Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BCIA > BCIA > Flashcards

BCIA Flashcards

1
Q

Which term refers to electrical activity that appears at two respective input terminals of a differential amplifier?

A

Common mode signal EG. 50/60HZ artifact is a common mode signal in EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which rhythm ranges from 7-11 HZ and is detected over the central or centro-parietal regions of the scalp when a patient is awake?

A

mu: This rhythm is composted of arch shaped waves that can be blocked or weakened by contralateral movement or the intention to move.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which electrode is typically connected to input terminal 2 of an EEG amplifier and use to measure the potential variations of another electrode?

A

reference:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which term refers to the unequal amplitude and/or form and frequency of EEG activity over corresponding areas on opposites sides of the head?

A

Asymmetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of these is the ratio of the amplification of differential and common mode signals?

A

Common mode rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which montage consists of referential derivations?

A

referential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which montage permits the best analysis of asymmetry?

A

common reference: A common reference montage achieves good analysis of asymmetry provided that there is symmetrical placement of the reference electrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which term refers to the abrupt appearance and disappearance of a group of waves that can be discriminated from background activity.

A

Burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A ______ refers to both the process of recording from a pair of electrodes in an EEG channel and the resulting EEG record.

A

derivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which term refers to the particular arrangement by which a number of pairs of electrodes in EEG channels are simultaneously displayed in an EEG record.

A

montage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A _________montage detects voltage differences between single, adjacent electrode.

A

Bipolar:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which term refers to the difference between two unlike signals applied to the respective two input terminals of a differential amplifier?

A

Differential signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which montage best detects localized neural current sources?

A

Laplacian: A laplacian montage achieves excellent detection of localized neural current sources because it functions as a spatial high pass filter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which montage detects voltage differences between a single electrode and an average of the remaining electrodes weighted in proportion to their distance from the electrode placed in input 1?

A

Laplacian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which term refers to the non-simultaneous occurrence of EEG activity in regions on the same or opposite side of the head?

A

asynchrony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which electrode is placed over the scalp or brain to detect EEG activity?

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A montage in which the reference electrode is common to multiple derivations is termed a _____montage.

A

Common reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An________montage detects the voltage difference between a single electrode placed in input 1 and the average of the remaining 10-20 electrodes placed in input 2.

A

Average reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The _____rhythm consists of burst of alpha or theta waves over the temporal region of the scalp when subjects are mentally active.

A

kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which montages provide excellent detection of electrode artifact?

A

bipolar and common reference electrodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Morphology refers to the ______of an EEG wave.

A

form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of these refers to a period of time in an EEG record?

A

epoch: eg: a 10 second epoch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A _______is a limited region of the scalp, cerebral cortex, or depth of the brain that displays specific EEG activity?

A

Focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

________is the ratio of the output signal voltage to the input signal voltage of an EEG channel.

A

Gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which refers to EEG activity that is elicited by and time-locked to a stimulus like a light or tone?

A

evoked potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of these best describes sleep spindles?

A

synchronous, rhythmic 12-14 Hz waves (sleep spindles usually first appear during stage 2 sleep and reduce our responsiveness to environmental stimuli like noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which frequency bands contain slow activity?

A

delta and theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A _____is a sequence of two or more waves with a characteristic form or recurring with a fairly consistent form that can be distinguished from background activity.

A

complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

An EEG _____consists of waves of approximately constant period.

A

rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which refers to the time interval between single waves and complexes that repeat themselves?

A

period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Fisch and Spehlmann (1999) recommend common mode rejection ratios of at least_____ohms.

A

10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Finite impulse response (FIR), infinite impulse response (IIR) and frequency domain filtering using the fast Fourier transform (FFT) are three approaches to

A

digital filtering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Filering adjustments can be performed retrospectively during EEG review when using ____ filtering

A

digital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A ______filter reduces the amplitude of higher frequencies.

A

low pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A ______filter reduces the amplitude of lower frequencies.

A

high pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A ______filter reduces the amplitude of a narrow range of frequencies centered around 50 HZ (in Europe) or 60 HZ (North America).

A

notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

EEG rhythmicity appears to depend on interactions between the cortex and the ______.

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

EEG desynchronization (interruption of rhythmical activity) is produced by activation of ascending projections by the _____,______,_____.

A

basal forebrain, locus coeruleus and raphe nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cells within the ______of the thalamus have intrinsic pacemaker properties and stimulate thalamocortical cells that produce rhythmic excitation in the cortex.

A

nucleus reticularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ascending projections from the basal forebrain and brainstem to the thalamus that interrupt rhythmical activity release the neurotransmitter______.

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

_______transforms the EEG signal into numerical values that can help clinicians examine selected EEG features.

A

Quantitative EEG analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

________constructs a graphical display of the distribution of a particular EEG feature over the scalp and cortical surface.

A

Topographical mapping (TM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

An advanced form of topographical mapping (TM) superimposes a color or gray scale image of an EEG feature onto the cortical surface image created using_____

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In analog-to-digital conversion, the number of digital points per second used to represent an analog signal is referred to as the__________

A

sampling rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Based on the Nyquist theorem, if you want to perform analog to digital conversion on a 25-Hz signal, the sampling rate should be at least______

A

50 Hz (The Nyquist rate is twice the fastest frequency in the signal of interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When a clinician wants to visually inspect a signal that has under gone analog to digital conversion, the sampling rate should be at least________times the highest frequency of interest or else waveform morphology may be distorted.

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When an analog-to-digital converter samples an analog signal at a rate less than twice its frequency, the signal will be misrepresented as slower frequency waveforms. This problem is called________.

A

aliasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The Fz, Cz, and Pz sites are each_______%of the distance between the nasion and inion starting from Fp.

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The location of Fp is ___%of the nation-inion distance.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Those sites labeled with a “z” are located _____.

A

along the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cz is located________

A

at the vertex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T4 is closest to the ______

A

right preauricular point (notch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

C location (eg. Cz) are found in ______areas.

A

central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which site lies in the left parietal lobe?

A

P3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Silberstein (1995) proposed that regional resonances are produced by resonance loops between macro columns that are several centimeters apart and produce EEG activity in the _________range.

A

alpha-beta range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Silberstein (1995) proposed that global resonances are produced by resonance loops between widely separated areas (e.g.. frontal-parietal and frontal-occipital regions) and produce EEG activity in the _______range.

A

delta- theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The nucleus reticularis of the thalamus allows thalamic pacemakers to adjust their firing frequencies by releasing_____on relay and inhibitory interneurons.

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An increase in the neuromodulator ______produces the hypercoupling that generates global resonances.

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

An increase in_______,_____,_____produces hypocoupled states which facilitate small regional and local resonance loops.

A

acetylcholine, dopamine and norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Postsynaptic potentials are mainly integrated at the_________.

A

axon hillock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which structure may help activate behavior and focus attention?

A

cingulate gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which structure is crucial to emotional intelligence because it sensitizes us to the the social consequences of our own actions and helps us understand the feelings of others?

A

orbitofrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Increased firing in the _______produces cortical activation.

A

dorsal lateral tegmental nucleus and nucleus basalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The withdrawal of sensorimotor input to the thalamus increases_______activity.

A

SMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

_______neurons in the brain stem generate thalamic alpha rhythms.

A

Cholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Sterman (1994) proposed that ________systems mainly influence thalamic generation of field potentials recoded from the scalp.

A

vigilance, sensorimotor integration and cognitive integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which process best explains the persistence of neurofeedback training effects in ADHD.

A

long-term potentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When we are vigilant, input from the ______helps generate the beta rhythm.

A

reticular activating system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which is the noreadrenergic pathway responsible for vigilance?

A

locus coeruleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Most sensory input to the cerebral cortex is filtered and distributed by the ________.

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Neurotransmitters are primarily inactivated by ____.

A

reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which brain structure functions most like a thermostat?

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A sodium-potassium transporter______

A

exchanges 2 potassium ions for 3 sodium ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

An axon hillock must typically become_____more positive than at rest to trigger an action potential.

A

20mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which best describes the EEG beta rhythm?

A

desynchronous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The fight or flight response is organized by the _____.

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which triggers the movement of synaptic vesicles to the release zone of an axon terminal button?

A

Calcium entry into the terminal button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

According to the “central timing hypothesis” alpha frequency determines______.

