BCIT 5th class boiler engineer quiz 10 Flashcards
To avoid cracking a folded rubber-lined cotton fire hose should be
a) dried thoroughly after use.
b) stored in a dry location.
c) unfolded and refolded with folds in different place periodically.
d) treated with storage solution.
e) kept moist during storage.
c) unfolded and refolded with folds in different place periodically.
B03 CH09 Q026
Indoor fire hoses are usually made of rubber-lined light-weight cotton or unlined linen. Hoses of this type take up comparatively little space. When stored dry in heated areas, unlined linen hose will last almost indefinitely but it will rapidly deteriorate when subjected to moist or wet conditions.
Fire hoses should be in a proper position on the hose rack. To prolong the life of folded hoses, they should be unfolded and refolded three to four times a year and the folds should be made at different places each time to avoid cracking. At intervals, new gaskets should be installed in the couplings, at hose valves, and at the nozzles. At least once a year, all fire hoses should be leak and pressure tested, however, this does not apply to unlined linen hose since this type of hose is extremely difficult to dry and even a slight dampness may cause it to rot or mildew during storage.
After checking each extinguisher how is the inspection recorded?
a) Signing the fire extinguisher with a felt marker.
b) Informing the building supervisor.
c) Recording information on the record keeping system.
d) Recording information in the building log book.
e) Writing the inspection date on a tag on the extinguisher.
e) Writing the inspection date on a tag on the extinguisher.
B03 CH09 Q052
a) Portable fire extinguishers should be given a quick check every three months to give reasonable assurance that:
1. They have not been activated. Wire or nylon seals should be intact.
2. Hose and horn are free of obstructions.
3. There is no obvious physical damage or deterioration. At least once every six months, the extinguisher and all its parts (including gasket and hose) must be examined for deterioration or damage. Ensure that the hose elbow and orifices of the nozzle are not clogged, that threaded connections are tight, that the powder is in free-running condition, and that the cartridge has not lost weight due to leakage. (It should be weighed on an accurate scale). If cartridge weight is 10 percent below the stamped weight on the hexagon head, it must be replaced. A stored pressure-type unit must be weighted to determine if it is fully charged with dry chemical and the gage checked to determine if it is fully pressurized.
b) Record the inspection date on the tag attached to the extinguisher and initial it.
With CO2 extinguishers, the agent should be applied even after the flames have been extinguished
a) because the carbon dioxide may dissipate.
b) when used on Class D fires.
c) in order to allow time for cooling to prevent reflash.
d) only if used on an electrical fire.
e) because all the CO2 must be discharged from the cylinder.
c) in order to allow time for cooling to prevent reflash.
B03 CH09 Q044
Carbon dioxide smothers and cools the fire. If a fire is smothered by the gas and the embers are still hot when the gas is turned off, the fire may re-ignite.
The figure shows a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher. Label the figure by matching the component name with the number identifying it.
____ 1. Liquid CO2 Charge
____ 2. Discharge Horn
____ 3. Siphon Tube
____ 4. Operating Lever
B03 CH09 Q050
Number Component
2 Liquid CO2Charge
1 Discharge Horn
4 Siphon Tube
3 Operating Lever
The fire extinguisher shown is the
a) carbon dioxide type.
b) dry chemical cartridge type.
c) stored pressure water type.
d) pump tank type.
e) foam type.
e) foam type.
B03 CH09 Q042
The fire extinguisher shown in the figure is the foam type. The extinguisher shell contains a water solution of sodium carbonate with a foam stabilizing agent. An inner container holds a water solution of aluminum sulfate. When the extinguisher is inverted, the lead stopple drops down permitting the two solutions to mix and produce a chemical foam. Carbon dioxide released in the chemical reaction produces sufficient pressure to expel the foam. These units cannot be operated intermittently. Once activated, the extinguisher will empty themselves.
Vertical pipelines extending from fire pumps on the lower floors of a building up through each floor are called
a) fire lines.
b) stand pipes.
c) return lines.
d) hydrants.
e) mains.
b) stand pipes.
B03 CH09 Q022
Standpipes are vertical pipelines extending from the city water supply or fire pumps on the lower floors of a building up through each floor to the top floor or roof. On each floor, outlets are fitted with valves and attachments for a fire hose. At the bottom of the standpipe, an external connection is provided for attaching a water supply from a pumper truck. They are required wherever automatic sprinkler systems are not provided and in areas of buildings not readily accessible to hose lines from outside the building.
