Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PACES > Basics > Flashcards

Basics Flashcards

1
Q

Indications for renal transplant

(Congential/Obstuctive/Inflammatory/Systemic)

A

Diabetic nephropathy

PKD

Hypertensive nephropathy

Cogential eg Alports

Glomuleronephritis/pyelonephritis

Obstructive uropathy e.g prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of hepatomegaly

3Cs, 4Is

A

Carcinoma
Cirrhosis
CCF

Immune (PBC, PSC, Hepatitis)
Infiltrative (amyloid, myeloproliferative)
Iron - haemochromatosis
Infective - viral hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What bloods would you want to Ix hepatomegaly?

A

FBC, U+E, LFTS
INR
Glucose
Iron studies
NI liver screen
HIV
Autoimmue (Anti mitochondrial, anti smooth muscle)
Caeruloplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What Ix would you want for hepatomegaly?

(not bloods)

A

USS
ascitic tap
biospy
CT/MRI
Fibroscan - fibrosis/cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How would you manage ALD

A

Alcohol cessation
Chlordiazepoxide/pabrinex
Nutrition
OGD ?varices (only band if hx of haemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How would you manage (chronic) pancreatitis?

A

Creon
PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What inhalers can you use for COPD?

A

short acting beta - salbutamol
short acting mucs - ipratropium
long acting beta - salmeterol
long acting musc - tioptropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the respiratory causes of clubbing?

A

ILD
CF
Lung abscess
Bronchiectasis
Lung ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you treat asthma?

A

BTS guidelines
1st - SABA
2nd - inhaled steroid
3rd - LABA
4th - LRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of wheeze?

A

Asthma

COPD

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Causes of lower zone fibrosis

SAB IPM

A

Systemic sclerosis/RA/SLE

Alpha 1 anti tryspin, ABPA

Bronchiectasis

Infection

Medications - bleomycin, nitro, hydralazine, methrotrexate, amiodarone

Clubbing + >50 suggests IPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes of apical fibrosis

(CASH RAT)

A

Silicosis

Coal workers pneumoconiosis

Histiocytosis

Ank spond

ABPA

Radiation

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the most common indications for lung transplant?

A

CF

Bronchiectasis

pulmonary vascular disease

pulmonary fibrosis

COPD (single lung)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Scars that indicate lung transplant

A

Clamshell - double

Median sternotomy and/or lateral thoracotomy - single lung/heart

Drains

Central line

trache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Criteria for lung transplant

A
  1. > 50% risk death from lung disease within two years if transplant is not performed
  2. > 80% likelihood of surviving at least 90 days post-transplant
  3. > 80% likelihood of a 5-year post-transplant survival from a general medical perspective provided there is adequate graft function.

Median surival is around 6 years, worse in COPD and PF

i.e sick enough to need transplant but well enough for it to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the common indications for aortic valve replacement?

A

Severe symptomatic AS/AR
Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What further investigations would be appropriate in murmur/AF?

A

ECG
FBC, bloods, cultures
CXR
24hr tape
Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complications of prosthetic valves?

A

Infective endocarditis early/late
thromboembolism
Anticoagulation complications
Anaemia (from haemolysis/ endocarditis/bleeding)
Valve failure (heart failure from dehisence, leaking, calcification or stiffening of leaflets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the advantages of mechanical valves?

A

Longer lifespan
but require lifelong anticoag
so better in younger patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the advantages of tissue valves?

A

anticoag not needed
but shorter lifespan so better in older patients
can be used in IE as more resistant to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If aortic valve replacement and no signs of LVH/HTN/CCF, what was likely reason for valve replacement?

A

Likely aortic regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If aortic valve replacement and with signs of LVH/HTN/CCF, what was likely reason for valve replacement?

A

AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Long term management of valve replacement

A

Anticoag (if metallic)
Serial echos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Indications for mitral valve replacement

A

Mitral stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IE prophylaxis with metallic valve replacement

A

Prophylactic ABx for dental, abdo surgery or sigmoidoscopy with biopsy
Can carry cards
Not for routine dental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can you tell me the indications for mitral valve replacement?

A

symptomatic
features of PHTN or fluid overload
declining
acute mitral regurg following MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Causes of mitral regurg

A

papillary muscle rupture from rheumatic fever or IE
Post MI
from MVP eg from connective tissues eg Ehler Danos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Common valve pathology in Marfans

A

aortic regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cardiac features of Marfans

A

Aortic root dilatation
Aortic dilatation at any point
aortic regurg
mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Causes of clubbing

A

Cardiac - subacute IE, congenital cyanotic heart disease

Resp - ca, TB, bronchiectasis, CF, ILD

GI - IBD

Familial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How would you manage AF?