A

information processing speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which neurons depolarize________. This makes the neurons more _______inside.

A

sodium ions enter, positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The _______interacts with the cortex to produce cortical EEG rhythms.

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

_______ions enter a neuron when it reaches the threshold of excitation.

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Axoaxonic synapses

A

alter the amount of neurotransmitter released by the postsynaptic neuron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When a neuron is at rest, the inside of an axon

A

is negatively charged with respect to the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

While neurons cannot fire during ______,intense stimuli can trigger an action potential during _____.

A

the absolute refractory period; relative refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Neuron terminal buttons

A

release neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The part of the neuron that carries information to its owen cell body is called the ______.

A

dendrite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The voltage level that triggers an action potential is called_____.

A

the threshold of excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Presynaptic facilitation and presynaptic inhibition both take place at the_________>

A

terminal button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

To which of these would a neurotransmitter attach to produce long-lasting changes in neurons like an increase in vigilance?

A

metabotropic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which would produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).

A

both potassium ions leaving a neuron and chloride ions entering a neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which structure is involved in aggression, defense, fear, and reproduction?

A

amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which of these detect and generally reduce transmitter synthesis and release?

A

autoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The process by which ions of a similar charge repel each other and thus evenly distribute themselves is called

A

electrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The specialized proteins located in neuronal membranes that have passages that can open or close are called_______

A

ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The postsynaptic potential produced by an ionotropic receptor is

A

rapid and short lived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The brain and spinal cord comprise the______

A

central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The difference in electrical potential inside and outside the cell at any point in time is the ______.

A

membrane potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The mechanism that causes an action potential involves a brief______.

A

drop in membrane resistance to sodium ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Axons that arise from cell bodies located in one brain region that synapse on neurons in another region are called_______

A

projection fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The telencephalon is the subdivision of the forebrain. Which three components does it contain?

A

basal ganglia, cerebrum, limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which structure may help activate behavior and focus attention?

A

cingulate gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which three structures are part of the limbic system?

A

amygdala, hippocampus and septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The _____consists of clusters of neurons in the diencephalon that filter and relay information between forebrain structures, including cerebral cortex.

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Neurons in the ______synapse with motor neurons that initiate skeletal muscle contraction.

A

precentral gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A_____is a raised portion of the cortical surface.

A

gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which brain region is crucial to emotional intelligence because it sensitizes us to both the social consequences of our behavior and the feelings of others.

A

orbitofrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The primary auditory cortex is located in the ____lobe.

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Which EEG changes signal stage 1 sleep?

A

slowing and fragmentation of alpha, diffuse theta activity, vertex spikes and delta activity in older patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The _____lobe is the first stage for recognizing visual objects and faces.

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The_____rouses you when your alarm sounds in the morning.

A

reticular formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Which cortical lobe is responsible for executive functions like planning

A

frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Select the three structures that compromise the basal ganglia

A

caudate, globus pallidus, putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The diencephalon consists of ______and ______

A

hypothalamus and thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The ________controls the pituitary gland and motivated behaviors like eating and drinking.

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Which is a major groove in the brain’s surface?

A

fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The _______processes sensory information, like pressure and temperature, that comes from the body.

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The lateral fissure separates the temporal lobe from the ________

A

frontal and parietal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Select the functions controlled by the temporal lobes.

A

hearing, language comprehension, smell and taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Select two structures located below the temporal lobe

A

amygdala and hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Cook and colleagues (1995) reported that smoking under resting conditions decreased_____and increased______activity.

A

alpha and theta; beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Houlihan and colleagues (1996) reported that smoking a 1.1 mg cigarette during a reaction time task increased EEG in the _____Hz band.

A

18-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Murphree (1973) reported the presence of ____Hz activity in the EEG record 1 minute after injection of thiopental (a barbiturate)

A

21-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Murphree (1973) demonstrated that the short-term effect of a 6-oz dose of 80 proof whiskey for a 150 lb male was to _____in the EEG during a 10 minute period after consuming the drink.

A

increase alpha and beta amplitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Sainio and colleagues (1976) reported that 14-16 hours following consumption of about 11 oz of 80 proof whiskey for a 150lb the EEG showed decreased and slowed______activity and increased______activity.

A

alpha; theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Alcohol produces_____in the short term and _____in the long term

A

EEG activation; EEG slowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Garielli et al. (1982) compared the EEGs of 27 children of alcoholics and 258 children of nonalcoholic parents. Male children at high risk for alcoholism shoed _____compared to make children at low risk for alcoholism.

A

excess beta and deficient alpha, delta and theta activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Dornbush, Fink and Freedman (1971) reported that a high dose of marijuana (22.5mg) administered to male medical students increased _______activity and decreased______activity.

A

alpha; beta and theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Rodin and Luby (1966) reported that LSD______activity 1-2 hours following intravenous administration.

A

increases beta activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Benzodiazepines like Valium

A

increase beta and sleep spindles and slightly decrease alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How do narcotics like heroin affect the EEG after the initial slowing of the alpha rhythm?

A

decrease alpha and increase delta and theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

How do barbiturates affect the EEG?

A

increase beta and sleep spindles and slighly decrease alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Which drug used to treat ADHD produces fatal liver damage in 1-3% of patients?

A

pemoline (Cylert)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

No _______benzodiazepine should be administered to an elderly patient due to the risk of “brain syndrome”.

A

long acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Anxiolytics are rarely prescribed for children and adolescents due to

A

interference with learning and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

______are generally recommended for treating anxiety in children.

A

Antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which are the drugs of choice for treating chronic anxiety in adults

A

antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which drug is used to treat seizure disorders in children and must be administered several times a day

A

valproic acid (depakene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Which drug effectively treats several kinds of epilepsy, is less sedating than other antiepileptic drugs, but may have a serious side effect of reducing white cell counts?

A

carbamazepine (tegretol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How do CNS stimulants affect the EEG

A

decrease theta and increase beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

The term,_____, refers to all people, animals or objects that share at least one characteristic

A

population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

The relationship between ______best illustrates a positive correlation.

A

wearing seat belts and life expectancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

A researcher randomly selects every tenth name from a list of ADHD patients. These adolescents constitute a _________or subset of the population from which they were drawn.

A

sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What does a sample’s representativeness affect?

A

the ability to generalize experimental findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Which is used to determine the degree to which two or more traits, behaviors or events are related?

A

correlational study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Statisticians prefer probability samples over non probability samples because they

A

often better represent the population of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which of these is the average squared deviation of scores from the mean?

A

variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

We do not know which population our sample represents when we use

A

convenience sampling or quota sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Psychologists use the standard deviation to report test scores. What percentage of scores falls within 1 standard deviation of the mean and what percentage falls within 2 standard deviations

A

68%-95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

To measure opinion about lowering the legal blood alcohol level to 0.08 from 0.10 grams percent voters are randomly chosen to receive a questionnaire within selected zip codes. This is an example of ______

A

cluster sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Which of these correlations permits the most accurate prediction?

A

-0.93 because it has the greatest magnitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The Pearson Product Moment Correlation Coefficient ranges between ____.

A

-1 and +1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

The _____of a correlation coefficient indexes its strength

A

absolute value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Which relationship best illustrates a negative correlation?

A

automobile engine size and fuel economy. A negative correlation is a relationship between two variables such that an increase in one is associated with a decrease in the other also called an inverse relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Why do researchers randomly assign subjects to experimental conditions?

A

to control individual differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

In order to conduct a psychology experiment, a researcher must create at least ______treatment conditions

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

An experimenter manipulates the ______in an experiment to assess its effect on behavior.

A

independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

“levels of the independent variable” refers to

A

the number of treatment conditions for an independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The _______is the specific behavior we expect to change due to our experimental intervention

A

dependent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

In a “true” experiment an experimenter______the independent variable and _____the dependent variable

A

manipulates, measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The ______is the average deviation of scores about the mean

A

standard deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Psychologists can evaluate ______when they administer the MMPI-2 twice to the same subjects two weeks apart

A

test-retest reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

When an extraneous variable changes value across conditions along with the independent variable, the experiment_________.