Fire extinguishers in which chemicals are mixed to produce gas to pressurize the container are referred to as
a) chemical reaction pressure units.
b) internal generated pressure units.
c) hand generated pressure units.
d) stored pressure units.
e) vaporizing liquid pressure units.
b) internal generated pressure units.
B03 CH09 Q036
Internally Generated Pressure
Foam extinguishers generate their own pressure when chemicals within the extinguisher are mixed to produce gas that expels the extinguishing agent.
When using a ladder in a public place you must always
a) chain and lock the ladder to avoid theft.
b) record the use in a log book.
c) ensure that the ladder is equipped with wheels.
d) advise the safety co-ordinator.
e) erect a barrier to protect the public.
e) erect a barrier to protect the public.
B03 CH10 Q010
When using a ladder in a public access route or hallway, place a barricade around the area, or position someone at the base of the ladder to inform people of the danger the danger.
Which of the following workers are NOT covered by provincial health and safety legislation?
a) domestic workers.
b) school teachers.
c) store clerks.
d) operating engineers.
e) nurses.
a) domestic workers.
B03 CH13 Q004
domestic workers.
It is up to an employer to minimize the number of confined spaces in their facility.
True
False
True
B03 CH11 Q004
9.4 Control of hazards
The employer must ensure that all confined space hazards are eliminated or minimized and that work is performed in a safe manner.
One advantage of a fluorescent light over an incandescent is that
a) They are better for spot lighting.
b) Various wattage lights can be used in the same fixture.
c) The same unit can be used at different voltages.
d) They are less expensive.
e) The glow of the fluorescent light makes it ideal for reading.
e) The glow of the fluorescent light makes it ideal for reading.
B03 CH14 Q022
The two common electric light sources are incandescent and fluorescent. There are advantages and disadvantages to both types. If unshaded, the incandescent light produces glare. The soft daylight glow of the fluorescent light makes it ideal for reading, sewing, and other close work. Fluorescent units are slightly more expensive but they produce about three times more usable light than do incandescent lights. They give off little heat and last much longer. Unlike the incandescent light, different wattages are not interchangeable.
A building draws an average of 75 amps at 220 volts for one day (24 hours). What electrical consumption that will be billed for by the utility company.
a) 70.4 Wh
b) 396 kWh
c) 687.5 Wh
d) 687.5 kWh
e) 396 000 kWh.
b) 396 kWh
B03 CH14 Q014
Power = amps x volts =75 x 220 = 16 500 watts
= 16.5 kW
Hours that power is drawn = 24
therefore energy consumed = 16.5 x 24 = 396 kWh
A 30 watt uninterruptible power supply provides 12 volts to a building security system. What is the maximum current flow that can be provided.
a) 2.5 amps.
b) 25 amps.
c) 360 ohms.
d) 360 amps.
e) 2.5 ohms.
a) 2.5 amps.
B03 CH14 Q012
Power = amps x volts amps = Power/volts = 30/12
= 2.5 amps
When a room is fitted with fixtures that throw all the light on the ceiling and reflected light illuminates the area, the method is called
a) spot lighting.
b) direct lighting.
c) accent lighting.
d) diffuse lighting.
e) indirect lighting.
e) indirect lighting.
B03 CH14 Q024
When a room is fitted with fixtures that do not permit any light to fall on ceilings and walls but instead throw all of the light directly on the area to be lighted, the method is called direct lighting. When the fixtures throw all the light on the ceiling and reflected light illuminates the area to be lighted, the method is called indirect lighting.
An electric toaster has 9 amps flowing at 115 volts. The power consumption is
a) 1.125 kW.
b) 945 watts.
c) 864.5 kWh.
d) 1.035 kW.
e) 1035 kWh.
d) 1.035 kW.
B03 CH14 Q032
9 x 115 = 1035 w = 1.035 kW
When pentameters are used in weld testing, the test method is
a) ultrasonic.
b) dye penetrant.
c) radiographic.
d) tensile.
e) visual.
c) radiographic.
B03 CH15 Q026
When pentameters are used in weld testing, the test method is radiographic.
Of the following, which is NOT an example of a destructive test?
a) impact test
b) bend test
c) radiographic test
d) fracture test
e) tensile test
c) radiographic test
B03 CH15 Q018
Faults in welding may range from faulty metallurgical characteristics to such physical imperfections as:
Cracks
Undercut
Porosity
Lack of penetration
Slag inclusions
Dimensional defects
Lack of fusion
When the negative lead is clamped to the work the connection is called
a) postheating
b) straight polarity
c) reverse polarity
d) preheating
e) residual stress
c) reverse polarity
B03 CH15 Q010
When the negative lead is clamped to the work the connection is called reverse polarity.
