BB Jarr/AAB Flashcards

1
Q

Donor req:

Min age…
Min weight lbs/kg…
Min temp C/F

A

Min age >= 16

Weight min 110lbs/50kg

Temp <=37.5/99.5F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Donor req:

Blood pressure mmHg
Systolic
Diastolic

Pulse

A

90-180 Systolic

50-100 Diastolic

Pulse 50-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Donor hgb/hct M/F…
allogenic donor…

A

allogenic 12.5g/dL/38% HCT

Females:
>=12.5 hmg/>=38% hct

Males:
>=13.0 hmg/>=39% hct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1 yr defferal: due to/examples

A

exposure to hep, HIV, malaria

-Transfusion, Tattoo, Mucous/skin penetration

-Living with/sex with person positive HBsAG/HBV NAAT/symptoms HCV
->72hrs in jail

-Hep B Immunoglobulin
-After stopped treatment syphilllis/gonn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Interval between whole blood donations

A

2 mths
(8 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long deferral for…
-Hep B Immunoglobulin
-Transfusion
-Tattoo
-Living with/sex with person positive HBsAG/HBV NAAT/symptoms HCV
-Mucous/skin penetration
->72hrs in jail

A

1yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Indenfinite/permanent defferal

A

-Viral hep after age 11
-Pos HBsAg/HBV NAAT

-Repeat reactive anti-HBc/anti-HTLV
-Infection HCT/HTLV/HIV or T.cruzi

-Family history CJD/vCJD
-Babesiosis

-drug use
-Human growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 yr deferral for:

A

exposure to malaria

-asymptomatic during visit to endemic area
-previously diagnosed w/malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Defferal for how long?

-Viral hep after age 11
-Pos HBsAg/HBV NAAT
-Repeat reactive anti-HBc/anti-HTLV
-Infection HCT/HTLV/HIV or T.cruzi
-drug use
-Family history CJD/vCJD
-Babesiosis

A

Indefinit/permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

75 year old male with acute hepatitis 20 yrs ago (age 55) after surgery would be permantly deffered because

A

He got it after 11yrs of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

38 yr old male got rabies vaccine after a dog bite 3 mths ago would be deffered for

A

12mths after bitten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

19yr old first time donor got human growth hormone 12 yrs ago would be defered

A

permaently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

24yr old donor with pos test for hepC would be defered

A

permanently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Good for?

ACD/CPD/CPD2

Irradiated

CPDA-1

Additives/Adsol

A

ACD/CPD/CPD2: 21days

Irradiated: 28days

CPDA-1: 35 days

Additives/Adsol: 42 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Autologous donations

Age limit?
Hct/Hgb:
Time needed to collect before surgery:

A

Age limit? None

Hct/Hgb: >=33%/11g/dL

Time needed to collect before surgery: >72hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rejuvenating Sln restores these two

A

2,3 DPG
ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cytapheresis:
PLTS, Grans, Leuko

need to be spaced…days apart

and no more than … in any … days

A

need to be spaced 2 days apart

and no more than 2 in any 7 days period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

After donate 2 units wait…

must not decrease hct/hmg by…

A

for every 2 units 4mths
(each unit 2mths,)

hmg below 30%/10g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1 unit packed RBCs raises hgb and hct by

A

Hmg 1g/dL
Hct 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Storing RBCs in fridge decreases plasma…

A

pH (increased lactic acid) and sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Storing RBcs in fridge increases plasmsa…

A

NH4, K+, hmg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Washing cells prevents…

Removes__ and __

Washed cells expire ___ after seal broken

A

allergic response to plasma proteins and anaphlyatic shock in IgA def PTs

removes anti-HPA-1a and complement

expires 24hrs after seal broken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Leukoreduced number of leukocytes/unit

A

<5x10*6 leuko/unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Leukoreduced % red cell retained…

Final WBC count…

Prevents…

A

85% red cells

<5x10*6 WBC

prevents febrile NH, HLA alloimm, CMV

due to presence of cytokies from WBCs or alloimm from HLA/leu ag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Frozen/deglycerolized cells

% glycerol…
Expires, stored at…

thawed at, then stored at/for… after deglycerolizing

A

40% glycerol

Expires 10yrs
stored at <=-65C

Thawed at 37, deglycerolized
Then stored at 1-6C for 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

FFP:
stored/expires…
freeze w/in…
thaw at..
Store at… For up to…

A

stored <=-18C for 1yr or <=-65C for 7yrs

freeze w/in 8hrs of separation from cells

thaw at 30-37C
store 1-6C
up to 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FFP is used for and has

A

coagulation def

Factor 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cryo is made from…
w/in…hrs
then thawed…
which forms a…. …. …..

it is separated, refrozen w/in….

A

FFP frozen w/in 8hrs then thawed 1-6C which forms a cold insoluble portion

separated, refrozen w/in 1hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cryo is stored at…for…

After thawing, store at…

Transfuse w/in…
-pooling open:
-pooling closed:

A

<=-18C for 1yr

RT after thawing

4hrs pooling in open

6hrs pooling in closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PLTs/Apheresis

Light spin removes…
Heavy spin…
Used for….
pH needed…

A

Light spin removes red cells
Heavy spin spins down PLTs/WBCs

Used for thrombocytopenia and PLT dysfunction

ph >=6.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

1 unit PLT raises PLT….

