Basics: Neuroanatomy Flashcards
Types of fibers contained within muscle spindles include…
A. Dynamic nuclear bag fibers B. Dynamic nuclear chain fibers C. Group Ib afferent fibers D. Extrafusal fibers E. Group IV afferent fibers
A. Dynamic nuclear bag fibers
Nuclear chain fibers signal only static muscle length.
Group Ib afferents are associated with Golgi tendon organs.
Extrafusal fibers are outside the muscle spindle.
Group IV afferent fibers are not part of the muscle spindle.
Muscle force is controlled in part by…
A. Alpha-gamma coactivation B. Intrafusal fibers C. Rate code D. Golgi tendon organs E. Gamma motor neurons
C. Rate code
Alpha-gamma coactivation ensures that muscle spindles maintain sensitivity to stretch over a wide range of muscle lengths.
Intrafusal fibers do not contribute significantly to muscle force.
Golgi tendon organs signal information about muscle force, but do not control that force directly.
Gamma motor neurons innervate intrafusal fibers, which do not contribute significantly to muscle force.
The lateral corticospinal tract…
A. Undergoes a 50% decussation in the caudal medulla.
B. Arises exclusively from the primary motor cortex.
C. Is an uncrossed pathway.
D. Plays a major role in the fine control of distal musculature.
E. Terminates primarily in the posterior (dorsal) horn.
D. Plays a major role in the fine control of distal musculature.
In reciprocal excitation of the Golgi tendon reflex, stimulation of…
A. Ia afferent fibers causes inhibition of synergistic muscles.
B. Ib afferent fibers causes inhibition of antagonist muscles.
C. Ia afferent fibers causes inhibition of antagonist muscles.
D. Ib afferent fibers causes excitation of antagonist muscles.
E. Ia afferent fibers causes excitation of muscles on the contralateral side.
D. Ib afferent fibers causes excitation of antagonist muscles.
Ia afferents innervate the muscle spindle
Ib afferents inhibit the homonymous muscle
Betz cells are most abundant in layer…
A. IV of somatosensory cortex. B. V of somatosensory cortex. C. IV of motor cortex. D. V of motor cortex. E. III of motor cortex.
D. V of motor cortex.
A corticospinal neuron in primary motor cortex can do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Project to multiple motor neuron pools in the spinal cord.
B. Participate in the initiation of movement.
C. Code for the amount of force of individual muscles.
D. Code for the direction of movement.
E. Code for the extent of movement.
C. Code for the amount of force of individual muscles.
This is a FALSE statement. Motor cortex neurons code for the force of individual movements, not individual muscles. Lower motor neurons (alpha motor neurons) encode the force of individual muscles.
Which of the basal ganglia nuclei receive direct cortical input?
A. Claustrum and amygdala.
B. Centromedian nucleus and subthalamic nucleus.
C. Substantia nigra pars compacta and globus pallidus external.
D. Globus pallidus internal and substantia nigra pars reticulata.
E. Caudate and putamen.
E. Caudate and putamen.
All of the following statements about the basal ganglia are correct EXCEPT:
A. The net effect of excitation of the direct pathway is to inhibit cortex.
B. Dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra signal unexpected reward or unexpected absence of reward.
C. The basal ganglia have both motor and cognitive functions.
D. The subthalamic nucleus is the origin of the only purely excitatory pathway within the basal ganglia intrinsic circuitry.
E. Parkinson’s disease results from damage to the basal ganglia.
A. The net effect of excitation of the direct pathway is to inhibit cortex.
This is a FALSE statement. The net effect of excitation of the direct pathway is to excite cortex.
The spinocerebellum contains the…
A. vermis and intermediate zone of the anterior and posterior lobes.
B. Vermal and floccular parts of the flocculonodular lobe.
C. Lateral portions of the cerebellum.
D. Posterior lobe and interposed nuclei.
E. Anterior lobe and dentate nuclei.
A. vermis and intermediate zone of the anterior and posterior lobes.
The lateral vestibular nuclei are functionally analogous to the…
A. Red nucleus B. Purkinje cells C. Basal ganglia D. Thalamus E. Deep cerebellar nuclei
E. Deep cerebellar nuclei
The lateral vestibular nuclei, although not contained within the cerebellum, are considered to be functionally analogous to the deep cerebellar nuclei because of their functional connectivity with the cerebellum.