A

Cause

?sx

Rate control or rhythm control

CHADXSVAC ?anti coag to avoid thrmobus ?1 anticoagulate with DOAC/warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe rate control AF options?

A

Can use drug options like flecanide if no structural heart disease

Or DC cardiovert if they are sufficiently anticoagulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CHADS2VASC

A

CCF

HTN

AGE >65 OR >75

DIABETES

STROKE/TIA =2

VASCULAR DISEASE

AGE

SEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Causes of mitral regurg

A

RF

IE

chronic dilatation in AF (annular dilatation)

LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Endocrine causes of HTN

A

Adrenal - phaechromocytoma, Conns

Cushings

Acromegaly

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Renal causes of HTN

A

Renal artery stenosis

Polycystic kidney disease

Chronic glomerulonephritis

Diabetic nephropathy

Nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chest causes of HTN

A

Coarctation of aorta

OSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Autoimmune causes of HTN

A

Systemic sclerosis

SLE

Wegners granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Drug causes of HTN

A

NSAIDs

EPO

Cyclosporin/tacrolimus

Steroids

COCP

ETOH/liquorice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the common indications for aortic valve replacement?

A

Severe symptomatic AS/AR
Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the advantages of mechanical valves?

A

Longer lifespan
but require lifelong anticoag
so better in younger patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the advantages of tissue valves?

A

anticoag not needed
but shorter lifespan so better in older patients
can be used in IE as more resistant to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Endocrine causes of HTN

A

Adrenal - phaechromocytoma, Conns

Cushings

Acromegaly

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Chest causes of HTN

A

Coarctation of aorta

OSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Drug causes of HTN

A

NSAIDs

EPO

Cyclosporin/tacrolimus

Steroids

COCP

ETOH/liquorice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Autoimmune causes of HTN

A

Systemic sclerosis

SLE

Wegners granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Renal causes of HTN

A

Renal artery stenosis

Polycystic kidney disease

Chronic glomerulonephritis

Diabetic nephropathy

Nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Causes of mitral regurg

A

RF

IE

chronic dilatation in AF (annular dilatation)

LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CHADS2VASC

A

CCF

HTN

AGE >65 OR >75

DIABETES

STROKE/TIA =2

VASCULAR DISEASE

AGE

SEX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe rhythm control AF options?

A

Can use drug options like flecanide if no structural heart disease

Or DC cardiovert if they are sufficiently anticoagulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How would you manage AF?

A

Cause

?sx

Rate control or rhythm control

CHADXSVAC ?anti coag to avoid thrmobus ?1 anticoagulate with DOAC/warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Causes of clubbing

(Cardiac/Resp/GI)

A

Cardiac - subacute IE, congenital cyanotic heart disease
Resp - ca, TB, bronchiectasis, CF, ILD
GI - IBD
Familial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cardiac features of Marfans

A

Aortic root dilatation
Aortic dilatation at any point
aortic regurg
mitral valve prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Common valve pathology in Marfans

A

aortic regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Causes of mitral regurg

A

papillary muscle rupture from rheumatic fever or IE
Post MI
from MVP eg from connective tissues eg Ehler Danos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Can you tell me the indications for mitral valve replacement?

A

symptomatic

or

features of PHTN or fluid overload
declining
acute mitral regurg following MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

IE prophylaxis with metallic valve replacement

A

Prophylactic ABx for dental, abdo surgery or sigmoidoscopy with biopsy
Can carry cards
Not for routine dental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Indications for mitral valve replacement

A

Mitral stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Long term management of valve replacement

A

Anticoag (if metallic)
Serial echos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

If aortic valve replacement and with signs of LVH/HTN/CCF, what was likely reason for valve replacement?

A

AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If aortic valve replacement and no signs of LVH/HTN/CCF, what was likely reason for valve replacement?

A

Likely aortic regurg

62
Q

What are the possible complications of prosthetic valves?

A

Infective endocarditis early/late
thromboembolism
Anticoagulation complications
Anaemia (from haemolysis/ endocarditis/bleeding)
Valve failure (heart failure from dehisence, leaking, calcification or stiffening of leaflets)

63
Q

What further investigations would be appropriate in murmur/AF?

A

ECG
FBC, bloods, cultures
CXR
24hr tape
Echo

64
Q

What are the common indications for aortic valve replacement?

A

Severe symptomatic AS/AR
Infective endocarditis

65
Q

Indications for liver transplant

A

Cirrhosis - most commonly ETOH

Acute hepatic failure - viral hepatitis, paracetamol/other drugs

Hepatic malignancy - hepatocellular carcinoma

Hereditary - Haemochromatosis

Autoimmune - PBC

66
Q

Indications for SPK transplant

A

Diabetics (renal failure from diabetic nephropathy)

Usually type 1 but can be type 2

67
Q
A
68
Q

How do you diagnose pulmonary hypertension?

A

Echo - suggests

Right heart catherisation - definitive

69
Q

What are some causes of PHTN?

(Lung/Heart/Hereditary/Drug/Idiopathic)

A

Idiopathic

Hereditary, congential heart defects

Drug induced

Left sided heart disease - valves, LVSD

Lung - COPD, PF, OSA, chronic PE

70
Q

Causes of massive splenomegaly

A

CML

Myelofibrosis

Malaria

71
Q

Indications for splenectomy

A

Rupture

ITP

Hereditary Spherocytosis

72
Q

Causes of enlarged kidneys

A

PKD

RCC

Simple cysts

Hydronephrosis

Tuberous sclerosis/amyloidosis (bilateral)

73
Q

Causes of bronchiectasis

(Congential/Infective/Immune/GI)

A

ABPA

Rheumatoid

Cystic Fibrosis

Kartageners

IBD

Recurrent infection

Yellow nail Syndrome

74
Q

Extra articular features of RA

A

Pulmonary fibrosis/pleural effusions

Pericarditis

Epi/scleritis

Splenomegaly

Carpal tunnel

Anaemia

Amyloid kidney

75
Q

Causes of dupetryns

A

Smoking

Diabetes

ALD

Idiopathic

Anti epileptics

76
Q

Causes of Ascites

A

1) portal HTN - cirrhosis, CCF, Budd Chiari
2) Peritoneal disease - peritonitis, Meigs
3) Hypoalbuminaemia - nephrotic syndrome

77
Q

Causes of palmar erythema

A

Pregnancy

Hyperthyroid

Rheumatoid

Polycythaemia

Cirrhosis

78
Q

Gynaecosmastia

A

Puberty/senility

Kleinfelters

Cirrhosis

Drugs - spironlactone, digoxin

Thyroid,

Addisons

79
Q

Transudative causes of pleural effusion

A

Heart Failure

Liver failure

Renal failure

80
Q

Exduative causes of pleural effusion

A

Infection

Malignancy

Lung infarct

81
Q

Differentials of aortic stenosis

A

HCOM

VSD

Aortic sclerosis

Aortic flow murmur

82
Q

Complications of aortic stenosis

A

Endocarditis

LVSD

83
Q

Causes of AS

A

Congential - bicuspid vavle

Age - calcification

Rheumatic

84
Q

Dukes crtieria

A

Major:

  •   Typical organism in two blood cultures
  •   Echo: abscess* , large vegetation* , dehiscence*

Minor:

  •   Pyrexia >38°C
  •   Echo suggestive
  •   Predisposed, e.g. prosthetic valve
  •   Embolic phenomena*
  •   Vasculitic phenomena (ESR↑, CRP↑)
  •   Atypical organism on blood culture

2 maj/1 maj 2 minor/ 5 minor

85
Q

Eponymous signs of Aortic regurg

A

⚬ Corrigan’s: visible vigorous neck pulsation

⚬ Quincke’s: nail bed capillary pulsation

⚬ De Musset’s: head nodding

⚬ Duroziez’s: diastolic murmur proximal to femoral artery compression

⚬ Traube’s: ‘pistol shot’ sound over the femoral arteries

86
Q

Causes of aortic regurg

A

Endocarditis

Rheumatic fever

Diatation: Marfans, HTN

Ank splond, vasculitis

87
Q

Causes of collapsing pulse

A

Pregnancy

PDA

Aortic regurg

Pagets

Anaemia

Thyrotoxicosis

88
Q

When do you replace valve in Aortic Regurg

A

  Symptomatic

OR

. wide pulse pressure >100mm Hg/ECG changes (on ETT) 3/echo: LV enlargement >5.5cm systolic diameter or EF <50%

89
Q

Causes of mitral stenosis

A

Congenital

Rheumatic fever

Age

IE

90
Q

Causes of mitral regurg

A

IE/rheumatic

Connective tissue

LV dilatation

Calcification

Post MI - papillary muscle rupture

MVP

91
Q

What how do you assess MR severity on echo?

A

size/density of MR jet

LV dilation

reduced EF

92
Q

Who gets mitral valve prolapse?

A

Young tall women

Connective tissue eg Marfans, HCOM

Asx, or chest pain/syncope/palps

Mid ES murmur, louder when standing from squatting

93
Q

Presentation of tricuspid regurg

A

Raised JVP

Giant C waves

Thrill LSE

Pan systolic murmur, reverse split S2

94
Q

Causes of triscuspid regurg

A

Ebsteins anomaly (atrialisation of RV and TR)

IE

Reumatic, Cariconoid syndrome

95
Q

Presentation of Pulmonary stenosis

A

Riased JVP with giant a waves

Left parasternal heave

Thrill in pulmonary area

ES murmur, widely split S2

96
Q

Ax conditions pulmonary stenosis

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

Noonans

Carcinoid syndrome

97
Q

Management of pulmonary stenosis

A
  •   Pulmonary valvotomy – if gradient >70mm Hg or there is RV failure
  • •  Percutaneous pulmonary valve implantation (PPVI)
  • •  Surgical repair/replacement
98
Q

Indications for an ICD

A

Primary prevention

  •  post MI > 4/52 + LVSD with VT/ widerned QRS
  •   Familial eg LQTS, ARVD, Brugada, HCM, complex congenital heart disease

Secondary prevention

  •   cardiac arrest due to VT/VF or
  •   haemodynamically compromising VT/VT with LVEF < 35%
99
Q

Indication for CRT Bivent PPM

A

Severe heart failure or widened QRS

100
Q

Types of ASD

A

Primum - ax w AVSD and cleft mitral valve, seen in Downs

Secundum commonest

101
Q

Complication of ASD

A

Paradoxial emoblus

Artiral arrythmias

RV dilatation

102
Q

When do you close an ASD?

A

Sx or significant shunt

103
Q

Causes of VSD

A

Congenital = Tetralogy

Acuqired: trauma/post MI/ post op

104
Q

Blalock–Taussig (BT) shunts

A

  Partially corrects the Fallot’s abnormality by anastomosing the subclavian artery to the pulmonary artery •  Absent radial pulse and scar

105
Q

Complications of PDA

A

IE

Eisenmengers

106
Q

Causes of cerebellar syndrome

A

PASTRIES

Paraneoplastic cerebellar syndrome

Alcoholic cerebellar degeneration

Sclerosis (MS)

Tumour (posterior fossa SOL)

Rare (Friedrich’s and ataxia telangiectasia)

Iatrogenic (phenytoin toxicity)

Endocrine (hypothyroidism)

Stroke (brain stem vascular event)

107
Q

Cerebellar syndrome

+

  Internuclear opthalmoplegia, spasticity, female, younger age

A

MS

108
Q

Cerebellar syndrome

+

Oprtic atrophy

A

MS

Friedrichs Ataxia

109
Q

Cerebellar syndrome

+

  Clubbing, tar‐stained fingers, radiotherapy burn

A

Bronchial carcinoma

110
Q

Cerebellar syndrome

+

CLD

A

ETOH

111
Q

Cerebellar syndrome

+

Neuropathy

A

ETOH

Fredreichs Ataxia

112
Q

Cerebellar syndrome

+ Gingival hypertrophy

A

Phenytoin

113
Q

Causes of tremor

(Resting, Postural, Intention)

A

1) Resting - Parkinsons
2) Postural - Benign, Anxiety, Thyroid, Drugs, Alcohol, Co2, Hepatic
3) Intention - Cerebellar

114
Q

Causes of ptosis

A

1) Unilateral - Horners, 3rd nerve palsy, MG, Congenital
2) B/L - Myasthenia, Congential, Muscular dystrophy

115
Q

Systolic murmur in young person differentials

A

ASD

VSD

HCOM

MVP

PS

116
Q

Clinical findings Marfans exam

A

Mitral Regurg

Aortic regurg

Valve replacement

Scars from aneurysm repair

High arched palate

117
Q

Extra intestinal features of IBD

A

Eyes - uvetits, episcleritis, iritis

Mouth - apthous ulcers

Skin - eryhthema nodosum, pyogangrenosum

Clubbing Joint - arthritis

Liver - PSC Systemic amyloidosis

118
Q

Drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis

A

bleomycin

nitro

hydralazine,

methrotrexate

amiodarone

119
Q

CN I

A

Olfactory

Ask about smell

120
Q

CN II

A

Optic nerve

(vision not motor)

  • pupils
  • visual acuity (distance/line read)
  • pupillary reflfex (direct, consensual, swinging, accommodation)
  • fundoscopy
  • inattention
121
Q

CN III

A

Oculomotor

Ptosis

122
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear

supplies superior oblique

palsy causes vertical diplopia

123
Q

CN VI

A

CN VI Abducens

controls lateral rectus

palsy causes oncvergent squint

worse on looking towards affected side

124
Q

CN V

A

CN V Trigeminal nerve

Sensory and motor

Branches into:

  1. Opthlamic (sensory scalp and forehead)
  2. Maxillary (sensory eyelid cheek
  3. Mandibular (sensory chin jaw)

Muscles of mastication from V3 mandibular

Jaw jerk

(corneal reflex)

125
Q

CN VII

A

CN VII Facial nerve

motor (facial movements)

sensory - (anterior two thirds of tongue) ?any change in taste

hearing

126
Q

CN VIII

A

CN VIII Vestibulocochlear

hearing and balance

Rinnes and Webers

127
Q

CN IX

A

CN IX Glossopharyngeal

swallowing, taste gag

128
Q

CN X

A

CN X Vagus

mouth, speech, gag

129
Q

CN XI

A

CN XI accesory

motor only

sternocleidomastoid, trapezius

130
Q

CN XII

A

CN XII hypoglossal

motor only

tongue movements

131
Q

Webers test

A

Tuning fork in middle

Normal - hear both sides

Conductive loss - laterals to affected side

Sensorineural loss - lateralises to non affected side

132
Q

Rinnes test

A

Tuning fork on mastoid, wait til they can’t hear it, then move in front of ear

They should be able to hear it again in front of ear

this is positive Rinnes test which is a normal result

sensorineural effects air and bone therefore will also have psoitive result

conductive hearing loss - bone is better therefore negative which is abnormal

133
Q

Features of myotonic dystrophy

A

Face:

  • long, expressionless, wasted facial muscles and sternocleidomataoid
  • B/L ptosis
  • frontal balding
  • dysarthria

Mytonia, wasting, weakness in hands, percussion mytonia

Catarcts, cadiomyopathy, DM, dysphagia, testicular atrophy

Auto dom, anticipation

Dive bomber EMG

134
Q

Causes of ptosis

A

B/L - myotonic dystrophy, MG, congential

Unilateral - 3rd nerve palse, Horners, Congenital

135
Q

Presentation of MS

A

Intranuclear opthalmoplegia, reduced visual acuity, cranial nerve palsy

Spasticity, brisk reflexes

Weakness, altered sensation

Wheelchair/walking aids

136
Q

Management of MS

A

MDT

Medical:

  • Steroids (Shorten attack but no prognostic change)
  • interferon/monoclonal antibodies
  • anti spasmodics, neuropathic pain
  • laxatives/intermittent self catheterising
137
Q

MRC grade

A

0, none

1, flicker

2, moves with gravity neutralized

3, moves against gravity

4, reduced power against resistance

5, normal

138
Q

Thrombolysis window for stroke

A

4.5 hours

139
Q

Causes of cirrhosis

A

ETOH

NAFLD

Chronic viral hepatitis

Haemachromatosis

Less common

Autoimmune hepatitis/PBC/PSC/methotrexate/Wilsons/Alphs1antitrysin deficiency/constrictive pericarditis/CCF

140
Q

Grades of hepatic encephalopathy

A
  1. Behaviour change, minimal conciousness change
  2. Gross disorientation, drowsy, asterixis, inapprorpiate behaviour
  3. Confusion, incoerent speech, sleeping most of the time but rousable
  4. Comatoase, unresponsive, decorticate/decerebrate posturing
141
Q

How can you clinically examine for encephalopathy?

A

Asterixis

Draw a star

MMSE

142
Q

Tx of ascites

A
  1. Fluid restrict/diuresis
  2. Drain if CV/resp comprimise, unit of albumin for every 2l
  3. TIPS - risk of worsened encephalopathy, coagulopathy
  4. Liver transplant
143
Q

Causes of pancreatitis

A

ETOH

Gallstones

Trauma

ERCP

Hypertriglyceridaemia

Hypercalcaemia

Genetic: CF, PRSS1, SPINK1

144
Q

Complications of pancreatitis

A

Acute:

  • SIRS
  • Sepsis response
  • Respiratory failure
  • Death

Chronic

  • chronic pancreatitis
  • portal/splenic vein thrombosis
  • pseudocyst - can cause obstruction
    *
145
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Transmural inflammation

A

Crohns

146
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Fissuring ulcers

A

Crohns

147
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Lymphoid/neutrophil aggregates

A

Crohns

148
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Mucosa/submucosa only

A

UC

149
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Crypt Abcesses

A

UC

150
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Skip lesions

A

Crohns

151
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Continous inflammation

A

UC

152
Q

UC Vs Crohns
Transmural/all layers inflammation

A

Crohns

PACES (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions