security Forces Operations
c. Local Clinic
d. Both A and C are correct

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23
Q

There are three types of personnel searches used in the Air Force. Which type of search is not an authorized personnel search?

A

Strip Search

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24
Q

Prior to questioning a CIVILIAN suspect, he or she should be advised of their legal rights according to _____ ?

A

5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution

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25
According to the US Army manual there is only one rule to remember when reading or reporting grid coordinates. Which below is the proper way to read a grid map?
Left to right; bottom to top
26
What is used in radio communications when correct reception is critical and words, abbreviations, or groups of letters are difficult to understand?
Pro-words
27
A temporary restricted area will be established for Protection Level IV resources?
False
28
During a bomb Threat, what is the proper cordon size if the device is SMALLER than a 55 gallon drum?
500 ft cordon
29
. During a bomb Threat, what is the proper cordon size if the device is LARGER than a 55 gallon drum?
1000 ft cordon
30
Security Forces may conduct a search based on consent to search. When you obtain consent to search, the individual giving consent must give it ____ and ____.
Freely and voluntarily
31
Your BDOC controller has one of your patrols involved in a pursuit driving incident, how often should the BDOC receive updates from the patrol while in pursuit?
Constantly
32
What will be used as the alternate control center if the primary control center becomes in-operational with no possibility of re-gaining control?
Fire Station #2
33
A drunk driver is stopped at Sierra 87. Which is most reasonable procedure you will advise your flight to do?
Detain the driver until the arrival of CHP or LASD
34
What Physiological factor affects your assessment of a threat?
The sympathetic nervous system
35
Law enforcement or Security personnel may have an obligation to apprehend rather than permit an individual to withdraw.
True
36
. How many patrol zone areas are at Plant 42?
3
37
Who has the overall decision making authority over all SF on duty.
Watch Commander
38
What does driving with lights and sirens means?
Request the right of way
39
Code 111 means one of the following.
DUI/DWI
40
A report is not required for a verbal altercation that does not substantiate emotional abuse.
True
41
Where does the Victim Witness Assistance Program originates from?
Victims Bill of Rights
42
What is a Security Status Checks by BDOC used for?
Provides a simple/effective method to determine security of posts
43
Where is the rally point for plant 42 SF personnel during an actual duress?
To the rear of building #553
44
When is "full Unit Recall" implemented?
When an incident occurs that requires complete unit response
45
What will happen at plant 42 when a bomb threat is received?
All day to day operations will cease
46
What do you do if you have a suspect in detained and he a warrant?
Call agency who issued warrant and request response to take custody
47
How do you deal with civilian offenders at plant 42 for a felony?
. Should release to civil authorities after coordinating with EAFB SJA
48
Repossession takes place Monday - Friday during what time?
0700 - 1630
49
During Bomb threats handheld radio transmission are restricted to?
25 feet
50
When investiating damage to private property, when is a report required?
Damage exceeds $500
51
What is a Code 19?
Shots Fired / Subject Down
52
During vehicle pursuits roadblocks can be utilized.
False
53
Who may authorize a search of personnel property?
Installation Commander of Designated Magistrate
54
Who is responsible for conducting a physical test of the alarm system?
Desk Officer
55
When dealing with personal or private information, Security Forces personnel should do the following.
Protect private information; do not disclose offenses or incidents
56
Which Security Forces section is responsible for managing the day-to-day security of the installation?
S-3 Operations and Training Flight
57
SF personnel when taking person(s) into custody will ensure the following
Person(s) in custody will be physically guarded at all times
58
SF personnel reporting that they have a subject in custody should use which code listed below?
Code 8
59
SF personnel in need of Emergency Assistance should utilize which code listed below?
Code 13
60
While conducting a exercise SF personnel will ensure the following is completed?
During exercises, Code 1 will be used unless advised otherwise by evaluating personnel
61
When conducting a pursuit in an attempt to stop/apprehend a violator, SF personnel will always:
Consider safety considerations such as other traffic, pedestrians etc.
62
Which types of ID cards are authorized as primary forms of ID for entry to AF Plant 42 ASC DET 1
Common Access Card (AF FM 354-Civilian ID card)
63
. While conducting one hundred percent ID checks, SF personnel will conduct the following ASC DET 1,
Check credentials of all vehicle drivers/pedestrians required access
64
If an individual approaches one of your gates and request political asylum or refuge which steps below would your entry controller apply?
Complete a simple frisk/pat
65
The following person(s) are authorized to consent to search.
Owner of the property sought to be searched
66
The Base Defense Operation Center controller (Desk Officer) will initiate a status check with all posts and patrols that have not communicated with the Security Desk within the past ________?
One hour in daylight hours and 30 minutes during hours of darkness
67
. Force Protection BRAVO means?
Increased or more predictable threat of possible terrorist activity
68
T/F:SF has the authority to apprehend anyone regardless of status
False
69
The U.S. has the same rights as any property owner-the U.S. and its personnel on base are treated as tenants, subject to the state law, describes what type of jurisdiction?
Proprietary
70
Which of the following is not a required entry for the SF Blotter?
Traffic Stops
71