Following a strenuous workout with his neighborhood team, a right-handed, 52-year-old former professional basketball player awoke the next morning with paralysis of the right lower extremity. A neurological exam revealed an exaggerated stretch reflex. There was no disturbance of position sense, pain sensation or tactile discrimination. Where is the problem localized?
A. Anterior (ventral) horn, right side.
B. Cerebellum, right side.
C. Posterior (dorsal) columns of spinal cord, right side.
D. Left motor cortex, lateral (inferior) portion of motor map.
E. Left motor cortex, medial (superior) portion of motor map.
E. Left motor cortex, medial (superior) portion of motor map.
All of the following are examples of dyskinesia EXCEPT:
A. Athetosis B. Chorea C. Tremors D. Rigidity E. Ballismus
D. Rigidity
Rigidity is not an involuntary movement.
A patient is capable of pupillary constriction during accommodation but not in response to a light directed to either eye. The lesion is most likely present in the…
A. optic nerve B. abducens nucleus C. Edinger-Westphal nucleus D. pretectal areas E. supraoculomotor nucleus
D. pretectal areas
The pretectal area provides bilateral input to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus for the direct and consensual pupillary light response.
Edinger-Westphal is incorrect as damage to this nucleus would diminish the pupil response both to light and during accommodation.
The pontine paramedian reticular formation is involved in which of the following?
A. Vestibular nystagmus B. Optokinetic nystagmus C. Saccades D. Smooth pursuit E. Accommodation
C. Saccades
The frontal eye field neurons send control signals to the pontine paramedial reticular formation for voluntary horizontal eye movements (i.e., to direct the eyes toward an object of interest on or command to direct the gaze to the left or right).
A 57-year old male with a past history of high blood pressure awakens with a terrible headache. His eyes tend to drift about and when he is asked to track a pen moving to his left, both eyes move in short, jerky steps. In contrast, both eyes move smoothly when his eyes track a pen moving to his right. Given the patient’s history, a radiological study is scheduled to determine whether a stroke had occurred. The study determines the area of infarction to include which of the following?
A. Left abducens nerve B. Left medial longitudinal fasciculus C. Right frontal lobe D. Right temporal lobe E. Left temporal lobe
E. Left temporal lobe
Neurons in the left temporal lobe (middle superior and middle temporal gyri) are involved in detecting movement of objects in space and in guiding tracking eye movements during smooth pursuit. The left tracking movement is jerky because the frontal eye field is being used to guide the eye movement in saccades. The two eyes move to the left and if the object isn’t in view, the eyes make another saccade to direct them towards the expected position of the moving object.
What are the 2 structures involved in reward circuit that are thought to mediate drug addiction?
Ventral tegmental Area and Nucleus accumbens
Which opiate receptor class is involved with spinal analgesia?
Kappa (K)
How many opioid receptors available? What are those?
4
- Delta (δ)- involved with analgesia, antidepressant effects, and physical dependence.
- Kappa- involved in spinal analgesia, sedation, miosis, and inhibition of antidiuretic hormone release.
- Mu- involved in supraspinal analgesia and physical dependence; respiratory depression, miosis, euphoria, reduced gastrointestinal motility, and physical dependence
- ORL1/orphanin (or nociceptin receptor)- involved in anxiety, depression, appetite, and development of tolerance to mu agonists.
How many are Glutamate receptors and what are those?
4:
- NMDA receptor
- Kainate receptor
- AMPA receptro
- Metabotropic receptor
NMDA receptros are highly concentrated in which part of the hippocampus?
CA1 pyramidal neurons of the (Sommer Sector)
Which explains its vulnerability to hypoxia, hypoglycemia and epilepsy
What is the other term for CA4?
Is it resistant or vulnerable to hypoxia?
Bratz sector
Vulnerable
What is the importance of the dorsomedial nucleus?
It has projections to dorsolateral prefrontal, orbitofrontal, anterior cingulate gyrus, and temporal lobe/amygdala.
Dysfunction results in abulia, anterograde amnesia, social disinhibition and motivation loss
Anterior nucleus of thalamus is involved in…
limbic relay and memory formation (part of Papez circuit)
What is the importance of the pulvinar nucleus?
The pulvinar is involved in processing visual info and sensory integration.
What is the importance of the ventral posterolateral (VPL) and ventral posteromedial nucleus?
It is involved in sensory relay from the body, while the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus is involved in sensory relay from the face, both of which project to the somatosensory cortex.
Gertsmann Syndrome
Acalculia
Right/Left Disorientation
Dysgraphia
Balint syndrome
Meaning and Localization
Visual Simultagnosia (perceives only disconnected individual part of the scene) Optic Ataxia (Difficulty in grasping or touching an object under visual guidance) Optic Apraxia (inability to project gaze voluntarily into the peripheral field and to scan)
Bilateral Dorsal Parieto-occipital Lobe (Area 19 and 7)
Alexia Without Agraphia, Localization?
Pure Word Blindness
Alexia is a loss of reading comprehension despite normal visual acuity. Ability to read individual letters of a word is often retained. Writing and language comprehension are normal in alexia without agraphia. It is a disconnection syndrome.
Left occipital lobe (deep white matter); Splenium of Corpus callosum
Anton Syndrome
Meaning and localization
Visual Anosognosia; Cortical Blindness with denial of visual loss and confabulation
bilateral lesions of the medial occipital lobe
Prosopognosia
Meaning and localization
Impaired face recognition; bilateral temporo-occipital including fusiform gyrus
Topographagnosia
Meaning and localization
defect in spatial orientation, is marked by inability to navigate in familiar places, read maps, draw floor maps of familiar places, and perform similar functions.
nondominant posterior parahippocampal region, infracalcarine cortex, or nondominant parietal lobe.
Asomatognosia
Meaning and localization
indifferent inability to recognize one’s own body part.
contralateral (usually nondominant) superior parietal lobule, the supramarginal gyrus, and/or its connections
Charles-Bonnet syndrome
form of release hallucination, is a condition marked by vivid hallucinations that occur in people with severe visual impairment due to a variety of reasons, most commonly ophthalmologic
Pure Word Deafness
Meaning and Localization?
Differenitate with Wernicke Aphasia
impaired auditory comprehension of language, though hearing per se (of tones and other nonverbal sounds) is intact; audiogram is normal in these patients
Localization: bilateral middle portion of the superior temporal gyri
nonverbal auditory agnosia
Meaning and localization
agnosia to sounds, such as the sounds animals make or environmental sounds
bilateral anterior temporal lesions
Pure Word Mutism (Aphemia)
Meaning and localization
referred to as verbal apraxia, is marked by an inability to speak fluently, impaired repetition, and intact auditory comprehension. retained ability to write and comprehend written language.
dominant frontal operculum, anterior and superior to Broca’s area (posterior inferior frontal gyrus).
Foix–Chavany–Marie syndrome
Meaning and localization
severe dysarthria, bilateral voluntary paralysis of the lower cranial nerves with preserved involuntary and emotional innervation
bilateral anterior opercular lesions
Transcortical Sensory Aphasia
Meaning and localization
Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia but with intact repetition
Localization: dominant hemisphere MCA–PCA territory watershed infarction, thalamic lesions (thalamic aphasia)
Conduction Aphasia
Meaning and localization
repetition is impaired but other aspects of language are intact
Localization: internal arcuate fasciculus
Amelodia (Affective Motor Aprosoadia)
loses the ability to vary her speech according to emotional state. Speech becomes monotonous.
Localization:
nondominant posterior inferior frontal gyrus
Region of motor neurons in the sacral spinal cord that is responsible for sphincter control
Onufrowicz’s nucleus (Onuf’s nucleus) (Spared in ALS)
Which level of the spinal cord that is most prone for watershed infarction?
upper-mid thoracic levels (between T4 to T8),
given that blood supply is scarce between blood supply coming from the vertebral circulation and the aortic circulation
This is a large radicular artery that arises between T8 and L3.
artery of Adamkiewicz
What is the average CSF Formation?
21-22ml/hr (0.35 ml/min)
500ml/day
What is the main site of CSF formation?
Choroid plexus located in the floor of lateral, third and fourth ventricles
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Fluent aphasia with relatively preserved comprehension. Impaired repetition. Localized in the supramarginal gyrus or insula.
A. Broca’s Aphasia B. Wernicke Aphasia C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Conduction Aphasia E. Pure word deafness
D. Conduction Aphasia
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Fluent aphasia but lacks meaning. Greatly impaired comprehension and repetition. Localized in the temporal, infrasylvian (including supramarginal and angular gyri)
A. Broca’s Aphasia B. Wernicke Aphasia C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Conduction Aphasia E. Pure word deafness
B. Wernicke Aphasia
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Fluent aphasia but lacks meaning. Greatly impaired comprehension. Intact repetition.
A. Broca’s Aphasia B. Wernicke Aphasia C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Conduction Aphasia E. Pure word deafness
C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Non-fluent aphasia. Preserved comprehension but impaired repetition. Localized in the frontal suprasylvian region.
A. Broca’s Aphasia B. Wernicke Aphasia C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Conduction Aphasia E. Pure word deafness
A. Broca’s Aphasia
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Non-fluent aphasia. Preserved comprehension and repetition.
A. Broca’s Aphasia B. Wernicke Aphasia C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Transcortical Motor Aphasia E. Pure word mutism
D. Transcortical Motor Aphasia
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Non-fluent aphasia. Impaired comprehension and repetition. Localization: Large Perisylvian.
A. Broca’s Aphasia B. Global Aphasia C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Transcortical Motor Aphasia E. Pure word mutism
B. Global Aphasia
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Mildly paraphasic. Impaired comprehension and repetition. Localization: Bilateral Superior Temporal Gyrus
A. Anomic Aphasia B. Pure word deafness C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Transcortical Motor Aphasia E. Pure word mutism
B. Pure word deafness
Identify this aphasic syndrome.
Word-finding difficulty. Normal comprehension and repetition. Localization: Deep Temporal Lobe
A. Anomic Aphasia B. Pure word deafness C. Transcortical Sensory Aphasia D. Transcortical Motor Aphasia E. Pure word mutism
A. Anomic Aphasia
Which type of sensory nerve endings?
Deep Pressure and Pain
A. Free Nerve Endings
B. Ruffini
C. Pacinian Corpuscles
D. Golgi tendons
A. Free Nerve Endings
Which type of sensory nerve endings?
Pressure Sensors
A. Free Nerve Endings B. Ruffini C. Pacinian Corpuscles D. Golgi tendons E. B& C
E. B& C
Among the nucleus of trigeminal nerve, which of the following relays discriminative touch and vibration?
A. Chief Sensory Nucleus
B. Mesencephalic Nucleus
C. Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus
D. Nucleus of Clark
A. Chief Sensory Nucleus
Among the nucleus of trigeminal nerve, which of the following relays pain and temperature?
A. Chief Sensory Nucleus
B. Mesencephalic Nucleus
C. Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus
D. Nucleus of Clark
C. Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus
Among the nucleus of trigeminal nerve, which of the following relays proprioceptive information?
A. Chief Sensory Nucleus
B. Mesencephalic Nucleus
C. Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus
D. Nucleus of Clark
B. Mesencephalic Nucleus
Hormones in the hypothalamus are released in which of the following structures?
A. Median Eminence B. Paraventricular Nucleus C. Hypophyseal Vein D. Superior Hypophyseal Artery E. Preoptic Area
A. Median Eminence
Median Eminence is the inferior part of hypothalamus that release regulatory hormones into hypophyseal portal system.
Where do Cranial Nerve III, IV, VI and V1 exit?
A. Foramen Rotundum
B. Foramen Spinosum
C. Foramen Ovale
D. Superior Orbital Fissure
D. Superior Orbital Fissure
Where do Cranial Nerve V2 exits?
A. Foramen Rotundum
B. Foramen Spinosum
C. Foramen Ovale
D. Superior Orbital Fissure
A. Foramen Rotundum
Where do Cranial Nerve V3 exits?
A. Foramen Rotundum
B. Foramen Spinosum
C. Foramen Ovale
D. Superior Orbital Fissure
C. Foramen Ovale
Where do recurrent Cranial Nerve V3 exits?
A. Foramen Rotundum
B. Foramen Spinosum
C. Foramen Ovale
D. Superior Orbital Fissure
B. Foramen Spinosum
Which is related with Cranial Nerve VII?
A. Spiral Ganglia
B. Sphenopalatine Ganglia
C. Geniculate Ganglia
D. Scarpa’s Ganglia
C. Geniculate Ganglia
Which is related with Cranial Nerve VIII?
A. Spiral Ganglia B. Sphenopalatine Ganglia C. Geniculate Ganglia D. Scarpa’s Ganglia E. A & D
E. A & D