A

is confounded. Confounding refers to an error that occurs when the value of an extraneous variable changes systematically along with the independent variable in a n experiment; an alternative explanation for the finding that threatens internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

When a researcher constructs a multiple item questionnaire to measure a single construct like anxiety, she can measure_____to evaluate the scales internal consistency

A

interitem reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

An operational definition is _____when it measures what we intent it to measure

A

valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Which kind of reliability can be measured when several psychologists score all subjects’essays for aggressiveness

A

interrater reliability: it refers to the degree of agreement among different observers or raters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

If a team of observers gradually changes the criteria for judging the aggressiveness of children’s play as they became more familiar with the procedure, the study’s internal validity could be jeopardized by an _______threat

A

instrumentation: an instrumentation threat is a threat to internal validity produced by changes in the measuring instrument itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Heath participated in a study of the effect of meditation on blood pressure. Since he had never used a self-inflating cuff, he was afraid that the cuff would keep inflating and cut off blood to his arm. This fear caused his BP to rise when he was measured during the pretest phase of the experiment. The experimenter also measured Heath’s BP after meditation training during the postteset phase. Since he was now used to the self inflating cure, his BP was lower due to lack of panic. Based on Heath’s experience, a_______threat may have confounded this experiment.

A

testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

When a researcher develops an assessment device to help parole boards decide which prisoners would be safest to parole, she should be most concerned with the measure’s________.

A

predictive validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

_______are physical aspects of the testing situation that the experimenter directly controls

A

environmental variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Mack claims to have a revolutionary way to measure intelligence. He places a cloth tape around a subject’s forehead and calculates the circumference. This procedure is a_________operational definition of intelligence .

A

reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

_______assesses whether we have succeeded in creating a measuring device that assesses only the hypothetical entity we want to test.

A

construct validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

An experimenter provided two groups of rats different quantities of food for successfully completing the same maze. She controlled the kid of food and the amount of time the rats had access to the food. She reported that both groups of rats committed the same number of error in learning the maze. The number of errors was _________.

A

the dependent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Sam is studying the effectiveness of a new method of strength training. If he measures the experimental group before “happy hour” and the control group after “happy hour”, his results could be confounded by a ______threat.

A

history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

An experimenter_______values of the independent variable in an experiment

A

manipulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Shawn observes that web pages use a range of font sizes and he questions ho this affects readability. He reproduces an actual 250 word news report in 10, 11 and 12 point fonts. Then he randomly assigns subjects to read the report in one of the font sizes and measures their reading comprehension. Font size is the ______in Shawn’s experiment.

A

independent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Professor Smith’s class was stunned. She mistakenly included questions from chapter 5 on an exam that was supposed to cover chapters 1-2. In appealing their low grades, the students should diplomatically question the _______of this exam.

A

content validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

When we are certain that the changes in behavior that we observe across the different treatment conditions of our experiment were actually caused by our independent variable, our experiment___________.

A

is internally valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Psychologists evaluate ______by comparing scores on a measuring instrument with another known standard for the variable being studied.

A

concurrent validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

If a researcher presents three levels of an independent variable (e.g.. problem difficulty) there must be ______different treatment conditions.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

In _______an experimenter controls physical variables by keeping all aspects of treatment conditions as nearly similar as possible.

A

constancy of conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Kenny ran all treatment conditions during the evening to control for the effect of time of day. Which control technique did he use?

A

constancy of conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Experimenters sometimes make errors in recording data that tend to favor there experimental hypothesis. This is an example of______

A

experimenter bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

When an experimenter fails to randomly assign subjects to different experimental conditions, a _______threat is present since treatment groups may differ on subject variables.

A

selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

A swimming instructor, who was told his athletes had outstanding motor coordination and the potential to become excellent swimmers, coached them so well that they became excellent swimmers even though their motor skills were really about average. These result illustrate_____

A

the Rosenthal effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

In single blind experiments

A

subjects do not know which treatments they are receiving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Researchers should anticipate the possibility of a ______threat when they assign subjects to conditions using extreme test scores and retest these subjects after administering a treatment.

A

statistical regression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Based on positive correlations between the length of women’s skirts and the Gross National Product, several economists have claimed that skirt length can be used to measure the health of the economy. This measure would seem to lack

A

face validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

The demand characteristics of an experiment may result in a subject

A

all of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Experimenters generally want subjects to be as naive as possible concerning the experimental hypothesis to reduce confounding by.

A

demand characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

In a double blind experiment

A

neither the subjects or the experimenter know which treatment the subjects are receiving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Single blind experiments only control for

A

demand characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Researchers implanted electrical devise into patients diagnosed with congestive heart failure. They randomly assigned patients to either an experimental condition (device turned on) or control condition (device turned off) for six months. Neither the subjects nor the supervising physicians knew their treatment condition until the study ended. Which design did these researchers use?

A

double blind experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Which of these could be a physical variable in an experiment?

A

all of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Placebo effects in drug trials are due to

A

demand characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Although James wanted to run all the subjects in his experiment by himself, he realized that he couldn’t complete the experiment in time without a second experimenter. To control for experimenter personality he ran half the subjects in each condition and his roommate ran the other half. This strategy is called

A

balancing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Experimenters remove potentially confounding extraneous variables when they employ

A

elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Daira videotaped instruction s fro subjects to ensure that all subjects in each condition receive the same information. This illustrates the control procedure of

A

constancy of conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Tim prevented noise from distracting his subjects by testing them in a soundproof room. This illustrates the control technique called

A

elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

______is a form of confounding due to an experimenter providing implicit or explicit cues to subjects to respond in a particular way.

A

experimenter bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Experimental designs that study two or more independent variables at the same time are called

A

factorial designs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Which of these are social variables?

A

demand characteristics and experimenter bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What does between subjects mean in a between subjects experiment?

A

experimenters compare the performance of different groups on the dependent variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Which of these techniques to control demand characteristic involves deception

A

cover story

204
Q

When the independent variable creates larger group differences on the dependent variable than we would see if we randomly assigned subjects to groups and only measured them, this demonstrates

A

statistical significance

205
Q

_________are aspects of the testing conditions that need to be controlled

A

physical variables

206
Q

When you are the only experimenter, the best way to control the effect of your personality on subject performance is to_________

A

minimize face to face contact

207
Q

Experimenters generally want subjects to be as naive as possible concerning the experimental hypothesis to reduce confounding by ________

A

demand characteristics

208
Q

Renee studied the effect of praise on her dog Snoopy’s obedience. During the first baseline phase, she measured how long it took for Snoopy to arrive after she called his name. During the treatment phase, she praised him when he arrived within 30 seconds. Finally, during the second baseline phase, she returned to only measuring his arrival time. Which approach did Renee use?

A

small N. In a small N design, one or a very few subjects are used. Typically, the experimenter collects baseline data during an initial control condition, applies the experimental treatment and then reinstates the original control condition to verify that changes observed in behavior were caused by the experimental intervention.

209
Q

We use a control group in an experiment to

A

measure the dependent variable without the experimental manipulation. A control group receives a zero value of the independent variable.

210
Q

Tammy’s experiment compared the effectiveness of videotape and textbook presentation of a history lesson. Unexpectedly, her demeanor changed with each treatment condition. She appeared worried during the videotape condition because the audiovisual equipment periodically broke down. In contrast, she seemed relaxed in the textbook condition during which subjects read from a book. Which problem does this illustrate?

A

experimenter bias. Which involved any behavior of the experimenter that can create confounding in an experiment.

211
Q

In clinical psychopathology research, small N designs help solve the ethical dilemma of ____.

A

untreated control groups

212
Q

Anna participates in a social psychological experiment in which she observes paris of lights that are briefly turned on and off in a completely darkened room. Although the distance between each pari of lights in the Hex paradigm is always identical, the experimenter asks, “ Is the first pair of lights farther apart or closer together than the second pair?” This question, which implies that Anna should perceive different spacing, illustrates the concept of a ________

A

demand characteristic: which are the aspects of the experimental situation itself that demand or elicit particular behaviors’ can lead to distorted data by compelling subjects to produce responses that conform to what subjects believe is expected of them in the experiment.