1 apheresis raises PLT…

A

5-10,0000/uL

20-60,000/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Granulocyte apheresis used for…

can transmit/induce/cause….if not irridated

store…for…w/out…

A

neutropenic patients w/gram neg sepsis

can transmit CMV, induce HLA imm, and cause GVHD

store 20-24C for 24hrs without agitation

*ABO compatible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Irradiated prevents…

A

GVHD
inactivates T cells due to donor lymps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dolichos biflorus agglutinates…

A

A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ulex europaeus agglutinates

A

H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bombay phenotype, type as…

A

Oh, hh lack H
type as O

*Anti-H Ulex eurpaeus will not agglutinate Bombay but will O cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Greatest amount of H to least…

H gene codes for the enzyme…

A

O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B>Oh

L-fucosyltransferase

A1 has 5x more antigen than A2 this less H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

R..
r…

A

D
d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

0 or nothing about C/E

A

ce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

1 or ‘

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

2 or “

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

z or y

A

CE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

R0 gene…ag?

A

Dce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

R1 gene..ag?

A

DCe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

R2 gene…ag?

A

DcE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rz gene…ag?

A

DCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

r gene…ag?

A

ce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

r’ gene…ag?

A

Ce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

r” gene..ag?

A

cE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ry

A

CE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

plasma ag absorb on RBCs

Don’t cause HDFN, not on fetal cells

A

Lewis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Absent/weak on cord
mostly adults
igM cold ab

A

I, anti-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

on infants

A

i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

IgG autoab: Donath-Landsteiner biphasic/PCH

A

anti-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Anti-P1

type
neutralized by

A

IgM cold

P1 sub hydatid cyst fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

M/N, S/s are ….alleles

A

codominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Anti-M/N type

A

IgM

Anti-M can be IgG and cause HDFN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Anti-M/N

dosage?
enzymes?

HDFN?

A

Has dosage

doesn’t react/destroyed by enzymes

Does’t cause HDFN
except with anti-M IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Anti-S/s type

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Anti-U type…
formed by…who lack…

A

IgG

Blacks lack S,s,U

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Jka/b type (kidd)

enzymes?
dosage?

associated with?

A

IgG

react stronger w/enzymes
shows dosage

associated with delayed transfussion rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Fya/b
type
enzymes?
dosage?

A

IgG

negative/destroyed by enzymes

weak examples may show dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Fya-b-
%/race

A

68% Blacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

increase ab uptake, allows decreased incubation

A

LISS
low ionic strength saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Bromein, ficin, papain, tyrpsin

removes..

A

remove negative charges from the RBC membranes.

This reduces the zeta potential, bringing the cells closer together, enhancing some blood group antibody-antigen reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Ezymes increase reactivity of these 5 ab

A

ABO/Rh

Lewis
I
P1

Kidd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Enzymes decrease/destroy these 3 systems

variable in…

A

M,N,S
Fya, Fyb

Lua/b

variable in s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

shows dosage in 4 systems

A

M,N,S,s
Kidd
Duffy (weak example of ab may show)

Rh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

3 Absent ag on cord cells

A

I
Lewis
Sda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Anti-I, H, P1
M,N
Lea/Leb

temp, media, class

A

4-22C
Saline
IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Rh ab temp, media, class

*exception

A

37C, Liss/Albumin, IgG

*IgM cold ag/reacting at higher thermal range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

IgG reacting at 37, AHG

A

Anti…
Rh
Kell
Duffy
Kidd
*some M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

IgM reacting at 4-22, saline

A

Anti…
I, H, P1
M,N
Lea,Leb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cold Hemmaglutinin Disease and Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria both have what protein coating their RBCs

A

complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Drug induced HA (DIHA) and Warm AutoAb (WAIHA) both can have what proteins coating their red cells?

A

IgG and/or complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Mixed type AIHA has what proteins coating red cell?

A

IgG and complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Type of protein covering cells in HDN and trans rxn

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Universal donor for
RBC and plamsa

A

RBC: Oneg,
no ag to stimulate recipient

Plasma: AB
no ab to attach recipient cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Universal recipient RBC and plasma

A

RBC: AB
no ab to attach ag on blood given

Plasma: Oneg
can get any plasma, don’t have any antigens for ab to attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Transfusion related,
Acute respiratory insuff/pulmonary edema
Hypotension
Ab to donor plasma to neutrophils/HLA ag

A

Trans related acute lung injury
TRALI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Transfusion associated,
Pulmonary edema w/hypertension
PTs >70/infants

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload
TACO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Allergic rxn mild
ab type, symptoms

A

IgE
Mild-urticarial hives/itching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Allergic rx severe called, type, cells preferred

A

classic anaphylaxis
IgA def PT
washed cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

2F rise w/in 1 hr

A

febrile rxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Condition where transfused Immunocompetent lymph attach recipient
and HLA ag are different

A

TA-GVHD

transfusion associated
graft vs host disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Conditon where there’s shaking, hypotension and occurs with PLTs

A

Transfusion related sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Critical titer for most ab at AHG

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Critical titer for anti-K at AHG

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Used to establish severity of HDFN

A

ultra sound and color Doppler ultrasonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Purpose of exchange transfusion

A

reduces bilirubin and removes maternal ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Antepartum Rh imm glob given…wks to…

A

28weeks to Dneg women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Postpartum Rh immglob given …hrs to women who deliver..