The method of testing which has no equal in avoiding errors during the welding process is the
a) chemical analysis method.
b) dye penetrant.
c) radiographic method.
d) ultrasonic method.
e) visual method.
e) visual method.
B03 CH15 Q024
The method of testing which has no equal in avoiding errors during the welding process is the visual method.
Heating to a welded part immediately after welding to prevent cracking by slowing the cooling rate of the weld is called
a) straight polarity
b) residual stress
c) preheating
d) postheating
e) reverse polarity
d) postheating
B03 CH15 Q012
Heating to a welded part immediately after welding to prevent cracking by slowing the cooling rate of the weld is called postheating.
When doing a titration method of any water test, the end point of the test is indicated by
a) a sudden increase in temperature.
b) a colour change.
c) a change in a meter reading.
d) the sample turning a blue colour.
e) the sample being compared to a known standard colour.
b) a colour change.
B03 CH16 Q030
Titration
This testing procedure generally involves adding a measured amount of specific chemicals to a sample consisting of a specific amount of water so that a colour change is produced. From the amount of chemicals added, the quantity of a specific impurity or treatment chemical contained in the water can be calculated by means of a simple formula.
A water test which involves the use of an electronic meter is the
a) excess sulphite test.
b) pH test.
c) oxygen test.
d) P alkalinity test.
e) hardness test.
b) pH test.
B03 CH16 Q034
A water test which involves the use of an electronic meter is thepH test.
A testing procedure involving adding a measured amount of specific chemicals so that a colour change is produced is called
a) comparison test.
b) colormetric test.
c) instrument test.
d) pH test.
e) titration test.
e) titration test.
B03 CH16 Q028
Titration
This testing procedure generally involves adding a measured amount of specific chemicals to a sample consisting of a specific amount of water so that a colour change is produced. From the amount of chemicals added, the quantity of a specific impurity or treatment chemical contained in the water can be calculated by means of a simple formula.
Methods used to prevent backflow into a water supply system include
a) Air Gap Backflow Prevention.
b) Double Check Valve.
c) Pressure Vacuum Breaker.
d) Atmospheric Vacuum Breaker.
e) All of the above.
e) All of the above.
B03 CH16 Q018
Air Gap Backflow Prevention
An air gap is a physical separation between the free flowing discharge end of a potable water pipe and an open or non-pressure receiving vessel. Every plumbing fixture in a building receives pure water and usually discharges it at some lower point. These two points are often close to each other and it is possible for sewage water intended for the drain to be siphoned accidentally into a pipe carrying pure water.
Reduced Pressure Principal Device
This device consists of two independently acting check valves with an automatic operating pressure differential relief valve located between the two check valves. The pressure between the two check valves is kept lower than the supply pressure by the first check valve. If for any reason either check valve leaks, the relief valve will discharge to atmosphere, maintaining the pressure in the area between the two check valves at lower than the supply pressure.
Double Check Valve
This device is simply two independently acting check valves that will close in a pressure differential if the supply pressure is lower than the downstream pressure.
Pressure Vacuum Breaker
This device consists of a single body containing a spring loaded check valve that opens to admit air whenever the pressure within the body approaches atmospheric pressure.
Atmospheric Vacuum Breaker
An atmospheric vacuum breaker has a moving element inside that prevents water from spilling from the device during flow. If the flow should stop, the device drops down to provide a vent opening.
A method of treatment which is often used in conjunction with settling tanks is
a) deaeration.
b) lime soda softening.
c) zeolite softening.
d) evaporation.
e) filtration.
e) filtration.
B03 CH16 Q026
A method of treatment which is often used in conjunction with settling tanks isfiltration.
Sprinkler systems installed in garages in cold climates should be of the
a) wet pipe system type.
b) antifreeze system type.
c) pressurized type.
d) dry pipe system type.
e) heated type.
d) dry pipe system type.
B03 CH09 Q028
Dry Pipe Systems
These systems are found in environments where the temperature is maintained below 4°C. The system piping contains air under pressure. A dry-pipe valve is used to hold back the water supply and serve as the water/air interface. The valve acts on a pressure differential principle, the surface area of the valve face on the airside being greater than the surface area on the waterside.