213
Q

If we do not randomly assign subjects to treatment conditions________

A

confounding may occur: which is when the value of an extraneous variable changes systematically along with the independent variable in an experiment; an alternative explanation for the finding that threatens internal validity

214
Q

Russ suffers from social anxiety and participated in a 6 month study of a drug believed to threat the disorder. While the physician who provided his medication knew that Russ was in the experimental group and not the control group, he did not disclose this information to Russ until the study was completed. In which of these did Russ participate?

A

single blind experiment: which is when subjects are not told which of the treatment conditions they are in. This procedure used to control demand characteristics.

215
Q

The principal difference between a factorial experiment and a two group experiment is that a factorial design

A

has more than one independent variable

216
Q

By randomly assigning subjects to treatment conditions, many extraneous variables are automatically__________across conditions

A

balanced

217
Q

Nate studies the effects of wearing single strap and double strap backpacks on shoulder muscle contraction. He tests the same subjects in both single strap and double strap conditions to control individual differences in trapezius muscle activity. Nate is using a ______design.

A

within subjects: which is hen the same subjects take part in each condition of the experiment

218
Q

A sample’s representativeness affects

A

external validity (which is the degree to which research observations are generalizable or applicable to other setting and other people.

219
Q

Increasing the sample size

A

increases statistical power (which is the chance of detecting a genuine effect of the independent variable

220
Q

A small N design is

A

a type of within subjects design (each subject takes part in more than one condition of the experiment)

221
Q

The ______in a small N design measures behavior as it normally occurs without manipulation of the independent variable.

A

baseline (in a small N design measures behavior as it normally occurs without manipulation of the independent variable.

222
Q

A crucial step to rule out possible confounding when using a small N design is:

A

removal of the independent variable and return of behavior to baseline

223
Q

The results of an experiment are statistically significant when

A

the difference between group scores exceeds normal variable

224
Q

Another name foe an ABA design is a

A

reversal design

225
Q

Researchers may use the ABA format only if

A

there treatment conditions are reversible

226
Q

The B in an ABA design refers to

A

the experimental condition

227
Q

In an ABA design the second A refers to

A

a return to the baseline condition

228
Q

Researches use the ABA design to

A

demonstrate that a behavior returns to its baseline level when the experimental intervention is removed

229
Q

When you select an alpha level of p <.05 this means that if you calculated 100 correlations, fewer than _____would be significant due to chance

A

5

230
Q

Many researchers prefer small N designs because they

A

obtain a continuous record of a a subject’s behavior over time

231
Q

Matt is impressed by the precision of the small N approach and declares, “ The small N design is so powerful I’ll use it for all my experiments!: Some researchers might disagree with him because small N designs

A

may achieve lower external validity that well designed large N designs

232
Q

An experimenter has the greatest confidence when using a _____to represent the larger population

A

random sample (is an an unbiased method for selecting subjects in such a way that each member of the population has an equal opportunity to be selected and the outcome cannot be predicted ahead of time by any know n law.

233
Q

The altitude of Mt Whitney is 4418 meters while altitude of Death valley is 86 meters below sea level. The difference in their altitudes is illustrates the concept of

A

variability (means that there is a fluctuation in data and can be defined numerically as the range, variance or standard deviation. There is no variability when sample scores are identical. Variability increases as scores differ from each other.

234
Q

The ______hypothesis states that the performance of the treatment groups is so similar that the scores must have been sampled from the same population

A

null hypothesis

235
Q

When we set up statistical tests , we assume that

A

the independent variable had no effect

236
Q

A clinician compared the effectiveness of neurofeedback and stimulant medication in treating ADHD. He assessed 40 teenage subjects using DSM-IV criteria and then randomly assigned them to either EEG biofeedback or stimulant medication. The subjects ere treated for one months and then reassessed. Since the neurofeedback group shoed greater symptom reduction than the stimulant medication group he

A

rejected the null hypothesis: Since neurofeedback group shoed greater symptom reduction than the stimulant medication group he rejected the null hypotheses.

237
Q

Statistical significane means that

A

normal variability in the dependent variable cannot account for our results. The experimental results have met the set criterion for significance; the data do not support the null hypothesis, confirming a difference between the groups that occurred as a result of the experiment.

238
Q

Many statistical tests assume that the population you have sampled is normally distributed. This means that if you could measure everyone in the population on the dependent variable.

A

the distribution of scores would be symmetrical and bell shaped

239
Q

Which criterion does an experimenter use to decide whether to accept or reject the null hypothesis?

A

significance level

240
Q

Ayers treated 32 level 2 coma patients, who were comatose for more than 2 months, non invasively with neurofeedback. How many of these patients emerged from their comas after 1-6 treatments?

A

25 out of 32 emerged from their comas.

241
Q

Lubar cautions families considering ADD/ADHD protocol for their children that

A

all of the above: Lubar cautions families considering ADD/ADHD protocol for their children that continued use of medication may be required, learning exercises will be incorporated into neurofeedback training and there will be a several year follow up.

242
Q

Lubar’s ADD/ADHD protocol for children requires an average of _____sessions

A

35

243
Q

Ayers and colleagues’ neurofeedback protocol for open head trauma trains patients to

A

decrease 4-7 Hz activity and increase 15-18 Hz activity

244
Q

Ayers and colleagues start neurofeedback for open head trauma at the ________________

A

somatosensory cortex

245
Q

The rationale for alpha asymmetry neurofeedback for mood disorders is that

A

the left frontal area mediates approach behavior

246
Q

Clinical depression is associated with

A

left frontal hypoactivity

247
Q

The goal of alpha asymmetry neurofeedback for depression reported by Baehr and colleagues is to_____the difference between _______frontal alpha amplitude with respect to total left and right frontal amplitude.

A

increase, right-left

248
Q

Experimental patients who received Peniston and Kulosky’s alpha-theta protocol for alcoholism and control patients were assessed over a 24 month follow up period. Across this period________of the 10 experimental and _____of the 10 controls maintained abstinence.

A

8 and 0

249
Q

The Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction incorporates____alpha theta neurofeedback sessions across 28 days

A

30

250
Q

When training patients with ADD/ADHD over the age of 14 who show high alpha power and deficient alpha blocking, Lubar attempts to decrease_____activity and increase ______activity.

A

6-10 Hz, 16-22 Hz

251
Q

Ayer’s protocol for treating coma with neurofeedback involves______

A

inhibiting 4-7 Hz activity and then reinforcing the replacement of 4-7 Hz activity with 15-18 Hz

252
Q

Case studies published in refereed journals have supported the efficacy of alpha-theta neurotherapy in treating_____

A

bulimia nervosa

253
Q

Lubar’s placement of electrodes for treating ADD/ADHD is based on where the ________

A

theta beta ratio is the highest

254
Q

When training children with ADD/ADHD Lubar attempts to decrease______activity and increase_____activity.

A

4-8 Hz, 16-20 Hz

255
Q

Where does Lubar usually place electrodes when treating children diagnosed with ADD/ADHD

A

CPz or FCz

256
Q

Which is NOT a component of the Peniston and Kulkosky addictive disorder protocol?

A

Progressive Relaxation exercises

257
Q

What is the first training component in the Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction?

A

Visualization training

258
Q

Which of these is the most severe seizure disorder?

A

status epilepticus (it can result in death)

259
Q

Patients in a twilight learning procedure are exposed to an instructional program when a criterion level of _____activity is reached

A

theta

260
Q

The Peniston and Kulkosky protocol for treating addiction incorporates _____alpha-theta neurofeedback sessions of ______minutes duration across 28 days.

A

30, 30

261
Q

Which conclusion best summarizes clinical outcome studies concerning treatment of generalized seizures?

A

SMR neurofeedback is the treatment of choice

262
Q

Alcoholics show low levels of frontal _______before consuming alcohol. These levels _______after a challenge dose of alcohol.

A

alpha, increase

263
Q

Neurofeedback would be inappropriate for treating

A

Tourette’s syndrome

264
Q

Sterman’s SMR training protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy involves placing two active electrodes over the ________cortex.

A

left, sensorimotor cortex

265
Q

Sterman’s protocol for treating grand mal epilepsy trains patients to suppress EEG activity in the _____band.

A

4-7 Hz. Patients are taught to suppress EEG in the 4-7 Hz and also over 20 Hz and epileptiform spikes

266
Q

A 4 year old child suddenly freezes and stares blankly for 15 seconds. Which type of seizure does this best describe?

A

absence

267
Q

The Menninger protocol for reducing intractable pain teaches patients to increase EEG activity in the _______band

A

theta

268
Q

The Menninger alpha-theta protocol incorporates an____training paradigm where ON means increasing and OFF means suppressing a frequency band

A

ON-OFF-ON

269
Q

Training sessions using Menninger alpha-theta protocol typically last ______minutes

A

30

270
Q

Which describes the training sequence in the Menninger alpha-theta protocol?

A

temperature, SEMG, alpha, theta

271
Q

Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported successful treatment of patients who suffer from chronic anxiety using a _______protocol.

A

theta-inhibit / beta enhancement

272
Q

Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) reported that the predominance of _______activity in the _______might impair flexible response to new stimuli.

A

slow wave; frontal and prefrontal cortex

273
Q

Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) suggested that patients diagnosed with chronic anxiety and exhibit high amplitude slow wave activity should be trained to ________amplitude.

A

decrease alpha and theta

274
Q

Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) argued that patients diagnosed with chronic anxiety and exhibit low amplitude alpha activity should be trained to ____amplitude.

A

increase alpha

275
Q

Sattlberger and Thomas (2000) select candidates for treatment of anxiety with slow wave suppression EEG biofeedback based on whether

A

the target slow wave is the dominant wave band in the frontal and prefrontal region and the theta/beta ratio in the frontal and prefrontal region is above 3.0

276
Q

Brownback (2001) proposes that for high performance functioning

A

slow wave bands should have higher amplitudes than fast wave bands

277
Q

Brownback (2001) recommends reducing activity in the 2.5-6.5 Hz band to _______

A

increase alertness

278
Q

Brownback (2001) recommends increasing activity in the 11.5-13 Hz band to ___________

A

increase mild focused awareness

279
Q

All of Brownback’s (2001) peak performance protocols incorporate_____

A

training with eyes open (to utilize visual feedback)

280
Q

Passive volition is illustrated by

A

allowing (in contrast to forcing) e.g. patient may visualize a hand immersed in warm water

281
Q

A stimulus hierarchy is an important component of

A

systemic desensitization (patients treated for phobia with systemic desensitization build stimulus hierarchies that allow gradual exposure to more intense fear eliciting stimuli.)

282
Q

From research by Edinger and Jacobsen, which is the most common difficulty in relaxation training?

A

intrusive training (the low arousal component of relaxation training makes focusing attention more difficult. Intrusive thought have less competition for attention and new relaxation skills are easily disrupted

283
Q

A group of law enforcement officers discuss conflict situations and then visualize successfully defusing an argument with an angry civilian in

A

stress inoculaiton. (Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation procedure has been used defuse predictable stressors)

284
Q

The main goal of Progressive Relaxation is to ____

A

reduce residual muscle tension

285
Q

Several studies have shown that biofeedback training results in no deeper relaxation than procedures like progressive relaxation. What best accounts for these findings?

A

physiological feedback is not inherently relaxing (Biofeedback is information. Just as information from a stopwatch does not automatically increase a runner’s speed, biofeedback does not automatically relax a patient. The effect of physiological feedback depends on how it is used to train the patient.)

286
Q

Which best describes the state of relaxation that we should train patients to experience?

A

alert (Clinicians should train patients to achieve an alert state of cultivated low arousal. This allows them to remain relaxed while performing daily tasks like driving.)

287
Q

Active volition is illustrated by_______

A

trying (active volition involves effortful control;trying instead of allowing)

288
Q

Which is the first step in most stress management programs?

A

identifying acute and chronic stressors

289
Q

According to Wolpe, which procedure depends on the process of reciprocal inhibition?

A

systemic desensitization

290
Q

The process underlying challenging irrational beliefs in Rational Emotive Therapy is_____

A

cognitive restructuring: Successful Rational Emotive Therapy produces cognitive restructuring. The therapist helps the patient identify and modify dysfunctional beliefs.

291
Q

Luthe found the most common autogenic discharge was

A

tingling sensations

292
Q

Luthe believed that self regulation is accomplished in Autogenic Training through________

A

visualization

293
Q

A physician asks you to provide EEG biofeedback to reduce the frequency of a patient’s generalized seizures. If you have no experience in this area, you should ________

A

refer the case to an experienced certified provider who has the required expertise

294
Q

According to the Biofeedback Certification Institute of America, who should supervise the biofeedback practice of an uncertified biofeedback provider?

A

licensed professional certified in biofeedback

295
Q

A short deep breath followed by imagining waves of relaxation moving down your body are part of which procedure?

A

quieting response

296
Q

A patient you are treating for ADHD enters a neurofeedback training session with acute depression. How should you respond?

A

immediately assess the risk of suicide

297
Q

Who legally regulates clinical neurofeedback practice?

A

state legislatures

298
Q

Your patient accuses one of your peers of misconduct during a neurofeedback session. If the complaint appears credible, you should first contact the ______.

A

accused colleague

299
Q

Which of these changes during relaxation training would place your patient at greatest risk?

A

decreased insulin requirement

300
Q

Which is a brief relaxation exercise?

A

quieting response

301
Q

In Systemic desensitization a patient is first trained to

A

deeply relax skeletal muscles

302
Q

Which psychological problem is most likely to worsen during biofeedback training because of reduced environmental stimulation

A

depersonalization

303
Q

What label is given to unpleasant relaxation experiences like hand tremors or anxiety?

A

autogenic discharge

304
Q

The subjective state involved in passive volition is best described as

A

allowing. (you visualize a goal, but do not force your body to achieve it.)

305
Q

When experimental procedures lead to undesirable consequences for subjects, the experimenter has the responsibility to

A

correct these consequences

306
Q

Which of the following refers to obtaining permission from human subjects prior to their participation in psychological research?

A

informed consent

307
Q

Final responsibility for conducting a research study in an ethical manner rest with

A

the principal researcher

308
Q

Since researchers are often in a position of authority or influence over research participants, they must be careful to

A

respect an individual’s freedom to refuse to participate or withdraw from the study at any time.

309
Q

Deliberate deception may be acceptable in a psychology experiment if

A

an appropriate test of an experiment hypothesis requires it be used

310
Q

The term,______, refers to the researcher’s responsibility to explain the nature and purpose of a study to subjects at the end of an experiment.

A

debriefing

311
Q

Whenever information is collected about subject in a study, that information should be

A

collected anonymously and kept confidential

312
Q

Which of these must be established by institution engaging in research with human subjects?

A

institutional review board

313
Q

The primary concern of an institutional review board is to

A

ensure the safety of research participants is adequately protected

314
Q

Under federal law, “subject at risk” means that an individual may be exposed to the possibility of _____,_______,________injury

A

physical, psychological or social

315
Q

When a panel determines whether the potential benefits of a study outweigh risks to subjects they are performing a

A

risk / benefit analysis

316
Q

Informed consent must be obtained

A

in all psychological studies using human subjects

317
Q

When researchers have questions about research ethics, they should

A

seek advice from an IRB or colleagues and employ all possible safeguards to protect research subjects

318
Q

In some studies, subjects may be considered to be at “minimal risk”. This means that

A

participation does not alter the participants odds of being harmed

319
Q

Full disclosure, by completely debriefing subjects at the end of an experiment, is required whenever psychology experiments

A

employ deception

320
Q

Licensed psychologists may violate state practice acts if they diagnose and treat

A

epilepsy

321
Q

The professional standards and ethical principals and ethical principles applies to BCIA certificants’

A

all of these are correct; administrative activities, educational activities, professional service and research activities

322
Q

BCIA certificantss’ are subject to eht ethical principles of

A

all of these are correct; their professional membership organizations and their state healing arts boards

323
Q

Who handles ethics complaints concerning BCIA certificants

A

BCIA’s executive director

324
Q

BCIA certificants are obligated to report alleged ethical violations concerning biofeedback and its application to the

A

BCIA executive director and or the ethics committee of the alleged violator’s professional discipline

325
Q

Certificants should console_____to decide if and when sexual intimacy with a past client is acceptable

A

state statutes and their professional membership organization ethical code

326
Q

Dr. Smith is a CBIA certificant who refused to respond to respond to a letter from BCIA’s executive director. His refusal to cooperate may result in _____by BCIA

A

reprimand or decertification

327
Q

When should a clinician seek consultation or referral

A

all of these choices are correct if they fail to improve, or treatment protocol has not been validated or there is no established protocol for the clients symptoms

328
Q

What ethical responsibilities do BCIA certificants have with respect to employer who are not BCIA certified?