Which patrol assigned to AF Plant 42 will cover the most critical asset on the installation?
Sierra 76
72
Random Anti terrorism Measures (RAMS), at a minimum, shall consist of the random implementation of higher FPCON measures, to include MAJCOM or locally developed site-specific measures, in consideration of the local terrorist capabilities.
True
73
Probable cause is as defined as facts and circumstances that lead a reasonable person to believe:
A certain person committed the offense
74
. One of your patrols has just completed a report for vandalism to their vehicle. Which form will be issued to the individual as part of the Victim Witness Assistance Program?
DD Form 2701
75
During the process of making internal notifications, who would be considered the lowest level for you to make as a BDOC controller?
Watch commander
76
You have a bomb threat at bldg 552 and have requested Explosive Detector Dog support from Edwards Air Force Base to search the facility. If a known detonation time exists, when should you suspend search efforts?
30 minutes prior to that time/do not reenter the area for 30 minutes
77
Under what circumstances can one of your assigned patrols leave their patrol sector?
When directed by the BDOC controller or Watch Commander
78
To maximize the effectiveness and deterrence value, RAMs should be:
Without a set pattern
79
What personnel may use radar on the plant?
Only certified radar operators
80
While utilizing code 3 to and emergency situation, SF personnel should always
Obey all posted Speed limits
81
While responding to all alarm activations, SF personnel will adhere to the following
Utilize a Code 2 response, obey all traffic laws and speed limits unless directed by the BDOC and or Watch Commander and ensure prior to arrival that all lights are turned off to avoid detection.
82
When seizing property, the following will be adhered to.
a. Property will be recorded on AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, to ensure chain of custody b. Discovery of Evidence of Unrelated Crime or Offense c. When making a lawful search, evidence connected or related to the crime being investigated or other evidence that is connected to a different crime or offense may be seized d. All of the above
83
Which answer describes apprehension?
The taking of a person into custody. Any officer, warrant officer, noncommissioned officer (NCO) or other person designated by proper authority
84
Which of the following does not describe a duty of personnel working the Base Defense Operations Center?
Check the status of vehicles, communications equipment, and availability of grid maps, checklists and any other equipment personnel will need during their tour of duty
85
Which of the following is a proper procedure for securing a transient aircraft at AF Plant 42?
Meet the aircraft upon its arrival, obtain a copy of crew orders, have External Security Response Team authenticate the orders, and then provide a copy to the BDOC
86
Which of the following is/are the correct procedure(s) for alarm responses during non-duty hours once a 360-degree security has been established?
a. The on-scene commander will designate a patrol to conduct an exterior check of the facility b. Patrols will remove vehicles keys prior to conducting an exterior search of the facility or area c. The facility will be approached tactically and all doors, windows, and possible escape routes will be physically checked. If contact is made with a suspect(s), immediately take cover, notify OSC and initiate a challenge. d. All of the above
87
What jurisdiction is enforced at AF Plant 42?
Proprietary
88
In SF code of conduct of on and off duty security forces which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
Security Forces have the authority only to apprehend or detain, based on probable cause, but not to punish offenders
89
Once under cover, what is the proper way to perform a challenge of someone on foot?
Bring the M4 carbine to port arms or the M9 pistol to ready pistol (M9 in holster
90
What is/are some of the key considerations prior to handcuffing?
Your perception of the threat to your own personal safety and that of innocent
91
At what location should the Entry Control Point be established for a Major Accident Response?
Initially located upwind, on the perimeter of the cordon, within a 90-degree arc on either side of the current surface wind
92
. While attempting to interview a civilian suspected of an offense the civilian refuses to be questioned. What action should you take?
Make a written memorandum indicating the facts in the situation
93
During the arrival of a non protection level unauthorized aircraft, what of the following must occur?
Check on the aircraft every two hours
94
If a caller cannot be verified while attempting to open an alarmed facility, what actions should the BDOC controller take?
Treat as a duress situation
95
How should patrols be called in for relief at shift change?
One or two at a time
96
Which incidents would take the highest priority when several incidents occur simultaneously?
Handle most serious incident
97
The BDOC is considered a:
Controlled Area
98
Which of the following is a responsibility of the BDOC controller when assuming post?
a. Receive briefing from the oncoming Watch Commander b. Sign, account for, and receive all properties not in the evidence locker c. Review blotters from previous 96 hours d. Contact S5 if enough vehicles are not available for posting
99
What actions will be taken upon arrival at a crime scene?
a. Assess need for medical treatment. Render first aid if necessary. b. Remove personnel from the immediate area of the crime scene to prevent evidence from being disturbed or destroyed. c. Once the area is stabilized, document personnel entering on an AF Form 1109 d. All of the above
100
Which of the following is not a reason for possible abandonment of vehicles?
a. No display of state license plates or license plates which have been expired for more than three months. b. Missing parts which make the vehicle not operational. Examples: engine, tires, doors, c. Any vehicle left unattended on the roadway or shoulder of the road in excess of 4 hours. d. Both a and b are correct