When a fire occurs and enough heat is generated, one or more sprinklers will operate. The system air pressure will then escape through the open sprinklers, drop to a predetermined level and allow the dry pipe valve to open. Once the valve opens, the water supply will be admitted into the system piping filling the pipe network. Water will then discharge from any sprinklers that have operated.
These systems are more complex, require a reliable air supply source and involve specific design limitations such as the volume of pipe that can be governed by one dry pipe valve. Special adjustments are necessary for the anticipated area of operation.
Dry pipe systems can be found in buildings that are not maintained at the 4°C limit, such as outdoor canopies and structures and cold-storage warehouses.
When a building is equipped with fire pumps, the main fire pump is normally started
a) automatically when the jockey pump shuts down.
b) automatically when water flow is detected in the fire system.
c) automatically when the smoke detector senses a fire.
d) automatically when fire system pressure drops.
e) by the building operator when necessary.
d) automatically when fire system pressure drops.
B03 CH09 Q054
Buildings using fire pumps normally maintain the pressure in the fire system with a small jockey pump. If sprinklers are tripped, the jockey pump is too small to supply adequate water to the fire. As a result the pressure in the system drops and a pressure switch starts the main fire pumps.
Installation of electrical equipment must be carried out by qualified People who are well versed in the
a) use of installation tools.
b) building design.
c) installation procedures.
d) operation of the equipment.
e) electrical code.
e) electrical code.
B03 CH09 Q018
Many electrical fires are caused by using equipment in an application for which it is not designed or designed Installation of electrical equipment must be carried out by qualified people who are well versed in the Electrical Code.
The fire extinguisher shown is the
a) dry chemical cartridge type.
b) foam type.
c) carbon dioxide type.
d) pump tank type.
e) stored pressure water type.
d) pump tank type.
B03 CH09 Q038
The extinguisher shown in this figure is a water pump tank. It consists of a tank holding water or an antifreeze solution with a built-in pump and a hose and nozzle. The pump discharges water at both the up-stroke and down-stroke. This unit may be operated intermittently, therefore, it is useful in areas where large amounts of water would be superfluous.
Manual alarm systems in most larger buildings are tied in with a
a) building manager’s pager.
b) video monitoring systems.
c) line to the main switchboard.
d) preact sprinkler system.
e) fire department alarm center.
e) fire department alarm center.
B03 CH09 Q032
Manual alarm systems in most larger buildings are tied in with a fire department alarm centre. When such an alarm system is energized, it automatically sounds a coded signal to the fire department indicating the need for assistance and, at the same time, identifying the building the signal originates from.
Two types of smoke detectors used in buildings are
a) rate-of-rise and fixed temperature.
b) heat sensitive and photo-electric.
c) rate-of-rise and heat sensitive.
d) fixed temperature and ionization.
e) photo-electric and ionization.
e) photo-electric and ionization.
B03 CH09 Q034
Photo-electric smoke detectors consists basically of two main components:
* a light source which sends out a beam of light and
* a receiving unit containing a photo-electric eye.
The units are mounted on opposite sides of the space to be supervised. The beam of light is focused on the electric eye and as long as the eye receives a clear beam of light, the receiving unit will keep an alarm switch in open position. When smoke starts obscuring the light beam and reaches a critical value, the receiving unit trips the alarm system.
Ionization smoke detectors are a spot type detectors that electronically respond to the presence of combustion particles in the air. When the amount of particles reaches a predetermined level, the detector triggers the alarm.
The fire extinguisher shown is the
a) dry chemical cartridge type.
b) stored pressure water type.
c) foam type.
d) carbon dioxide type.
e) pump tank type.
b) stored pressure water type.
B03 CH09 Q040
The fire extinguisher shown here is the stored pressure water type. The expellant gas and extinguishing agent are stored in a single chamber, and the discharge is controlled by a shut-off valve. A pressure gauge located at the top of the extinguisher gives a constant reading of the pressure in the cylinder. These units are capable of both intermittent and continuous operation. To operate this unit, pull a locking pin and squeeze the handle, directing the stream at the base of the flames, working from side to side or around the fire. This unit must not be inverted for operation. The modern stored pressure water extinguisher uses a cylinder of carbon dioxide to apply pressure to expel the water onto the fire.
All paints a solvents should be stored
a) in the boiler room.
b) near an emergency exit.
c) under water.
d) in the basement.
e) outside the main building.
e) outside the main building.
B03 CH10 Q006
Any and all petroleum-based solvents must be stored outside of the main building.
Supplier labels normally contain information in
a) 4 specific areas.
b) 7 specific areas.
c) 12 specific areas.
d) 6 specific areas.
e) 8 specific areas.
b) 7 specific areas.
B03 CH12 Q004
7 specific areas.
Of the following hazards, which one can result form improper procedures for entering a confined space.
a) Lack of proper air ventilation may be, or become, a life threatening problem, because of design or construction.
b) Improper lighting makes it difficult to see or identify hazards.
c) The atmosphere within the area may contain elements which make it toxic, explosive, and/or flammable.
d) Harmful substances and/or creatures may be present.
e) All of the above.
e) All of the above.
B03 CH11 Q002
Possible hazards presented by entering into a confined space:
- Escape and/or rescue in an emergency may be difficult, since entry and/or exit, and possibly movement within the confined space is restricted.
- Lack of proper air ventilation may be, or become, a life threatening problem, because of design or construction.
- The atmosphere within the area may be deficient in oxygen and thus unable to sustain life. The minimum level should not be below 20% 02 by volume.
- The atmosphere within the area may contain elements which make it toxic, explosive, and/or flammable.
- Harmful substances and/or creatures may be present.
*The environment, or work in progress, may cause equipment being used to become a hazard. - The use of improper equipment (for example, 110 volt equipment being used in a vessel) creates potentially dangerous conditions.
- Improper lighting makes it difficult to see or identify hazards.
The type of switch required to operate a light from two separate locations is the
a) 3-way switch.
b) 4-way switch.
c) 2-way switch.
d) double throw switch.
e) double pole switch.
a) 3-way switch.
B03 CH14 Q018
To operate a light from two separate locations requires two three way switches. To operate a light from 3 locations requires two three way switches and one four way switch.
The voltage, current rating and other information for a motor can be found on the
a) invoice.
b) equipment inventory.
c) motor name plate.
d) maintenance log.
e) motor chart.
c) motor name plate.
B03 CH14 Q028
The voltage and current rating, or wattage, of a motor can be found on the nameplate. Other information includes the current, frequency, speed, horsepower, and allowable heat rise.
A monthly (30 day) electric bill for a building is $1230.00 when the cost of electricity is $0.08 per kWh. If the supply voltage is 220 volts what is the average current flow into the building.
a) 14.91 amps
b) 97.06 amps
c) 14.91 ohms
d) 21.354 amps
e) 21.354 kW
b) 97.06 amps
B03 CH14 Q016
hours of operation = hours per day x days per month = 24 x 30 = 720 hr
cost of energy = kilowatt hours x cost per kWh
kilowatt hours = cost of energy/cost per kWh = 1230.00/0.08 = 15 375 kWh
Therefore kilowatts = 15 375 /720 = 21.354 kW or 21 354 watts
Power = amps x volts
amps = Power/volts = 21354/220 = 97.06 amps
The safety device that must be included in all receptacles located outside or in bathrooms to avoid shock is called
a) a fuse.
b) a shock arrester.
c) a double insulated receptacle.
d) a ground fault interrupter.
e) a circuit breaker.
d) a ground fault interrupter.
B03 CH14 Q026
All receptacles that are outdoors, in bathrooms, or supply power to water-fed appliances are required to be protected by a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFI). This device compares the current leaving the electrical panel to that returning. Any less current returning than leaving is determined to be a fault and the power is immediately disconnected.
The letters ULC means that an electrical device has been tested by
a) American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
b) Unified Insurance Advisors.
c) Canadian Standards Association.
d) BC Safety Authority.
e) None of the above.
e) None of the above.
B03 CH14 Q030
None of the Above.
The letters ULC mean that the item has been tested by Underwriters Laboratory
The weld test that uses a pellet of radium or cobalt is the
a) ultrasonic test.
b) flourescent penetrant test.
c) impact test.
d) tensile test.
e) radiographic test.
e) radiographic test.
B03 CH15 Q020
Radiography is a non-destructive test method that shows defects in the interiors of welds that would not be visible to the eye. This inspection method makes use of the ability of short wavelength radiations, such as x-rays or gamma rays, to penetrate the weld. The rays penetrate objects opaque to ordinary light, and like ordinary light can affect sensitized photographic paper. Therefore, if a source of such radiation is placed on one side of the welded joint, and a sensitized photographic paper placed on the other side it will be affected by the radiation coming through the plate and the weld. A certain amount of the radiation is absorbed by the metal and the amount depends on the thickness and the type of metal. Any cracks, porosity, or light slag inclusion in the weld, more light will come through at that point and the film will be darker as a result of this extra light. Thus an image or shadow of the defect is revealed on the film.
When using gamma rays for radiography, a radioactive material such as radium or cobalt is used. The gamma rays emitted by this material pass through the weld metal and register on a film located on the opposite side of the weld and any defects in the weld will be evident.
To control the quality and reliability of the test, strips of metal called pentameters are used during the radiographic inspection of a weld. These are made of the same materials as the welded parts. Usually several small holes are drilled in the pentameter and it is placed adjacent to the weld. When the radiographic “picture” of the weld is taken, the outline of the pentameter will be visible on the film and this will give an indication of the sensitivity and clarity of the radiograph.
Procedure Qualification means that a welder can
a) be tested before doing a specific weld type.
b) All of the above.
c) be tested any time the inspector requests.
d) perform only a specific type of weld.
b) All of the above.
B03 CH15 Q022
All of the above.
As welders become qualified for a welding process, they are issued a _____________________ _______________ ______________ which describes exactly which welds they are allowed to make.
a) welding process certificate
b) certificate of competency
c) welding certification card
d) performance qualification card
e) tradesman’s qualification certificate
d) performance qualification card
B03 CH15 Q014
As welders become qualified for a welding process, they are issued a performance qualification card which describes exactly which welds they are allowed to make at that competency level. Welders must carry this card and be able to produce it if required by a supervisor or inspector.
Before welding on an oil tank, it should be thoroughly cleaned out using
a) steam.
b) rags.
c) solvents.
d) water and detergent.
e) oil absorbent material.
a) steam.
B03 CH15 Q016
Low pressure steam is admitted and all vents and drains are opened. There is no way to determine exactly how long a tank or pipeline must be steamed out, except by judgement and experience. Half an hour may clean out a small 100 litre drum or a similar simple container, but several hours or even days may be required to remove all combustibles from seams and ledges in large tanks.
Heating to a welded part immediately after welding to prevent cracking by slowing the cooling rate of the weld is called
a) straight polarity
b) preheating
c) postheating
d) reverse polarity
e) residual stress
c) postheating
B03 CH15 Q012
Heating to a welded part immediately after welding to prevent cracking by slowing the cooling rate of the weld is called postheating.
Most water testing reagents have
a) a red colour.
b) an antidote.
c) a small scoop for measuring purposes.
d) an expiry date.
e) a very strong odour which is harmful.
d) an expiry date.
B03 CH16 Q036
Most water testing reagents have an expiry date.
Material trapped in the bed of a pressure filter is removed by
a) blowing air through the bed.
b) heating the bed.
c) regenerating the bed with a regenerant.
d) passing chemicals through the exhausted bed.
e) backwashing the filter.
e) backwashing the filter.
B03 CH16 Q022
Material trapped in the bed of a pressure filter is removed by backwashing the filter.
A sodium zeolite water softener will
a) completely remove the detrimental impurities.
b) remove dissolved gases.
c) require backwashing at the end of the regeneration cycle.
d) make the impurities highly soluble.
e) not change the solubility of the impurities.
d) make the impurities highly soluble.
B03 CH16 Q020
Sodium Zeolite softeners convert hardness compounds to highly soluble salts that do not cause problems in the boiler.
When using a meter to conduct a pH water test, the meter used would
a) have to be separately grounded.
b) require a long warm-up period.
c) require grounding.
d) be, in effect, a voltmeter.
e) basically measure amperage.
d) be, in effect, a voltmeter.
B03 CH16 Q032
A pH meter measures voltage produced between electrodes due to the presence of hydrogen ions.
The most common method of adding water treatment chemicals to a modern boiler is
a) using pot feeders.
b) adding chemicals before filling with water.
c) continuous feed using pumps.
d) adding chemicals to the feedwater.
e) periodic dosage.
c) continuous feed using pumps.
B03 CH16 Q014
Probably, 95% of boilers in operation today are supplied with chemicals by a continuous feed system. This involves feeding the chemicals to the boiler system at the most efficient injection points and at a steady and continuous rate. Continuous feed offers greater flexibility in controlling residuals and less chance of losing positive residuals, thus less chance of scale and corrosion. There is also a reduction in large swings in residuals and boiler solids, making blowdown control much easier and improving overall efficiencies in most cases, safer handling of chemicals is also achieved.