A

BCIA certificants should inform their employer sof BCIA’s professional standards and ethical principles and urge them to cooperate with them in adhering to these principles.

329
Q

A biofeedback professional should not provide clinical services to

A

all of these are correct; not provide clinical services to family members, clinic employees, or her students because this would create a dual relationship

330
Q

When recruiting subjects for research full disclosure requires that a certificant disclose

A

potential benefits and risks of participation

331
Q

Certification

A

recognizes that an applicant has tat least achieved entry level competence

332
Q

CXIA accepts ethics complaints against

A

BCIA certicants

333
Q

A violation of the Professionals standards and ethical principles by a BCIA certificants can result in

A

all of these choices are correct; can result in disciplinary action, decertification, and or letter to the appropriate state licensing certifying agent

334
Q

Which resources should a clinician consult to determine the efficacy of clinical interventions?

A

all of these are correct; Clinical applications of biofeedback and applied psychophysiology, evidence base practice in biofeedback and neurofeedback and refereed journals to determine the efficacy of biofeedback applications

335
Q

When a client does not improve and requites a different intervention which the clinician is not qualified to provide, the clinician should

A

refer the client to a competent service provider or seek consultation or supervision a competent service provider

336
Q

The professional standards and ethical principles encompasses

A

biofeedback and biofeedback related activities

337
Q

Certificants may refuse to provide biofeedback training to prospective clients because of their

A

none of these; may not refuse biofeedback training to prospective clients because of their disability, religion or sexual orientation

338
Q

BCIA’s professional standards and ethical principles prohibits sexual intimacy with

A

all of these; prohibits sexual intimacy with current clients, research subjects and supervisees

339
Q

What best describes BCIA’s role with respect to its certificants’ professional conduct and ethics

A

education

340
Q

Casey reduced his frequency of daily exercise after it resulted in painful leg cramps. This decline in exercise illustrates the operant concept of

A

aversive punishment (positive punishment)

341
Q

From cybernetic theory, which of these is a value your body strives to maintain

A

set point

342
Q

Which best describes biological feedback

A

information

343
Q

The strongest evidence of self regulation would be

A

increased hand temperature during a single session when instructed without feedback

344
Q

Carrie spends more time riding her horse on days that are more stressful. Her awareness of when she requires more riding time illustrates the concept of

A

discrimination

345
Q

A coping skill like the quieting response is best learned through

A

spaced practice (spaced practice spreads skill practice over a longer period of time than massed practice. This is important because relaxation skills have learning curves that depend on practice time. Spaced practice provide patients with more time to consolidate new skills and integrate these skills into daily life.

346
Q

Which operant concept is illustrated when desired co worker attention to Lisa’s migraine complaints is followed by more frequent headaches?

A

positive reinforcement

347
Q

Both erection and urination share the process of

A

passive volition (Peper reminds us that we cannot force the body to have an erection or urinate. Instead, these changes occur more readily when we allow them to happen)

348
Q

Which theoretical model proposes that biofeedback produces nonspecific effects

A

placebo model

349
Q

Sally stopped daily meditation after her physician stopped praising her blood pressure reductions. This best illustrates the operant principle of

A

extinction (In this example, non-reinforcement of an operant behavior (meditation) produced extinction of this behavior.

350
Q

Conditioned emotional responses (CER’s) are learned through

A

classical conditioning (like anxiety when you see a cop)

351
Q

Who first proposed the concept of homeostasis

A

Bernard (homeostasis which is a steady state environment

352
Q

Which kind of reinforcement does a biofeedback training system provide

A

secondary

353
Q

Which learning model best explains how an inert pill resembling a previously used antibiotic gains the ability to boost your body’s immune response

A

classical conditioning EG: pairing the placebo (neutral stimulus) with an effective antibiotic (unconditioned stimulus) improves immunity (conditioned response) Ader has demonstrated that classical conditioning can be uses to reduce the frequency of medication use.

354
Q

Biofeedback training is most like

A

learning to play the piano

355
Q

Instructions to change the color of a plastic dot used as a relaxation reminder are designed to reduce the problem of

A

habituation

356
Q

Active volition is illustrated by

A

trying (involves effortful control, trying versus allowing

357
Q

A clinician provides fewer feedback trials as biofeedback training progresses. Which operant procedure does this strategy reflect?

A

fading. It reduced the patient’s reliance on external feedback. This aids the transfer of self regulation skills to the environment outside the clinical setting

358
Q

The concept of biofeedback developed from _____ theory

A

cybernetic

359
Q

Based on the _____model of biofeedback therapists might administer biofeedback without relaxation instructions and researchers might compare biofeedback to relaxation procedures like progressive relaxation

A

relaxation

360
Q

In both avoidance learning and escape learning coping behaviors are___.

A

negatively reinforced (these behaviors become more likely because they allow an individual to either avoid or escape an aversive event

361
Q

Seligman’s concept of learned helplessness where patients stop trying to cope due to lack of success can be best explained by the operant conditioning principle of

A

extinction

362
Q

A therapist reinforces a child’s reduction of theta amplitude by playing music whenever a training goal is met. How does the music aid EEG biofeedback training

A

increasing motivation to perform

363
Q

When we reduce the frequency of feedback a biofeedback patient receiver this is analogous to the operant conditioning procedure of

A

fading

364
Q

Which reinforcement schedule is most vulnerable to extinction

A

1-10

365
Q

A dyslexic child increasingly reports stomach pain since this previously permitted escape from frustrating reading assignments. Which process is involved here?

A

negative reinforcement

366
Q

When Michael increases frontal alpha to reduce anxiety this illustrates

A

escape learning

367
Q

Catherine’s muscle relaxation practice has progressed so that she can reduce muscle bracing at both the computer keyboard and when she driving in rush hour traffic. This illustrate the operant principle of

A

generalization

368
Q

A computer based EEG biofeedback training system reveals increasing segment of a scenic picture as a patient increases beta amplitude. The visual display probed____reinforcement

A

secondary

369
Q

A skill increasing beta amplitude is considered “voluntary” when it can be elicited by

A

instructions

370
Q

When Susan increases SMR activity and decreases theta activity following a prodrome to prevent a generalized seizure this illustrates

A

avoidance learning

371
Q

If a patients reports of anxiety result in desired attention from family members this could _____this symptom

A

positively reinforce

372
Q

What is a learning process underlying the placebo response

A

classical conditioning

373
Q

You have not complied with your patients attempts to schedule sessions in the evening when your office is closed. After two months of no rescheduling requests your patient repeatedly raises the issue. This pattern illustrates the phenomenon of

A

spontaneous recovery

374
Q

Stephen reduced the number of cigarettes he smokes a day after developing a painful cough he attributed to smoking. This illustrates the operant principle of

A

punishment

375
Q

A patient stops practicing visualization at home because her chronic anxiety has not improved. This best illustrates the concept of

A

extinction (the concept of extinction since her operant behavior (visualization practice) has not been reinforced by its consequences

376
Q

New patients in alcohol treatment unit are introduced to a program graduate who is praised by the staff for his sobriety and success in increase alpha/theta amplitude. If this increases the new patients efforts to to modify their own EEG activity this illustrates the principle of

A

vicarious reinforcement (from a social learning perspective when the patients observed the model receiving praise they received vicarious reinforcement. This should increase their motivation to practice the self regulation skills learned in the program

377
Q

An active placebo is an

A

inert drug with an ingredient to produce side effects (an active placebo is a placebo coupled with an ingredient that produces benign side effect. This increase the placebo’s credibility and result in a higher success rate than observed with a standard placebo

378
Q

You gradually increase your patients EEF training goal until she produced theta 50% of the time during a30 second epoch. The process of reinforcing successive approximation for desired behavior is termed

A

shaping

379
Q

Dawn practices health computing exercises 15 minutes a day 5 times a week this pattern represents______practice

A

spaced (which is recommended for skill acquisition

380
Q

After a subject has developed a classically conditioned response an investigator begins presenting the conditioned stimulus by itself. Which of the following is likely to occur

A

extinction

381
Q

You were once stung by a bee and now you are somewhat frightened by all insects. YOu are displaying

A

stimulus generalization (in this example a conditioned fear response has generalized from the initial stimulus the bee to a new stimuli other insects. This process is called stimulus generalization and it allows us to expand our repertoire to deal with situations we have onto previously encountered. After receiving a bee sting we don’t have to receive a wasp sting to learn to avoid them

382
Q

In one experiment, the conditioned stimulus was always followed immediately by the unconditioned stimulus. However the unconditioned stimulus was frequently presented at other times as well. The fact that animals displays little or no response to the conditioned stimulus indicates that classical conditioning depends on

A

the degree to which the CS predicts the US (classical conditioning depends on the ability of the conditioned stimulus to predict the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus. When the conditioned stimulus is not followed by the unconditioned stimulus this weakens the predictive relationship and undermines classical conditioning

383
Q

In operant conditioning UNLIKE classical conditioning

A

the individual s response controls the outcome (reinforcement or punishment) In operant conditioning unlike classical conditioning the individuals response controls the outcome (reinforcement or punishment) In contest in classical conditioning the individual reflexively responds to a stimulus.

384
Q

Classical conditioning applies primarily to ____responses operant conditioning applies primarily to ______responses

A

visceral…….skeletal

385
Q

A dog drools saliva whenever he hears the “doggy snacks” cupboard open. Which of the following is true

A

The sound of the cupboard is the CS and the doggy snacks are the UCS

386
Q

A secondary reinforcer

A

gains its value from association with a primary reinforcer, A secondary reinforces is reinforcing because of its association with the primary reinforcer. For example a grandmothers smile may be a secondary reinforcer because it is associated with freshly baked cookies (primary reinforcer)

387
Q

As a rule, behaviorists assume that

A

every behavior is caused or determined through processes that can scientifically studied

388
Q

If you give a dog some food every time you sound one tone but fail to present food after a second tone you are likely to produce

A

discrimination

389
Q

A slow but steady rate of responding is most characteristic of behavior reinforced on ____schedule

A

variable interval (a variable interval schedule produces a slow but steady rate of responding. In contrast a fixed interval schedule produced a scalloped response pattern where responses decline after the delivery of reinforcement

390
Q

A professor gives unannounced quizzes at unpredictable times. Therefore students must study equally every night. Which type of schedule of reinforcement is this?

A

variable interval (The reinforcement schedule is variable interval since reinforcement occurs at random time intervals.

391
Q

Which of the following would be an example of punishment (passive avoidance).

A

you drink less beer than you once did, because you feel sick after drinking more than one can. Punishment (passive avoidance) reduces the frequency of behavior (beer consumption) due to its unpleasant consequences.

392
Q

A slow but steady rate of responding is most characteristic of behavior reinforced on a _____schedule.

A

variable interval: produces a slow but steady rate of responding, in contrast a fixed interval schedule produces a “scalloped” response pattern, where responses decline after the delivery of the reinforcement

393
Q

A professor gives unannounced quizzes at unpredictable times. Therefore students must study equally every night. Which type of schedule of reinforcement is this?

A

variable interval

394
Q

Which of the following would be an example of punishment (passive avoidance)?

A

You drink less beer than you once did, because you feel sick after drinking more than one can.

395
Q

Pavlow believed that presenting the CS at nearly the same time as the UCS caused a connection the brain to form so that the animal treated the CS as if it were the UCS. Psychologists today believe that the animal

A

uses the CS as a predictor that the UCS is coming

396
Q

A group of people has learned to blink their eyes whenever they see a flashing blue light, because for the last hour that flashing blue light has always been followed by a puff of air to their eyes. If we want to test for the possibility of stimulus generalization, what procedure should we follow?

A

present a flashing green light

397
Q

A slow but steady rate of responding is most characteristic of behavior reinforced on a _____schedule.

A

variable interval: produces a slow but steady rate of responding, in contrast a fixed interval schedule produces a “scalloped” response pattern, where responses decline after the delivery of the reinforcement

398
Q

A professor gives unannounced quizzes at unpredictable times. Therefore students must study equally every night. Which type of schedule of reinforcement is this?

A

variable interval

399
Q

Which of the following would be an example of punishment (passive avoidance)?

A

You drink less beer than you once did, because you feel sick after drinking more than one can.

400
Q

Pavlow believed that presenting the CS at nearly the same time as the UCS caused a connectionin the brain to form so that the animal treated the CS as if it were the UCS. Psychologists today believe that the animal

A

uses the CS as a predictor that the UCS is coming

401
Q

A group of people has learned to blink their eyes whenever they see a flashig blue light, because for the last hour that flashing blue light has always been followed by a puff of air to their eyes. If we want to test for the possibility of stimulus generalization, what procedure should we follow?

A

present a flashing green light

402
Q

What is spontaneous recovery?

A

an increase in responding after a delay following extinction

403
Q

Suppose your alarm made a slight clicking sound just before the alarm goes off. Even though you didn’t wake up to the clicking sound initially, now you do, due to classical conditioning. In this example, the unconditioned response is

A

waking up to your alarm: The alarm was the unconditioned response. After several trials, the clicks that preceded the alarm became the conditioned stimulus, and waking up in response to the clicks became the conditioned response.

404
Q

According to the Premack principle, is it possible to train an animal to drink more water by giving it food as reinforcement for drinking?

A

Yes but it is possible only when the animal would ordinarily spend more time eating than drinking: The Premack principle requires that you reinforce one behavior with a more reinforcing behavior. For example, a parent might allow 1 hour of online gaming for every 4 hours of studying.

405
Q

In Pavlov’s experiments he paired the presentation of food with a buzzer and measured salivation to each. In this experiment the buzzer was the

A

conditioned stimulus: because it preceded and predicted the unconditioned stimulus

406
Q

Punishment is most likely to produce a long lasting suppression of a behavior if

A

the individual has an alternative response available to produce the reinforcement

407
Q

A conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented and always followed by an unconditioned stimulus. Will the animal necessarily develop a conditioned response? Why or why not?

A

It depends. The animal may or may not develop a conditioned response, depending on whether or not the CS predicts the UCS.

408
Q

Who proposed a “‘triune” model of the human brain including reptilian, old mammalian and new mammalian parts?

A

MacLean

409
Q

Who studied the relationship between reported subjective experience and brain rhythms?

A

Brown

410
Q

Which researcher identified alpha and beta rhythms?

A

Berger

411
Q

developed human EEG databases using 19 surface electrode

A

Duffy

412
Q

developed brain electrical activity mapping (BEAM) that provides a topological map of EEG activity

A

Duffy

413
Q

Who coined the term neurometrics?

A

John

414
Q

WHo investigated the operant conditioning of cortically evoked responses?

A

Rosenfield

415
Q

Whose “Psychology Today” article on alpha biofeedback increased public awareness of biofeedback and interest in EEG biofeedback?

A

Kamiya

416
Q

WHo pioneered the study of slow cortical potentials?

A

Birbaumer

417
Q

developed Open Focus training and pioneered EEG synchrony training

A

Fehmi

418
Q

demonstrated the efficacy of alpha-theta Neurofeedback in treating alcoholics

A

Peniston and Kulkosky

419
Q

Walter and colleagues (1964) reported on a steady, negative shift in the EEG in the interval between a warning signal (S1) and the second stimulus that required a response (S2). The slow potential was the

A

contingent negative variation (CNV)

420
Q

Who investigated twilight learning using EEG biofeedback?

A

Budzynski

421
Q

pioneered SMR biofeedback treatment for generalized seizures

A

Sterman

422
Q

developed Open Focus training and pioneered EEG synchrony trainind

A

Fehmi

423
Q

demonstrated the efficacy of alpha-theta neurofeedback in treating alcoholics

A

Peniston and Kulkosky

424
Q

Walter and collegues (1964) reported on a steady, negartive shift in the EEG in the interval between a warning signal (S1) and the second stimulus that required a response (S2). The slow potential was the

A

contingent negative variation (CNV)

425
Q

Kornhuber and Deecke (1965) described a gradually rising negative wave that appears 500-1000msec before voluntary movement and peaks when the movement is performed. This slow potential was the

A

readiness potential (RT)

426
Q

Who reported the P300 slow cortical potential?

