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Ruminants > BB Ch14 > Flashcards

BB Ch14 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Sheep, goats, and cattle are called _________. Their taxonomy is:
A
  1. ungulates, order Artiodactyla, suborder Ruminantia, family Bovidae
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2
Q
  1. Members of Bovidae have these characteristics:
    a) Even number of toes
    b) Compartmentalized forestomach
    c) Horns
    d) All of the above
A

d

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3
Q
  1. They are obligate herbivores- this means________.
A
  1. They derive all their glucose from gluconeogenesis
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4
Q
  1. Further taxonomy of sheep is:
A
  1. Subfamily Caprinae, genus Ovis. Domestic sheep are Ovis aries
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5
Q
  1. Goat taxonomy is:
A
  1. Subfamily Caprinae, genus and species Capra hircus
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6
Q
  1. Cattle taxonomy for the 2 main domesticated species are:
A
  1. Subfamily Bovinae, Genus and species Bos taurus and Bos indicus
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7
Q
  1. Breeds of sheep are classified as:
A

Meat, wool, or dual-purpose

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8
Q
  1. Breeds of goats are classified as:
A

Dairy, meat, fiber, skin-type

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9
Q
  1. Breeds of cattle are classified as:
A

Dairy, beef, dual-purpose

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10
Q
  1. A few of the more important uses of ruminants in biomedical research are:
A
  1. Models of cardiac transplantation, evaluation of cardiac assist or prosthetic devices, embryo transfer, gene transfer, cloning (think of Dolly), antibody production
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11
Q
  1. Basic and applied fetal and reproductive research often uses which species?
A

Sheep

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12
Q
  1. T or F: Auction barns or sales often provide good quality animals for research purposes.
A

False

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13
Q
  1. Health screening profiles for sheep might include:
A
  1. Q fever, contagious ecthyma, caseous lymphadenitis, Johne’s disease, ovine progressive pneumonia, internal and external parasites
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14
Q
  1. Health screening profiles for goats might include:
A
  1. Q fever, caprine arthritis encephalitis, brucellosis, tuberculosis, and Johne’s disease
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15
Q
  1. Health screening profiles for cattle might include:
A
  1. Johne’s disease, brucellosis, tuberculosis, tuberculosis, respiratory diseases, internal and external parasites, foot conditions, persistent infection with bovine viral diarrhrea virus (BVDV).
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16
Q
  1. T or F: ruminants are sensitive to stress, so care must be taken to insure minimal stress in handling, shipping, and housing of these animals.
A

True

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17
Q
  1. T or F: Ruminants are solitary animals and do well in single housing
A

False

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18
Q
  1. Light cycles (photoperiods) for ruminants should be:
    A) 12hours light:12 hours dark
    B) 8 hours light: 16 hours dark
    C) 16 hours light: 8 hours dark
    D) like natural conditions
    E) none of the above
A

D

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19
Q
  1. The compartments of the upper GI tract are:
A
  1. 3 compartments of the forestomach- rumen, reticulum, and omasum. The true stomach is the abomasum
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20
Q
  1. In neonates, passive transfer refers to what?
A
  1. Intestinal immunoglobulin absorption by pinocytosis in the first 36 hrs after birth
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21
Q
  1. Ruminant erythrocytes are a) larger or b) smaller, than in other mammals.
A

b - smaller

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22
Q
  1. A good reference for drug-therapy recommendations in food animals is what?
A
  1. Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (FARAD), http://www.farad.org
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23
Q
  1. Wooden tongue is caused by which organism?
A
  1. Actinobacillus lignieresii
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24
Q
  1. Transmission of Actinobacillus lignersii occurs when the organism penetrates wounds of the skin, especially the mouth. T or F
A

True

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25
Q
  1. Actinomyces bovis causes what cattle disease?
A

Lumpy jaw

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26
Q
  1. What is the most common etiologic agent causing omphalophebitis (navel ill)?
A
  1. Truperella pyogenes
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27
Q
  1. Bacillus anthracis infection (anthrax) is usually fatal in ruminants. T or F
A

True

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28
Q
  1. Anthrax is a reportable disease. T or F
A

True

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29
Q
  1. The most common clinical signs associated with brucellosis (Brucella abortus and B. melitensis) are:
A
  1. Late term abortion, epididymitis, orchitis, chronic infection of the udder
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30
Q
  1. Brucellosis is self-limiting and needs no treatment or management . T or F
A
  1. F. Culling is the treatment of choice for infected animals.
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31
Q
  1. Campylobacteriosis (Vibriosis) can cause what clinical signs in sheep and cattle?
A
  1. Abortions – C. fetus subsp. intestinalis in sheep and C. fetus subsp. veneralis in cattle
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32
Q
  1. The most common caprine skin infection is caused by which organisn?
A
  1. Staphylococcus intermedius or S. aureus.
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33
Q
  1. Death due to Clostridium perfringens type C and D affect young animals and is usually fatal. T or F
A

True

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34
Q
  1. C. perfingens type D is common in which species: A) Sheep B) Sheep and goats C) Cattle D) Sheep, goats, and cattle?
A

A

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35
Q
  1. Clostridium tetani infection (tetanus) causes death by septicemia. T or F
A
  1. F. The endotoxin is neurotoxic and hemolytic, and death results from respiratory failure.
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36
Q
  1. Clostridium novyi and C. chauvoei cause similar infections in cattle and sheep. The common name of C. novyi infection is _________________, and the common name for C. chauvoei is _______________.
A
  1. Bighead and black disease; blackleg
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37
Q
  1. Vaccinations may prevent C. novyi and C. chauovei infections. T or F
A

True

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38
Q
  1. Malignant edema is an acute, often fatal disease caused by __________.
A
  1. Clostridium septicum and often mixed with other clostridial species.
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39
Q
  1. The four types(groups for classification) of E. coli that are associated with colibacillosis are :
A
  1. Enterotoxigenic, enterohemorrohagic, enteropathogenic, and enteroinvasive.
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40
Q
  1. Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by _____________.
A
  1. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis.
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41
Q
  1. Caseous lymphadenitis can be treated effectively with antibiotics. T or F
A

False

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42
Q
  1. The most common agent causing pyelonephritis in cattle is _____________, and the agents causing posthitis in sheep and goats are______________.
A
  1. Corynebacterium renale; C. cystidis and C. pilosum.
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43
Q
  1. Erysipelas is caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae and causes what disease clinical signs in young lambs?
A
  1. Chronic polyarthritis
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44
Q
  1. Mycotic dermatitis (lumpy wool) and strawberry foot rot are caused by what bacteria?
A
  1. Dermatophilus congolensis
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45
Q
  1. Which two bacteria work synergistically in causing contagious foot rot in sheep and goats?
A
  1. Dichelobacter (Bacteroides) nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
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46
Q
  1. Which two bacteria cause foot rot of cattle?
A
  1. Fusobacterium necrophorum and Prevotella melaninogenic (formerly Bacteroides melaninogenicus).
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47
Q
  1. Papillomatous digital dermatitis in cattle, also known as heel warts, is caused by several spp. of bacteria and spirochete-like organisms. T or F
A

True

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48
Q
  1. Histophilus somni infection can cause many disease conditions, including (pick all that apply):

A) thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME)

B) septicemia

C) arthritis

D) reproductive failure

E) respiratory disease

F) dermatitis

A
  1. A, B, C, D, and E
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49
Q
  1. Leptospirosis can cause ______________ in sheep and goats, and _____ in cattle.
A
  1. Abortion, anemia, hemoglobinuria, and icterus in sheep and goats; Same signs as in sheep and goats, plus meningitis and death in calves, abortion and drop in milk production in cows.
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50
Q
  1. Leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease. T or F
A

True

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51
Q
  1. Listeria monocytogenes is most commonly acquired by ruminants in which way:

A) arthropod vectors

B) fecal-oral

C) spoiled silage and contaminated feed

D) airborne

A

C

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52
Q
  1. The three forms of listeriosis are:
A

31.

  1. Encephalitis (most common in ruminants)
  2. Placentitis with abortion
  3. Septicemia with hepatitis and pneumonia
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53
Q
  1. The disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi is :
A

Lyme disease

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54
Q
  1. The most common cause of infectious bovine keritoconjunctivitis (IBK) is :
A
  1. Moraxella bovis
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55
Q
  1. Mycobacterium bovis, M. avium, and M. tuberculosis are all pathogens of domestic ruminants and these pathogens are zoonotic. T or F
A

True

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56
Q
  1. Johne’s disease is caused by _______________.
A
  1. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
57
Q
  1. Which pathogens are most closely associated with shipping fever?
A
  1. Mannheimia hemolytica and P. multocida
58
Q
  1. Salmonellosis in ruminants may present as these clinical signs (choose all that apply):

A) gastroenteritis

B) septicemia

C) abortion

A
  1. A, B, and C
59
Q
  1. Spirochete-associated abortion in cattle is transmitted by which tick vector?
A
  1. Ornithodorus coriaceus
60
Q
  1. Tularemia is caused by what pathogen?
A
  1. Pasteurella (Francisella) tularensis
61
Q
  1. What are the animal reservoirs of Tularemia in the western US?
A
  1. Wild rodents and rabbits
62
Q
  1. Clinical signs of Yersiniosis (Yersinia enterocolitica) are (choose all that apply): A) sudden death B) diarrhea C) abortion D) internal abscesses
A

A, B, C, D

63
Q
  1. Mycoplasma bovigenitalium and M. bovis have been associated with which clincial signs: A) infertility and abortions B) pneumonia C) enteritis
A

A

64
Q
  1. Mycoplasma mycoides biotype F38 is the agent responsible for ____________.
A
  1. Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
65
Q
  1. Infectious conjunctivitis, or pinkeye, in sheep and goats is associated with which pathogen?
A
  1. Mycoplasma conjunctivae
66
Q
  1. Eperythrozoonosis is a _____________ agent causing __________.
A
  1. Rickettsial, anemia
67
Q
  1. Q fever is caused by _______________ and is zoonotic.
A
  1. Coxiella burnetii
68
Q
  1. Adenovirus infections causes which clinical signs (choose all that apply):

A) pneumonia

B) enteritis

C) conjunctivitis

D) abortion

A
  1. A, B, C, and D
69
Q
  1. What is the etiologic agent of bluetongue?
A

bluetongue virus - Orbivirus, family Reoviridae (RNA)

arthropod-borne

affects mainly sheep

70
Q
  1. bovine lymphosarcoma virus
A

deltaretrovirus (DNA)

only associated with adult or enzootic bovine lymphoma, most common bovine neoplastic disease in the US

71
Q
  1. Swelling, vesicles, and ulcers on the teats and udder may be associated with what virus?
A
  1. Bovine herpesvirus 2 (bovine herpes mammillitis)
72
Q
  1. Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV) infection is associated with what clinical signs?
A
  1. May be subclinical, abortions, congenital abnormalities, diarrhea, oculonasal discharge.

Flaviviridae

73
Q
  1. Cache Valley virus (CVV) causes teratogenic effects including arthrogryposis, microencephaly, and cerebellar hypoplasia in A) calves B) lambs C) kids
A

B

74
Q
  1. The most important viral disease of goats is ____________.
A
  1. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus (CAEV), Lentivirus, famil Retroviridae
75
Q
  1. This virus causes respiratory and reproductive diseases in cattle, including conjunctivitis, rhinotracheitis, pustular vulvovaginitis, balanoposthitis, encephalomyelitis, and mastitis.
A
  1. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus
76
Q
  1. Parainfluenza 3 infection is often fatal in small ruminants. T or F
A

False

77
Q
  1. Severe respiratory disease in calves and yearling cattle is often caused by this virus:
A
  1. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus, family Paramyxoviridae, genus Pneumovirus
78
Q
  1. Ulcers and crusts on the skin and mucous membranes of the face, genitalia, and feet of sheep caused by a poxvirus is called:
A
  1. Ulcerative dermatosis
79
Q
  1. Border disease causes what clinical signs in sheep and goats (choose all that apply):

A) early embryonic death

B) arthrogryposis

C) hypothyroidism

D) tremors

A
  1. A, B, C, and D
80
Q
  1. Orf is known by what other names, and is caused by what agent?
A

Contagious ecthyma, contagious pustular dermatitis, sore mouth

parapox virus, family poxviridae

81
Q
  1. Foot-and-Mouth disease is caused by what agent? which species are usually clinically affected?
A

Aphthovirus, family picornavirus

cattle, swine, sheep

82
Q
  1. Infection with malignant catarrhal fever in cattle can be acquired from other ruminants, including sheep and goats, birds, water troughs, and contaminated fomites. T or F
A

True

83
Q
  1. The clinical signs of ovine progressive pneumonia are :
A
  1. Weakness, unthriftiness, weight loss, pneumonia, mastitis
84
Q
  1. Poxviruses of ruminants can cause erosions and ulcers on the skin of cattle, sheep and goats. T or F
A

True

85
Q
  1. Pulmonary adenomatosis is a wasting disease of sheep caused by a ___________ virus.
A
  1. Type D retrovirus
86
Q
  1. Warts on cattle are often caused by this virus_____________.
A
  1. Bovine papillomavirus
87
Q
  1. Pseudorabies (Aujeszky’s disease) is usually asymptomatic in ruminants. T or F
A
  1. False- pseudorabies is usually fatal in cattle, sheep , and goats
88
Q
  1. The three phases of rabies infection are:
A
  1. Prodromal, excitatory, and paralytic
89
Q
  1. Scrapie and Bovine spongiform elcephalopathies are forms of :
A
  1. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
90
Q
  1. Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause flu-like illness in people. T or F
A

True

91
Q
  1. Name 2 viral agents of diarrhea in sheep:
A
  1. Rotavirus, coronavirus
92
Q
  1. Name 3 viral agents of diarrhea in goats:
A
  1. Rotovirus, coronavirus, adenovirus
93
Q
  1. Name 4 viral agents of diarrhea in cattle:
A
  1. Rotavirus, coronavirus, parvovirus, bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVDV)
94
Q
  1. Name the agent responsible for enzootic abortion of ewes.
A
  1. Chlamydophila abortus
95
Q
  1. The agent responsible for enzootic abortion in ewes is zoonotic, and causes serious disease in pregnant women. T or F
A

True

96
Q
  1. Cause of polyarthritis and infectious keritoconjunctivitis in sheep.
A

Clamydophila pecorum

97
Q
  1. The major clinical signs associated with Anaplasma marginale infection in cattle is :
A
  1. Anemia
98
Q
  1. Babesia bovis and Ba. bigemina can cause these signs in infected cattle:
A
  1. Hemolysis with icterus, hemoglobinuria, and fever, resulting in liver and kidney failure.
99
Q
  1. Babesia bovis and Ba. bigemina are transmiteed by this tick:
A
  1. Boophilus spp
100
Q
  1. Two common protozoal diseases responsible for diarrhea in young ruminants are:
A
  1. Coccidiosis (Eimeria spp.) and Cryptosporidiosis (Cryptosporium spp.)
101
Q
  1. Giardia lamblia is not a major cause of diarrhea in ruminants. T or F
A

True

102
Q
  1. The definitive host for Neospora caninum, which causes abortion and neonatal disease in ruminants, is the ______. Neospora causes ___ in cattle?
A

Dog

abortions

103
Q
  1. Domestic ruminants are the definitive hosts for Sarcocystis spp. T or F
A
  1. False- carnivores (including humans) are the definitive hosts.
104
Q
  1. Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii) can cause ____________ in sheep and goats.
A

Abortion

105
Q
  1. The obligate intracellular protozoal parasite of cattle causigng herd infertility problems is ____________________.
A
  1. Tritrichomonas (Trichomonas) fetus
106
Q
  1. Name four (or more) common nematode parasites of domestic ruminants.
A
  1. Haemonchus contortus, H. placei – sheep and goats
    Ostertagia (Teladorsagia) circumcincta – sheep and goats
    Ostertagia ostertagi – cattle
    Trichostrongylus vitrinus, T. colubriformis – sheep and goats, T. axei- cattle, sheep and goats
    Nematodirus spathiger, N. battus
    Cooperia curticei    – sheep and goats,C. punctata, C. oncophora – cattle, sheep and goats
    Grongeyloides papillosus- sheep and cattle
    Bunostomum trigonocephalum – sheep
    Oesophagostomum columbianum, O. venulosum – sheep and cattle
    Chabertia ovis – sheep, goats, cattle
    Trichuris spp. – sheep , goats, cattle
    Dictyocaulus filaria- sheep, D. viviparus – cattle
107
Q
  1. Name two (or more) common cestode parasites of domestic ruminants.
A
  1. Moniezia expansa
    Thysanosoma actinoides
    Taenia hydatigena
    Echinococcus granulosus     (hydatid cyst disease)
108
Q
  1. Name one (or more) common trematode parasite of domestic ruminants.
A
  1. Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke)
    * Fascioloides magna* (liver fluke)
    * Dicrocoelium dendriticum* (liver fluke)
    * Paramphistomum microbothrioides, P. cervi* (rumen fluke)
109
Q
  1. Symptoms of mite infestation in ruminants are __________.
A
  1. Chronic dermatitis, intense pruritis
110
Q
  1. T/F Lice are generally species-specific.
A

True

111
Q
  1. Ruminants are susceptible to many species of ___________ (hard-shell ticks) and ___________ (soft-shell ticks).
A
  1. Ixodidae, Argasidae
112
Q
  1. Nasal bots in sheep are the larval form of the botfly ______________.
A
  1. Oestrus ovis
113
Q
  1. Cochliomyia hominivorax (Callitroga americana) is also known as ___________.
A
  1. The screwworm fly
114
Q
  1. Sheep keds, known as _______________, can transmit the _____ virus.
A
  1. Melophagus ovinus

bluetongue

115
Q
  1. Ringworm in ruminants is mostly caused by dermatophytes of the genera:
A

Trichophyton and Microsporidium

116
Q
  1. Calves are more prone to abomasal and duodenal ulcers than adult cattle. T or F
A

True

117
Q
  1. Bloat is caused by _____________.
A
  1. Usually the consumption of abundant quantities of succulent forages or grains.
118
Q
  1. Pregnancy toxemia (ketosis) occurs in ewes that either are ___________, or ___________.
A
  1. Obese, carrying twins or triplets.
119
Q
  1. Male ruminants suffer from urolithiasis more commonly than female ruminants. T or F
A

True

120
Q
  1. White muscle disease is due to a deficiency of _____________.
A
  1. Selenium or vitamin E
121
Q
  1. Polioencephalomalacia is due to ______________, often resulting from toxic plants or moldy feed containing ___________.
A
  1. Thiamin deficiency, thiaminases
122
Q
  1. Neonatal ruminants must receive colustrum within 24 hours after birth to prevent this condition.
A
  1. Failure of passive transfer
123
Q
  1. Catheter sites or injections can cause iatrogenic infection or nerve injury. T or F
A

True

124
Q

Fainting goats have what inherited condition, which serves as a model for which human condition?

A

caprine myotonia congenita

Thomson’s disease - human myotonia congenita

125
Q

the process of preparing cattle for research with appropriate transitional diet and vaccination program is known as

A

backgrounding

126
Q

What compounds are produced by the rumen ecoystem?

A

volatile fatty acids - acetic, proprionic, butyric

vitamin B complex

vitamin K

protein

127
Q

Elevation of which liver enzyme is most indicative of hepatic damage in goats?

a. AST
b. LDH
c. ALT
d. GGT

A

d. GGT

ALT can be used in sheep and cattle.

128
Q

Male ruminants may develop urinary calculi as a result of the following except

a. excessive phosphorus
b. low calcium-phosphorus ration
c. low magnesium
d. excessive magnesium

A

c. low magnesium

129
Q
A
130
Q

Describe cycle type, estrus cycle duration, and gestation length of cattle, sheep, and goats

A

cattle: polyestrous, 18-24 days, 270-292 days
sheep: seasonal polyestrous induced by increasing day length, 14-19 days, 147-150 days
goats: seasonal polyestrous induced by increasing day length, 18-24 days, 144-155 days

131
Q

Describe the placentation of ruminants

A

epitheliochorial, cotyledonary

132
Q

which ungulate commonly exhibits pseudopregnancy?

A

goat

133
Q

describe Bacillus anthracis

A

nonmotile, encapsulated, spore forming, aerobic, gram-positive bacillus

134
Q
A
135
Q

What organsism causes Struck in sheep?

A

Clostridium perfringens type C - beta (necrotizing) toxins lead to hemorragic lesions

136
Q

Most common cause of acute mastitis in sheep

A

Mannheimia hemolytica

137
Q

Most common cause of acute mastitis in goats

A

Staphylococcus spedermidis and other spp.

138
Q

Import bans on ruminants from Germany could be due to the discover of what agent in 2011?

A

Schmallenberg virus (orthobunyvirus)

139
Q
A

Ruminants (3 decks)

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