A

w/in 72hrs to Dneg women who deliver Rhpos infant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Test used to determine how much Rh Imm Glob to use

Is positive when…

A

Kleihauer-Betke

fetal cells resist acid elution, appear pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

self/non self
2 classes

transplants
susceptibility of diseases, paretange testing

chromosome 6

A

HLA
human leukocyte antigens, glycoproteins on cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Class I genes

A

HLA-
A,B,C

for the antigens A,B,C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Class II genes

A

HLA-
DP, DQ, DR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Serological/viral tests required by AABB

A

syphillis/RPR

anti-HIV/RNA HIV
anti-HTLV 1/2

anti-HCV

HBsAg, HBV DNA

T.cruzi
Babesia RNA/DNA

WNV/Zika RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Order of Hepatitis B ag/ab

A

1.)HBsAg early acute
2.)HBeAg

3.)anti-HBc
early recovery, window
4.)anti-HBe
5.)anti-HBs recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Screen for HIV

viral markers for HIV

A

screen: ELISA

viral:
anti-HIV 1/2
anti-HTLV 1/2

a distant relative of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

3 bacteria contaminants of blood products

A

Y.e.
(Yersinia enterocolitica)

C.f.
(Citrobacter freundii)

P.p.
(Pseudomonas putida)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

3 parasites transmitted by blood transfusion

A

Babesia
Malaria/Plasmodium
Trypanosoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is…
a group of 9 plasma proteins, causes hemolysis of red cells, actived by IgG/IgM

A

complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Enzyme A gene codes for…

immunodominant sugar…

A

alpha-3-N-
acetylgalac

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Enzyme B gene codes for…
immunodominant sugar…

A

alpha-3-D-
galac

D-galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Frequency of ABO greatest to least

A

O>A>B>AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

O
antigen on cell..
ab in serum..
geno type…

A

H
anti-A,B,A1B
OO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

A
antigen on cell, ab in serum, genotype

A

A, anti-B
AO, AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

B antigen on cell, ab in serum, genotype

A

B, anti-A
BO, BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

AB antigen on cell, ab in serum, genotype

A

AB, no ab
AB, cis-AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

O can results from what genotype and why

A

OO
O is a amorph/autorecessive
have to get from both parents to show

*chromosome 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What antigen is…
a variant, tested at 37/AHG, can be neg/weak

A

Weak D/Du

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

f and Cw is part of what blood grp

A

Rh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

U is part of what blood grp

A

MNSs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Tja is part of what blood grp

A

P system, PP1PK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Which antibody…
mostly IgM, netraulized by Lewis subs, doesn’t cause HDFM

A

anti-Lea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How many people have D on their cells?

A

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

which ab/ag…
IgG, caused by transfusion, is the 2nd most potent antigen(next to D)

A

Kell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How many people have K antigen

A

9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Cellano antigen can produce

A

anti-k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

How many have k on cells?

A

99%

as opposed to K, 9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Little versions of antigens are more prevalant on cells than the big versions

A

C 68, c 80
E 29, e 98
K 9, k 99
S 55, s 89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Fy a-b- resistant to two kinds of malarial species

A

P. vivax, P.Knowlesi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How many what are the names of the antigens does Kidd blood grp have

A

Jka, Jkb, Jk3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Which antigen…
is poorly developed on cord cells, pos in adults, reacts strong at 4C/RT, not seen in whites, cold agg strongly attracted to, binds complement

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Cold agg disease to which antigen and is a

and is caused by which organism

A

anti-I

cold ab (IgM)

M.pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Infectious mono caused by which antibody

A

anti-i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

AB frequency

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

PT red cells direct commbs pos, bacterial contaminant reagents, penicillin/cephalothin,methydopa, quinidine and complement fixation cause DAT to be…

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

inadequate washing of cells cause false…DAT

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Which tests help diagnose HDN, HTR, AHA

A

DAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which enzyme…
has phosphate buffered saline and glycine

enhances speed/sensitivity

decreases electropos cations

A

LISS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Type of HDFN

increased spherocytes
DAT weak/neg
delayed jaundice
1st prego

A

ABO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Type HDFN
increased retics
DAT pos
bilirubin
not 1st prego

A

Rh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Pulse for donor

A

50-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Blood pressure for donor

A

90-180/50-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Color label O

A

Blue

O likes A, blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Color label B

A

Pink

B becomes pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Color label AB

A

Black, grey, white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Donor label A

A

Yellow

switches with B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Deferral for MMR, typhoid oral, yellow fever

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Deferral German measles, chicken pox

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Deferral West Nile

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Cells that present foreign material to lymphs, initiating immune response

Large, specialized cells in the immune system that recognize, engulf and destroy infecting or damaged cells.

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Cells involved in intracellular, cellular immunity

A

Tcells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Which cells recognize/interact with antigen and make cytokines that activate other cells such as Bcells/T cytotoxic

A

T helper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Cells involved in extracellular, humoral immuniity

A

Bcells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Response with lag phase of 7-14 days before ab is deteced, IgM to IgG

A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Made by T helper cells that are signals between cells, regulate intensity of a rxn, initiate inflammation, cause fever, and stimulate BM to make more cells

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

response with 1-2 days before sig amt ab made, IgG, 1000x more ab then slow decline

A

Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

strength of binding between single ab and epitope of ag

The strength of the interaction between the antigen-binding site (paratope) on an antibody and the epitope on an antigen

A

affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

overall strength between epitopes and abs

Represents the overall strength of the antibody-antigen interaction and is influenced by three factors – the binding affinity, valency, and the structural arrangement of the antibody and antigen in question.

A

avidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Testing with in vivo sensitization of red cells, happens in PT, cells must be washed

A

DAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Testing with in vitro sensitization, 2 steps, serum incubated, washed

A

IAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

3 potentiators that decrease zeta potential

A

LISS, BSA/albumin, proteolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

1 potentiator that increases concentration of ab

A

PEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Commb check cells, screening cells and panel cells are type…

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Cells that are IgG sensitized cells, used to confirm addition of AHG

A

Commbs check cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Plants lectin is made from seeds of..
that agglutinate A1 cells

A

Dolichos biflorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

lectin is used to demonstrate the presence and strength of expression of the H and A2 antigen…

A

Ulex europaeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Kind of gel used in Gel technique for BB that traps agglutinated red cells

A

dextran acrylamide gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

In gel, no rxn is…
positive rxn is…

A

no: solid button on bottom
rxn: agg cells on top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

In microplate/solid phase, …is coated on bottom of well, serum is added wit indicator cells.

what is pos..
what is neg…

A

pos: bottom coated with cells/covered
neg: button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Blood group system where antigen isn’t directly produced by the gene; gene makes something that put ag on red cell; ag is in fluid and gene transfers carb on that red cell

A

ABO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

ABO/H are on these 6 things

A

red cells, lymphs, PLTs
epis, endothelial, organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

ABO from most frequency to least

A

O>A>B>AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Need … on red cells to express A or B ag

A

H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

A gene makes

A

N-acetly galac

(galactosaminyl transferase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

B gene makes

A

D-galac

(galactosyl transferase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Which ABO has most H substance…
Which has the least…

A

Most: O
Least: A1B, Oh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

A2 has more or less H than A1

A

A2>A1

A1 has 5x more A antigen than A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Order of ABO from most to least amt H

A

O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

80% of group A have subtype
20% have subtype

A

A1: 80%
A2:20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Subtype of A which MF rxn with antiA, anti A,B, seen in 1:1000

A

A3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Subtype A mistaken for O, weak rxn

A

Ax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

In ABO, A and B are

A

codominant

when inherited both are expressed

176
Q

O gene is…
Must inherit … to express

A

recessive
inherit 2 O’s from each parent, HH,Hh

177
Q

System naturall occuring, usually IgM, non RBC stimulated, stimulated by bacteria when born

A

ABO

178
Q

In reverse typing extra rxns could be caused by 3 things

A

rouleaux
A subgrp
cold allo/auto

179
Q

In reverse typing, missing/weak rxn could be caused by

A

newborn, elderly
HPC transplant

180
Q

In forward rxn, extra rxn could be caused by

A

Roleux, polyagg
Acquired B, B(A)

181
Q

In forward rxn, missing/weak rxn could be caused this

A

ABO subgroup

182
Q

In forward rxn, MF could be due to these 3

A

transfusion
HPC transplant

subgrop A, A3

183
Q

Most immunogenic…
2nd most immunogenic…
3rd most immunogenic..

A

ABO
Rh/D
Kell

184
Q

Nomenclature that Rh ag is inherited as a gene complex coding for 3 closely related linked set of alleles

A

Fisher Race

185
Q

Nomenclature where theres one gene for expression of all Rh ag on cells, accounts for lack of d ag

A

Weiner Rh-Hr

186
Q

Numeric terminology with ISBT# not based on genetics; computerized data entry

A

Rosenfeld

187
Q

Weiner:
R^0 to fisher

A

Dce

188
Q

R^1 to fisher

A

DCe

189
Q

R^2 to fisher

A

DcE

190
Q

R^Z to fisher

A

DCE

191
Q

r to fisher

A

dce

192
Q

r’ to fisher

A

dCe

193
Q

r’’ to fisher

A

dcE

194
Q

r^y to fisher

A

dCE

195
Q

Rh antibodies:
Ig..
temp…
shows…
can cause….

A

IgG
37C
shows dosage
can cause HDFN

196
Q

Second most immunogenic to D

A

Kell

197
Q

Kell
Ig…
temp…
enzymes?
HTR/HDN?

A

IgG
37F
not affected by enzymes
can cause HTR,HDN

198
Q

cellano is…
is…frequency…%

A

k
high, 99.8%

199
Q

Kell is…frequency
thus common to see…

A

low
common to see antibodies if been exposed

200
Q

Kpa, Jsa are …frequency
Kpb, Jsb are…frequency

A

Kpa/Jsa: low
Kpb/Jsb: high

201
Q

Kx neg is called…
seen in…because it’s.. …

A

Mcleod phenotype
males (xlinked)

202
Q

Duffy:
Ig..
temp..
HTR/HDN?

A

IgG
37F
HTR/HDN

203
Q

Duffy…
enzymes?
dosage?

A

destroyed by enzymes
dosage

204
Q

Fya+b+ seen in …% of…

Fya-b- seen in…% of …

A

49% whites

68% blacks

205
Q

Fya-b- resistance to these two malarial species

A

vivax, knowlesi

206
Q

Antibody that is IgG, 37C, binds complement, and seen in severve delayed transfusion rxn

A

Kidd

207
Q

Oral temp not exceed
C, F

A

37.5C
99.5F

208
Q

Min hmg allogenic donor
Min hct allogenic donor

A

12.5 g/dL for allogenic
38%

209
Q

Donor age

A

> 16

210
Q

Donor pulse

A

50-100

211
Q

donor weight lb,kg

A

> = 110
=50kg

212
Q

BP

A

90-180/50-100

213
Q

Pregnant woman deffered

A

6weeks postpartum/after birth

214
Q

defereal Hep b vaccine

A

21 days

215
Q

possible exposure to hepatitis/HIV/malaria defferal

blood trans, tatto, sex with someone with hepatitis

A

12mths/1yr

216
Q

Possible exposure to malaria, history of malaria defereal

A

3yrs after stoopped treatment

217
Q

Pos TB skin, meets all other criteria, deferal

A

no

218
Q

Viral hep after age 11, defereal

A

perm

219
Q

incarcerated deferal >72hs

A

1 yr

220
Q

deferal symptom free after immunozied oral polio, mumbs

A

2 weeks

221
Q

Babesisois
CJD
T.cruzi all defered

A

poermanent

222
Q

Donor blood must be tested for these 5

A

sysphillis
antiHIV, antiHTLV

antiHCV
HBV stuff

223
Q

Color coding for blood labels

A
B
O
AB

A

A=yellow
B=pink
O=blue

AB=black/grey/white

224
Q

Only marker of HBV in window period

A

antiHBc IgM

225
Q

chronic carrier Hep B is when PT serum is positive for… forr at least…

A

HBsAg
6mths min

226
Q

3 markers req for viral testing HIV
1 marker not req

A

3 req:
antiHIV 1, 2
anti HTLV I/II

1 not req: HIV1 p24ag

227
Q

BB fridege temp…
transport of blood temp..
PLTs/RT…

A

BB fridge 1-6C
transport blood 1-10C
PLT/RT 20-24C

228
Q

Deferral for visitor/immigrant from endemic area for malaria

A

3yrs

229
Q

Deferral for travel to endemic area for malaria

A

1 yr

230
Q

Deferral after treatment of syphilis and gonnorhea

A

12mths after cessation of treatment

231
Q

All donor blood tested for…

A

-ABO, Rh (not full pheno)
-ab screen

-serological syphilis/RPR
-serological T.cruzi

-HepB, C
-HIV, HTL
-WN,Zika

232
Q

3 req viral hepatitis markers

A

HBsAg
antiHBc

anti-HCV

233
Q

Early acute, viremic phase of Hepatitis what marker

A

HBsAg

234
Q

Shortest to longest expiration date of 3 main types of anticoagulant/additives

A

-ACD/CPD/CPD-2: 21 days

-CPDA-1: 35 days,
longer with extra adenine

-Additives/ADSOL: 42 days

235
Q

All RBCs: leuko reduced, aphresis stored at

A

1-6C

236
Q

Frozen RBCs 40% glycerol stored at…for…

A

-65C for 10yrs

-Less glycerol needs colder
-once deglycerolized 24hrs

237
Q

FFP and Cryo stored at…for…

A

<=-18C for 1yr

238
Q

Platelets: closed, open pooled, leuko reduced stored at…with…

Unless open, good for…

A

20-24C with constant agitation

5 days
Opened 4hrs

239
Q

NH4, K… During storage of plasma

A

Increase

240
Q

pH, Na, 2-3 DPG… During storage of plasma in fridge

A

Decrease

241
Q

Autologous reqs:
Hct/Hmg…
No…
Age?
Collect at least…hrs B4 surgery/trans

A

> =33%/11g/dL
No bacteremia
No age req
72hrs B4

242
Q

Only testing req for autologous

A

ABO/Rh

243
Q

WBC separated by reversible filtration/centrifugation

A

Leukapheresis

244
Q

Withdrawal of Blood, keep plasma, return RBC

A

Plasmapheresis

245
Q

How long after donating a unit of whole blood does it take for PLTs to replenish enough to do plateletpheresis?

A

72hrs

246
Q

How long after plasmapheresis does it take for plasma to replenish for being able to donate whole blood?

A

48hrs

247
Q

If you donate plasmapheresis more than once every 2 months, what to you check at 4mth intervals?

A

TP

248
Q

Codes for things; Made of DNA; hereditary info on a chromosome

A

Gene

249
Q

Genes that occupy a specific locus/site on a chromosome

A

Allelles

250
Q

Group of genes, inherited together from a single parent

A

Haplotype

251
Q

Occur in different forms, genetic variation

A

Polymorphic

252
Q

Gene with no directly observable product, doesn’t code for any functional protein…

Example of an amorph gene…

A

Amorph

O Gene, doesn’t code for an enzyme, just has H

253
Q

2 diff alleles of a particular gene

A

Heterozygous

254
Q

2 identical genes at a locus;
2 identical alleles on both homologous chromosomes

A

Homozygous

255
Q

Term where both alleles are expressed at the same time..

A

Codominant

256
Q

Most blood group genes are…

Ie.AB has both alleles expressed at the same time, one allele one B allelle

A

Codominant

257
Q

Organism with cells with more than one distinct genotype

A

Chimerism

258
Q

Term where variant expresses more strongly

A

Dominant

259
Q

Term that’s overruled by dominant, needs two…alleles

A

Recessive

260
Q

Genes carried on a sex chromosome

A

Sex linked

261
Q

Gene inheritance of most blood group systems.

Inheritance that refers to two alleles of an autosomal gene where each allele contributes to the phenotype.

A

Autosomal codominant

“Autosomal” means that the gene in question is located on one of the numbered, or non-sex, chromosomes.

262
Q

Antibodies made after exposed to foreign antigens simulated by transfusion or pregnancy

A

Alloantibodies

263
Q

the immune response occurring on the first exposure to an antigen, with specific antibodies appearing in the blood after a multiple day latent period

A

primary response

264
Q

Days to till primary response occurs

A

7-14

265
Q

Same foreign ag, rapid increase in ab

the immune response occurring on second and subsequent exposures to an antigen, with a stronger response to a lesser amount of antigen, and a shorter lag time compared to the primary immune response

A

secondary response,
Anamnestic

266
Q

Type off immunity passed thru placenta to fetus from Mom

A

Naturally acquired passive immunity

267
Q

H Gene codes for enzyme

A

L-fucosyltransferase

268
Q

Kell, Duffy, Kidd:
red cell stimulated?
Ig..
Which one enhanced by enzmes?

A

red cell stimulated
IgG
Kidd enhanced by enzymes

269
Q

M/N:
Ig..
optimal temp…
enzymes…
dosage…
pH…

A

IgM
but optimal 37C
destroyed by enzymes
dosage
ph6.5

270
Q

Nf caused by

A

formadehyde

271
Q

S,s,U:
Ig..
temp…
ezymes..
dosage…

A

IgG
37C
destroyed by enzymes
dosage

272
Q

U present if…or…present
U neg means, S/s…
seen in…
U is ficin…

A

S,s
U neg means S/s neg
seen in blacks
U is ficin resistant as compared to S/s

273
Q

Luteran antibody that can be present without red cell stimulation, is both IgM/G but best at RT

Also MF rxns and can cause mild HDFN

A

anti Lua

274
Q

Luteran that is high frequency, rare antibody; IgG, MF

A

anti Lub

275
Q

Lewis:
Ig..
temp…
ezymes…

A

IgM
RT
enzymes increase

276
Q

Antigens that are made by tissue cells that are secreted into BFs then adsorbed onto red cell membranej

A

Lewis

277
Q

Three genes Lewis is affected by

A

H, Le, Se

278
Q

Le sese H, what is in secretion

A

Lea

279
Q

Le Se H, what is in secretion

A

Lea, Leb, H

280
Q

lele sese H, what in secretion

A

none

281
Q

lele Se H, secretion

A

H

282
Q

Le sese hh, secretions

A

Lea

283
Q

Le Se hh, secretions

A

Lea

284
Q

lele sese hh, secretions

A

none

285
Q

lele Se hh, secretions

A

none

286
Q

Sese Hh AO what soluble antigens in saliva

A

A, H

287
Q

MF reaction with anti A, neg rxn with antiA1 lectin which subgroup

A

A3

288
Q

Bombay type as…are…
they don’t have these 3 antigens and will produce these 3 antibodies

A

type as O, Oh
no A,B,H so will make anti-A,B,H

289
Q

Frequency of ABO most to least for Whites/US
O..
A…
B..
AB..

A

O: 46
A: 41
B: 9
AB: 4

290
Q

Forward type: antiA 3+, antiB 3+
Reverse type: A1 2+, B 0

A

A2B perosn with A1

not as strong with antisera
A2 make A1 antibodies

291
Q

Genotype needed to have O phenotype

A

OO

292
Q

Heterozygous Group A is..
Heterozygous Group B is…
What would phenotype of offspring be…

A

Hetero A: AO
Hetero B: BO
Use Punnett square to get:
A,B, AB, O

293
Q

Group O mom and Group AB dad, probability of making A baby?

A

Use punnett,

AO,AO, BO,BO
50%

294
Q

Rh antibodies:
Ig..
temp…
acquired from…or…
can cause…

A

IgG
37C
acquired from transfusion/pregnancy
can cause HDFN

295
Q

amorph Rh antigen

A

d

296
Q

antibodies formed by R1R1

A

Fisher: DCe/DCe
antibodies to c, E

297
Q

Most immunogenic Rh antigen

A

D

298
Q

Variant of D antigen that is inherited, common in blacks and is considered Rhpos

A

Weak D

299
Q

Weak D alternate name…
Initial testing appears…or … ….
temp…
Phase..

A

Du
negative, weakly reactive
Test at 37, AHG

300
Q

Most common Rh neg genotype

A

cde/cde

301
Q

Name of phenotype in absense of Rh antigen

A

Rh null

302
Q

IgM, best in saline, best at 4C all are indicative of what kind of ab

A

naturally occuring

303
Q

antiA/B, antiM/N, antiLea, antiP1 are all

A

naturally occuring

304
Q

IgG, in AHG, cross the placenta all are characteristics of what kind of ab

A

immune ab

305
Q

% range of people that get immunized to blood group antigens

A

1-4%

306
Q

U is part of what system

A

MNSs

307
Q

Cw and f are part of what system

A

Rh

308
Q

Tja is part of what system

A

P

309
Q

Anti N will react most strongly with what genotype

A

NN

due to dosage

310
Q

Antigen in plasma and adsorbed onto red cells

A

Lea

311
Q

Paroxymal cold hemoglobinuria ass with

A

anti P

312
Q

Lele Sese Hh AB, what solube antigens in saliva

A

Lea, Leb, H, A, B

313
Q

antibody in Le a-b-, IgM, netraulized by lewis substance

A

anti Lea

314
Q

True or False, Lea causes HDFN

A

false

315
Q

3 systems destroyed by enzymes

A

MNS
Fya/b
Lua/b

316
Q

5 systems enhanced by enyzmes

A

Kidd, Rh
Lewis, I, P1

317
Q

anti-Lua:
temp…
medium…
rxn…
HDN?

A

IgM/G
RT, IAT
saline

MF
no HDN

318
Q

% lack K ag

A

91%

319
Q

of ten units, how many will be incompatible/ not antigen neg for K?

A

1/10% incompatible, 90% compantibility since 90% don’t have K antigen

320
Q

cellano antigen stimulates this ab

A

anti k

321
Q

anti Fya:
enzymes

A

destroyed, prevents detection of

322
Q

Most common of duffy antibodies

A

anti Fya

323
Q

Antigen poorley developed on cord cells, on adult cells

A

I

324
Q

cold autoantibody in cold hemagglutin disease and mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

anti I

325
Q

cold, IgM ab to infectious mononulceosis and lymphoproliferative disease

A

anti i

326
Q

P1, Ig…
P, Ig…

A

P1, IgM
P, IgG

327
Q

Which antigen can be neutralized by hydatid cyst liquid to reveal underlying ab

A

P1

328
Q

P1:
Ig…
enzymes..

A

IgM, cold
enyzmes enhance

329
Q

Donath-Landsteiner ab, biphasic…

A

autoanti P

330
Q

PCH, Paroxysmal cold Hmguria seen with kids w/viral infection, adults with syphilis…

A

autoanti P

331
Q

null p phenotype…two names
rare but very…
causes….

A

antiPP1Pk, Tja
very hemolytic, causes miscarrages

332
Q

Potentiator:

sensitive, faster

but enhances cold auto and can miss k,E

A

LISS

333
Q

Potentiator:
doesn’t enhance warm auto
but needs longer incubation

A

BSA/albumin

334
Q

Potentiator:
eliminates reactivity of Duffy,MNS ag
but enhances cold/warm auto

A

PEG

335
Q

If have multiple ab can use… to eliminate/enhance

A

enzymes

336
Q

If <3 mths since last transfusion,…will be inaccurate due to donor cells inside circulation (RBCs live 120days/3mths)

A

phenotype

337
Q

Cause of all cells on panel are positive with the same rxn strength

A

high frequency ag

338
Q

Cause of panel cells all reacting with diff reactivities…
rememdy…

A

cold allo, prewarm

339
Q

Pos AC, do a…
can use …cells to help id cold ab
can use…/… to help ensure absence of underlying ab

A

DAT
can use cord cells to id cold ab
elution/adsorption

340
Q

Pos DAT, … or … coated in….
Need to…or else with be negative
Pos ass w/immune mediated Hemolysis

A

IgG, complement in vivo
wash

341
Q

Auto/allo ab, drug induced ab, passenger lymphs, non-ab immunoglobulin all can cause… ….

A

pos DAT

342
Q

Used to remove ab from sensitized cell…
Type…

A

elution
cold acid eluate

343
Q

Autoimmune, drug induced and alloimune are all types of… HA

A

extravascular
hemolytic anemia

344
Q

Type of crossmatch where use donor serum with PT blood to test for compatibility

A

minor xmatch

345
Q

Type of crossmatch where you use PT serum with donor blood to test for compatibility, two names

A

major, serological

346
Q

These 4 govern xmatch

A

AABB, FDA
CAP, Joint

347
Q

Computer xmatch does the final ….check after two diff blood types are done/on file/ab screen neg

A

ABO check

348
Q

Incompatible xmatch due to three…
most common reason…

A

-low freq ag
-pos DAT in donor(most common)
-ABO issue @IS

349
Q

Term when products totally exchange PTs blood in 24hrs, about 10-12units

A

massive transfusion

350
Q

HIV has window period of …to… days before ag detected

A

22-25days

351
Q

HTLV:
1 related to…
2 related to…

A

1: T cell leukemia
2: hairy cell leukemia

352
Q

2 things increased in blood at 1-6C

A

plasma hmg, K

353
Q

5 things decreased in blood at 1-6C

A

viable cells
pH
ATP, 2-3 DPG
plasma Na

354
Q

CPD means…shelf life

A

citrate phosphate dextrose, 21 days

355
Q

CPDA means..shelf life

A

citrate phosphate dextrose plus adenine, 35 days

356
Q

AS means…shelf life

A

additive sln, 42 days

357
Q

Light spin removes…
Hard spin removes…and…

PLTs left to rest 1hr before agitating RT up to 5 days

A

light removes RBCs
hard removes plasma, PLTS

358
Q

To be fresh (FFP) need to freeze within…hrs, stored at…for…

A

8hrs, -18C, 1 yr

359
Q

Cryo is made from…
It’s frozen then thawed at…
white precipitate forms, then spun at heavy spin, expressed and refrozen

A

made from FFP
thawed at 1-6
expressed off and refrozen

360
Q

Blood product used to reduce adverse trans rxn; filtered to reduce leukocytes, reduces CMV

<5,000/unit

A

leukoreduced

361
Q

Product where red cells are collected, fluid given back, sometimes with saline

A

Apheresis RBC

362
Q

In apheresis RBC, you can get …allogenic or autologous units per donor

This can be done every…mths

A

2 units/donor
every 4mths

363
Q

Product used for rare blood types; add glycerol and frozen; removed with saline washes

A

frozen RBC

364
Q

Product where DNA in Tcells is broken down to not further divide; prevent GVHD

A

Irradiated RBC

365
Q

Product to raise PLTS, control bleeding, cancer w/chemo

cells live 3 days thus require many transfusions

A

PLTS

366
Q

Product with coag factors to coag def, mass transfusion issues, anticoagulant therapy issues, surgery

A

FFP

367
Q

Product with concentrated coag factors used for surgery

A

cryo

368
Q

Cryo has these three factors

A

vWF, fibrinogen, F8

369
Q

Product given to neutropenic, lack response to antibiotics

A

granulocytes

370
Q

Storage of blood products should be monitored every…
…thermometer

A

4hrs
NIST

371
Q

When administering product:
check patient first…
then every…
must be transfused w/in…

A

check for 15min
then every 30min
transfuse w/in 4hrs

372
Q

Rxn where ab+ag activate complement, coagulation, mono/phago, cytokines and cause shock/renal issues

A

HTR
hemolytic transfusion rxn

373
Q

Acute hemolytic trans rxn where ag/ab complex initiate coag/fibrinolytic systems;

all clotting factors and PLTs get used up and there’s uncontrolled bleeding

A

DIC

374
Q

Rapid onset, usually ABO caused is termed

A

acute

375
Q

Blood exposed to temps <0->50C, improper thawing of frozen, small needle, saline not used, and bacteria all can cause

A

nonimmune red cell destruction

376
Q

Rxn where there’s no hemolysis; caused by ab to HLA/granulocytes/PLT ag

A

immuno mediated nonhemolytic

377
Q

Rxn with urticarial or anaphylactic; IgA def

A

allergic trans rxn

378
Q

Rxn with pulmonary edema/lung injury; usually female who have been pregnant more than once; HLA ab

A

TRALI

379
Q

Disease where fetal cells destroyed for maternal IgG

A

HDFN

380
Q

HDFN:
see increased…
Most common in first prego is….
2nd most common ab…

A

increased indirect bili
Most common ABO HDN(sperocytes)
second most common is anti c

381
Q

RhIg: has reduced Rh HDFN

-protects…mL of fetal WB with…microg dose
-given to…moms who have…babies
-given at…wks before or …hrs after delivery of D+ baby

A

protects 30mL fetal WB
with 300microg dose

given to D- mom with D+ babies
given 28wks before, within 72hrs after

382
Q

Screen for fetal maternal hemorrage…
Confirmation for fetal maternal hemorrage…

A

fetal rossette
Kleihauer Betke

383
Q

Kleihauer Betke calculation

A

vol fetal in maternal=
%cells x 50 =fetal blood /30

384
Q

Two conditions with decreased PLTs, HA, renal dsy, CNS issues

A

HUS, TTP

385
Q

Conditions needing transfussion support

A

sickle cell
thallasemia
Immune HA

386
Q

antibody that is IgG, needs AHG to agg sensitized cells

A

incomplete

387
Q

antibody that is IgM, can agg w/out AHG

A

complete

388
Q

Reagent made in lab animals/not humans, detects IgG and complement, is either poly or mono specific

A

AHG

389
Q

Reagent blood cells used to do QC on AHG reagent…
What rxn do you get…

A

Group O check cells

Add AHG to to check cells
Get weak pos rxn(2+)

390
Q

Adding check cells to negative AHG tubes doesn’t mean that…

A

patient serum was added

391
Q

3 things check cells with AHG confirm

A

AHG was added
Cells were washed
There was no antiglobulin serum thus didn’t react with red cells being used

392
Q

Cause of false pos AHG

A

bacterial contamination of reagents

393
Q

3 causes of false neg AHG testing

A

-didn’t wash rbc
-ab eluted due to delayed washing
-prozone, too much ab

394
Q

time frame in mins and temp for IAT without LISS

A

15-60min, 37C

395
Q

Reagent that is:
-made of buffered saline/glycine
-enhances speed/sensitivity
-decreases electropos cations on rbc
-shorten incubation period

A

LISS

396
Q

Reagant that increases sensitivity of IAT by removing net charge and increasing ab uptake

A

albumin

397
Q

most warm auto in caused by …antigen

A

e

398
Q

Minor xmatch eliminated due to …being done

A

donor ab screen

399
Q

To do compatibility testing, fresh serum less than…needs to be used to preserve…

A

less than 48hrs
complement

400
Q

e antigen, most people have, about %
compatible units about…

E antigen, less people have, more will be compatible

A

98% have e so only 2% compatible

401
Q

after anti D, most likely ab in Rh hemolytic disease of newborn

A

anti-c

402
Q

3 things part of prenatal work out, 1 not

A

ABO,Rh, ab screen
DAT not done

403
Q

After pos ab screen in mom and pos DAT in babie, what is done

A

titrate maternal ab

404
Q

Critical titer for most ab is…
A titer of 8 with postpartum ab screen on RhIg candidate w/anti D due to….

A

titer >16

8, antepartum admin of RhIg

405
Q

Optimal pH for ab to bind

A

6.5-7.5

406
Q

rbc suspension

A

2-5%

407
Q

In titration, first 3 tubes neg, later tubes pos due to

A

prozone

408
Q

Most common reason for MF agg

A

transfused, two pops

409
Q

microscopic clumps, cloudy backgroud

A

weak pos

410
Q

solid button, clear background

A

4+

411
Q

large clumps, clear background

A

3+

412
Q

many medium sized agg, clear background, no free rbc

A

2+

413
Q

many small clumps barely visible, turbid background, many free rbc

A

1+

414
Q

With HTR, do this immediately

A

DAT on post trans

415
Q

Two symptoms in HTR

A

hemoglobinuria, hypotension

416
Q

Febrile rxn
…F rise in temp within ..hr of trans

A

2F, 1hr

or 1C

417
Q

Hives/itching in

A

urticarial

418
Q

associated with delayed transfussion rxn

A

Kidd

419
Q

Enzymes:
MNS and Duffy are chopped down while others are exposed

Except for Kell, he doesn’t care

A

420
Q

Dosage:

Kidd and Duffy the Rh Monkey eats lots of MNS

A

421
Q

Optimal RT, saline
Destroyed by enzymes
MF rxns
Doesn’t cause HDFN

A

Lutheran A antibody

422
Q

% compatible blood work antJka…
Need 2 units, PT has antiJKa, how many units need…

A

25% compatible, 4x2=8 but answer is 10

423
Q

What percent is compatible for antiE

A

70%

424
Q

Percent compatible antiP1…

A

25%

425
Q

How long wait after donate plasma pheresis to donate whole blood…

How long wait after donate whole blood to donate plasma pheresis..

A

Plasma to WB 48hrs

WB to plasma 72hrs

426
Q

Most H…
Least/no H…

A

Most: O
No H: Oh

427
Q

O..
A..
B..
AB..

A

O..46
A..41
B..9
AB..4

428
Q

Most common Rh, %…
Most common Rh neg genotype…
Weak D in..

A

D, 85% have
dce/dce
Blacks

429
Q

P1 antibody is Ig…

P antibody is Ig..
P associated with…

A

P1 antibody is Ig…IgM

P antibody is Ig..IgG
P associated with…PCH, DL ab

430
Q

Kell frequency…
Compatible units…

k, cellao frequency…
Compatible units…

A

Kell frequency…10%,
Compatible units…90%

k, cellao frequency…98%
Compatible units…2%

431
Q

Three systems destroyed by enzymes

A

M/N/S/s
Lutheran
Duffy

432
Q

Dosage:
Kidd and Duffy Rh eat lots of MNSs

A

Kidd
Duffy
Rh

MNSs

433
Q

e, k everyone has %…
s…%
Compatible….

A

98% has e, k
Only2% compatible

90% s
10% compatible

434
Q

Le`a frequency

A

22

435
Q

Fya/b, Jka/b
M/N
Leb
P1 all between what frequency

A

70-80

436
Q

All little letters have between 80-99% frequency

s
e
k

A

s 90
e 98
k 99

437
Q

Besides small letters, most others are between 70-85, except for these three

A

Lea 22
E 29
S 55