A

Sutton and colleagues (1965)

427
Q

IN 1857____first demonstrated that electrical activity could be recorded from the brain of a living animal

A

Caton

428
Q

Which would worsen movement artifact in EEG recording?

A

lengthening the EEG cable

429
Q

artifact is usually the strongest source of contamination during EEG recording

A

Sixty HZ (50 HZ)

430
Q

The EEG primarily reflects graded_____potential in _______

A

excitatory and inhibitory, dendrites

431
Q

The EEG signal is measured in microvolts. A microvolt is ______of a volt.

A

1/1,000,000

432
Q

In North America, contamination from line current occurs primarily at

A

60 HZ

433
Q

EOG artifact in EEG recording is due to

A

electrical potential differences between the aqueous and vitreous humors

434
Q

Which bandpass can be used to measure theta EEG activity?

A

4-7 Hz

435
Q

SMR activity can be detected from

A

12-15 Hz

436
Q

Which bandpass can be used to measure alpha EEG activity?

A

8-12 Hz

437
Q

The majority of EEG power falls between

A

0-20 Hz

438
Q

Which EEG landmark is closest to the ear?

A

preauricular point (notch)

439
Q

The standard electrode placement system draws an imaginary line from the nasion to the ______

A

inion

440
Q

Power refers to the square of signal

A

amplitude

441
Q

Which of these is related to EEG signal frequency?

A

cycles per second

442
Q

Breathing pattern can influence EEG training. For example, when hyperventilation constricts blood vessels, it generates ________activity.

A

theta

443
Q

Which is a slow cortical potential?

A

P300 wave

444
Q

Which of these biological signals is always below 5 Hz

A

slow cortical potentials

445
Q

Which of these is specified in db/octave?

A

filter slope

446
Q

An impedance meter measures the quality of skin electrode contact

A

Kohms

447
Q

If your voltage is 24 and resistance is 2, current is _____amperes

A

12:

448
Q

Which is measured in microvolts?

A

signal strength

449
Q

Which is typically the strongest source of interference in SEMG recording

A

60 Hz artifact

450
Q

Which circuit does a blown fuse illustrate?

A

open

451
Q

What forces electrons to move in a circuit?

A

electromotive force

452
Q

When there is a break in an electrode cable, impedance measured from both ends of the cable should be ______ohms

A

infinite

453
Q

Which technique is used to quantify EEG amplitude within specific frequency bands?

A

Fast Fourier Transformation (FFT)

454
Q

The highest amplitude EEG frequency band is called the ______frequency.

A

dominant

455
Q

A 1 second exposure to currents above_____mA can produce ventricular fibrillation

A

50

456
Q

EEG signals are changed into _____during optical isolation

A

light

457
Q

A notch filter to remove line current noise typically operates from _____in North America

A

58-62HZ

458
Q

Opposition to the movement of an AC signal through a circuit is called

A

impedance

459
Q

Which filter selects signals above a specified cutoff frequency?

A

high-pass

460
Q

If signal amplitude is 1 microvolt at midband, the amplitude at the corner frequencies is _____microvolt

A

0.707

461
Q

Which of these indexes and electroencephalograph’s ability to detect the smallest change in EEG activity?

A

resolution

462
Q

Which integration method produces the highest EEG and EMG values?

A

peak to peak

463
Q

Which of these measures an EEG’s ability to detect the smallest signal voltage?

A

sensitivity

464
Q

A dummy subject is used with EEG or EMG instruments to measure

A

both environmental and instrument noise

465
Q

Which common mode rejection ratio specification would you prefer in an EEG

A

110dB

466
Q

Which filter selects signals below a specified cutoff frequency?

A

low-pass

467
Q

Which of these expresses a ratio of 10,000 to 1?

A

80 dB

468
Q

Which of these describes a differential amplifier?

A

subtracts identical input signals

469
Q

How does a ground fault interrupt circuit protect against shock?

A

triggers a circuit breaker when there is leakage

470
Q

Which material produces the lowest electrode noise?

A

silver silver-chloride

471
Q

Which EEG differential input impedance specification is best?

A

10 Megohms

472
Q

Which of these is an international EEG electrode placement system?

A

10-20 International System of Electrode Placement

473
Q

Your EEG’s digital display shows 2 microvolts. During which stage of processing was this value calculated?

A

integration

474
Q

A 1 second exposure to current exceeding ______mA can produce injury

A

5

475
Q

Where is alpha amplitude lowest in a healthy subject

A

frontal (highest in occipital lobe)

476
Q

Which would help reduce 60 Hz noise during EEG and sEMG recording?

A

differential amplifier

477
Q

Sterman recommends using to represent EEG power in descriptive statistics

A

the natural log transformation of microvolts

478
Q

EEG electrodes are located ______of the distance between the nasion and the inion and between the left preauricular point and the right preauricular point.

A

10-20%

479
Q

Which beta bandpass is used to measure theta/beta ratios in ADHD?

A

13-21 Hz

480
Q

Which filter only suppresses slow wave activity?

A

low frequency

481
Q

Which term refers to the combination of electrodes used in a single amplifier channel?

A

derivation

482
Q

When there is a break in an electrode cable, impedance measured from one end to the other should be ______ohms.

A

infinite

483
Q

A 1 second exposure to currents above _____mA can produce ventricular fibrillation

A

50

484
Q

A blown fuse illustrates which kind of circuit?

A

open

485
Q

____is characterized by a sudden large deflection in at least one channel when an electrode abruptly detaches from the scalp

A

Electrode pop artifact

486
Q

A conservative guideline is that impedance values for disc electrodes should not exceed ______Kohms and should be balanced within_____Kohms to ensure acceptable common mode rejection and high sensitivity

A

5; 1

487
Q

______is the correlation between the amplitudes of specific frequencies recorded at different sites over time and specific conditions

A

comodulation

488
Q

_____is the rate of electron movement through a circuit

A

Current

489
Q

_____refers to the actual frequencies selected by a filter for further analysis

A

Bandpass

490
Q

The _____is the absolute difference between the high pass and low pass frequencies measured in hertz

A

bandwidth

491
Q

_____occurs when an EMG signal travels to an EEG electrode and contaminates these recordings

A

volume conduction: is signal movement across the body through the fluid surrounding cells (interstitial fluid)

492
Q

An_____prevents current flow under normal circumstances

A

insulator

493
Q

An _____multiplies the voltage of a low amplitude signal

A

amplifier

494
Q

________is the ability of a differential amplifier to subtract signals common to active and reference electrodes

A

common mode rejection

495
Q

Which of these converts a filtered AC signal into a positive DC signal for integration (calculation of a signal voltage)?

A

recitifier

496
Q

Which method produces the largest signal voltage by transforming both positive and negative halves into an equivalent DC signal?

A

full-wave rectification

497
Q

Which is the first amplification stage in an instrument that requires several stages to increase a low level signal to voltage levels required for processing?

A

preamplifier

498
Q

Which is the proportion of signal to artifact amplitudes measured in dB?

A

signal to noise ratio

499
Q

________refers to a point on a waveform’s 360 degree cycle at an instant in time

A

phase (refers to a point on a waveforms 360 degree cycle at an instant in time. When the peaks and valleys of two waveforms coincide, they are in phase. When they do not coincide, they are out of phase. The degree to which the tow waveforms are out of phase is expressed by phase angle which measured in degrees.

500
Q

Which of these protects a patient from shock hazard by converting an electrical signal to a beam of light that is projected across a gap and reconverted into an electrical signal?

A

optical isolator

501
Q

Which of these is an interval between two frequencies that represents a 2:1 ratio?

A

octave

502
Q

Which integration method results in a voltage that is two times peak voltage?

A

peak-peak

503
Q

Which is a unit of resistance?

A

ohm

504
Q

An amplifier’s differential input impedance should be at least ______times the skin-electrode impedance

A

100

505
Q

Which refers to a signal sampling period?

A

epoch

506
Q

In_____, EEG signals are rapidly sampled, digitized and decomposed into a series of waveforms of different frequencies. This technique calculates amplitudes for frequencies within a bandpass to determine the power distribution of a signal.

A

FAst Fourier Transformation Analysis

507
Q

Which measures the noise due to instrument and environmental sources?

A

dummy subject

BCIA (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions