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BasicDrugs(Dont use this one, has formatting errors) Use CC2 > BasicDrugs > Flashcards

BasicDrugs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the brand name of Midazolam

A

Versed

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2
Q

What is the brand name of Lidocaine

A

Xylocaine

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3
Q

What is the brand name of Fentanyl

A

Sublimaze

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4
Q

What is the brand name of Morphine

A

Morphine

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5
Q

What is the brand name of Hydromorphone

A

Dilaudid

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6
Q

What is the brand name of Meperidine

A

Demerol

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7
Q

What is the brand name of Naloxone

A

Narcan

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8
Q

What is the brand name of Propofol

A

Diprivan

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9
Q

What is the brand name of Etomidate

A

Amidate

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10
Q

What is the brand name of Ketamine

A

Ketalar

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11
Q

What is the brand name of Succinylcholine

A

Anectine

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12
Q

What is the brand name of Rocuronium

A

Zemuron

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13
Q

What is the brand name of Vecuronium

A

Norcuron

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14
Q

What is the brand name of Cisatracurium

A

Nimbex

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15
Q

What is the brand name of Neostigmine

A

Prostigmin

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16
Q

What is the brand name of Glycopyrrolate

A

Robinul

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17
Q

What is the brand name of Atropine

A

Atropine

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18
Q

What is the brand name of Epinephrine

A

Adrenaline

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19
Q

What is the brand name of Ephedrine

A

Ephedrine

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20
Q

What is the brand name of Phenylephrine

A

Neosynephrine

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21
Q

What is the brand name of Esmolol

A

Brevibloc

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22
Q

What is the brand name of Metoprolol

A

Lopressor

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23
Q

What is the brand name of Labetalol

A

Normodyne

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24
Q

What is the brand name of Nitroglycerin

A

Nitroglycerin

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25
Q

What is the brand name of Hydralazine

A

Hydralazine

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26
Q

What is the brand name of Ondansetron

A

Zofran

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27
Q

What is the brand name of Droperidol

A

Inapsine

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28
Q

What is the function of Ketamine

A

Induction

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29
Q

What is the function of Succinylcholine

A

Paralysis

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30
Q

What is the function of Rocuronium

A

Paralysis

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31
Q

What is the function of Vecuronium

A

Paralysis

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32
Q

What is the function of Cisatracurium

A

Paralysis

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33
Q

What is the function of Neostigmine

A

Relaxant Reversal

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34
Q

What is the function of Glycopyrrolate

A

Prevent BLUDS

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35
Q

What is the function of Atropine

A

??HR

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36
Q

What is the function of Epinephrine

A

??HR / ??BP

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37
Q

What is the function of Ephedrine

A

? HR / ?BP

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38
Q

What is the function of Phenylephrine

A

?HR / ?BP

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39
Q

What is the function of Esmolol

A

??HR

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40
Q

What is the function of Metoprolol

A

?HR

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41
Q

What is the function of Labetalol

A

(?/?)?HR / ?BP

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42
Q

What is the function of Nitroglycerin

A

? HR / ?BP

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43
Q

What is the function of Hydralazine

A

? HR / ?BP

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44
Q

What is the function of Ondansetron

A

Treat N/V

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45
Q

What is the function of Droperidol

A

Treat N/V

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46
Q

What is the concentration of Ketamine

A

10, 50, 100 mg/ml

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47
Q

What is the concentration of Succinylcholine

A

20 mg/ml (2%)

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48
Q

What is the concentration of Rocuronium

A

10 mg/ml (1%)

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49
Q

What is the concentration of Vecuronium

A

10 mg powder vial reconstituted to 1 mg/ml

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50
Q

What is the concentration of Cisatracurium

A

2 mg/ml (20 mg vial)

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51
Q

What is the concentration of Neostigmine

A

1 mg/ml (0.1%), (0.5 mg/ml)

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52
Q

What is the concentration of Glycopyrrolate

A

0.2 mg/ml

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53
Q

What is the concentration of Atropine

A

0.4 mg/ml

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54
Q

What is the concentration of Epinephrine

A

16 mcg/ml syringe

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55
Q

What is the concentration of Ephedrine

A

5 mg/ml

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56
Q

What is the concentration of Phenylephrine

A

100 mcg/ml

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57
Q

What is the concentration of Esmolol

A

100 mg (10 mg/ml)

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58
Q

What is the concentration of Metoprolol

A

5 mg (1 mg/ml)

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59
Q

What is the concentration of Labetalol

A

5 mg/ml

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60
Q

What is the concentration of Nitroglycerin

A

50, 100, 200 mcg/ml

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61
Q

What is the concentration of Hydralazine

A

20 mg in 1 ml (diluted to various cxn)

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62
Q

What is the concentration of Ondansetron

A

2 mg/ml (4mg)

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63
Q

What is the concentration of Droperidol

A

0.3125 mg/ml

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64
Q

What is the dose of Midazolam

A

1 - 2.5 mg IV, PO 0.5 mg/kg, IM 0.1-0.15 mg/kg subl. 0.1 mg/kg

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65
Q

What is the dose of Lidocaine

A

0.5 - 1 mg/kg IV

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66
Q

What is the dose of Fentanyl

A

1 - 2 mcg/kg IV

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67
Q

What is the dose of Morphine

A

0.1 - 1 mg/kg IV

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68
Q

What is the dose of Hydromorphone

A

0.5 - 2 mg IV

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69
Q

What is the dose of Meperidine

A

12.5 - 25 mg IV

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70
Q

What is the dose of Naloxone

A

1 - 4 mcg/kg IV

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71
Q

What is the dose of Propofol

A

1 - 2.5 mg/kg IV

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72
Q

What is the dose of Etomidate

A

0.2 - 0.3 mg/kg IV

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73
Q

What is the dose of Ketamine

A

1 - 2 mg/kg IV, 4 - 8 mg/kg IM

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74
Q

What is the dose of Succinylcholine

A

1 - 2 mg/kg IV

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75
Q

What is the dose of Rocuronium

A

0.6 - 1.2 mg/kg IV, 0.1 mg/kg maint.

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76
Q

What is the dose of Vecuronium

A

maint. 0.01 mg/kg

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77
Q

What is the dose of Cisatracurium

A

0.1 - 0.15 mg/kg IV

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78
Q

What is the dose of Neostigmine

A

0.04 - 0.07 mg/kg IV

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79
Q

What is the dose of Glycopyrrolate

A

0.2 mg per 1 mg Neostigmine

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80
Q

What is the dose of Atropine

A

0.4 - 0.6 mg (up to 3 mg)

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81
Q

What is the dose of Epinephrine

A

8 - 16 mcg

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82
Q

What is the dose of Ephedrine

A

5 - 20 mg

83
Q

What is the dose of Phenylephrine

A

50 - 100 mcg

84
Q

What is the dose of Esmolol

A

10 mg (0.2 - 0.5 mg/kg)

85
Q

What is the dose of Metoprolol

A

1 - 2 mg

86
Q

What is the dose of Labetalol

A

5 mg (0.1 - 0.25 mg/kg)

87
Q

What is the dose of Nitroglycerin

A

Bolus: 50-100 mcg Infusion: 0.5 - 10 mcg/kg/min

88
Q

What is the dose of Hydralazine

A

5 - 20 mg

89
Q

What is the dose of Ondansetron

A

4 mg

90
Q

What is the dose of Droperidol

A

0.625 mg

91
Q

What is the onset of Midazolam

A

1 min

92
Q

What is the onset of Fentanyl

A

1 min

93
Q

What is the onset of Morphine

A

15 - 30 min

94
Q

What is the onset of Hydromorphone

A

5 min

95
Q

What is the onset of Propofol

A

30 - 60 sec

96
Q

What is the onset of Etomidate

A

30 - 60 sec

97
Q

What is the onset of Ketamine

A

30 - 60 sec, IM 2 - 5 min

98
Q

What is the onset of Succinylcholine

A

30 sec

99
Q

What is the onset of Rocuronium

A

1 - 2 min (30 sec high dose)

100
Q

What is the onset of Vecuronium

A

3 - 5 min

101
Q

What is the onset of Cisatracurium

A

3 - 5 min

102
Q

What is the onset of Neostigmine

A

5 - 7 min

103
Q

What is the onset of Atropine

A

1 min

104
Q

What is the onset of Epinephrine

A

30 sec

105
Q

What is the onset of Ephedrine

A

30 sec

106
Q

What is the onset of Phenylephrine

A

30 sec

107
Q

What is the onset of Esmolol

A

5 min

108
Q

What is the onset of Nitroglycerin

A

30 - 60 sec

109
Q

What is the onset of Hydralazine

A

20 min

110
Q

What is the peak effect of Midazolam

A

5 min

111
Q

What is the peak effect of Fentanyl

A

3 - 5 min

112
Q

What is the peak effect of Propofol

A

60 - 120 sec

113
Q

What is the peak effect of Etomidate

A

45 - 120 sec

114
Q

What is the peak effect of Ketamine

A

30 - 120 sec

115
Q

What is the peak effect of Ondansetron

A

30 min

116
Q

What is the duration of Midazolam

A

30 min

117
Q

What is the duration of Fentanyl

A

30 - 60 min

118
Q

What is the duration of Morphine

A

3 - 6 hours

119
Q

What is the duration of Hydromorphone

A

3 - 6 hours

120
Q

What is the duration of Propofol

A

5 - 10 min

121
Q

What is the duration of Etomidate

A

5 - 10 min

122
Q

What is the duration of Ketamine

A

5 - 10 min

123
Q

What is the duration of Succinylcholine

A

3 - 5 min

124
Q

What is the duration of Rocuronium

A

20 - 35 min

125
Q

What is the duration of Vecuronium

A

20 - 35 min

126
Q

What is the duration of Cisatracurium

A

20 -35 min

127
Q

What is the duration of Neostigmine

A

30 min

128
Q

What is the duration of Atropine

A

30 - 60 min

129
Q

What is the duration of Epinephrine

A

2 - 3 min

130
Q

What is the duration of Ephedrine

A

10 - 15 min

131
Q

What is the duration of Phenylephrine

A

2 - 3 min

132
Q

What is the duration of Esmolol

A

10 - 30 min

133
Q

What is the duration of Metoprolol

A

+1 hours

134
Q

What is the duration of Nitroglycerin

A

2 min

135
Q

What is the duration of Hydralazine

A

6 - 8 hours

136
Q

What are the uses of Midazolam

A

anxiolysis, sedation, amnesia

137
Q

What are the uses of Lidocaine

A

intubation, local, propofol burn, cardiac arrythm

138
Q

What are the uses of Fentanyl

A

analgesia

139
Q

What are the uses of Morphine

A

IV, epidural, spinal analgesia

140
Q

What are the uses of Hydromorphone

A

analgesia

141
Q

What are the uses of Meperidine

A

Post-op shivering, analgesia

142
Q

What are the uses of Naloxone

A

opioid overdose, respiratory depression

143
Q

What are the uses of Propofol

A

induction, sedation, MAC

144
Q

What are the uses of Etomidate

A

induction, hypnosis

145
Q

What are the uses of Ketamine

A

induction, analgesia, amnesia

146
Q

What are the uses of Succinylcholine

A

intubation, paralysis, laryngospasm

147
Q

What are the uses of Rocuronium

A

paralysis, RSI

148
Q

What are the uses of Vecuronium

A

paralysis

149
Q

What are the uses of Cisatracurium

A

paralysis

150
Q

What are the uses of Neostigmine

A

Nondepolarizing NMB reversal

151
Q

What are the uses of Glycopyrrolate

A

antisialigogue, NMB reversal

152
Q

What are the uses of Atropine

A

bradycardia, NMB reversal

153
Q

What are the uses of Epinephrine

A

?HR/BP, anaphylaxis, bronchospasm

154
Q

What are the uses of Ephedrine

A

? HR / ?BP

155
Q

What are the uses of Phenylephrine

A

?BP, nasal decongestant

156
Q

What are the uses of Esmolol

A

?HR

157
Q

What are the uses of Metoprolol

A

?HR

158
Q

What are the uses of Labetalol

A

Control HR and BP

159
Q

What are the uses of Nitroglycerin

A

Angina, HTN

160
Q

What are the uses of Ondansetron

A

treat N/V

161
Q

What are the uses of Droperidol

A

treat N/V

162
Q

What are the contraindications of Midazolam

A

hepatic disease, elderly, pregnant

163
Q

What are the contraindications of Meperidine

A

renal disease

164
Q

What are the contraindications of Succinylcholine

A

burn patients, hyperkalemia, space occupying lesions/open globe injuries

165
Q

What are the contraindications of Labetalol

A

asthmatics, heavy smokers

166
Q

What are the contraindications of Droperidol

A

Parkinson’s Dis, prolonged QT interval

167
Q

What are the cautions of Morphine

A

depression of ventilation, PONV, pruritis (itching)

168
Q

What are the cautions of Hydromorphone

A

depression of ventilation

169
Q

What are the cautions of Meperidine

A

neurotoxic

170
Q

What are the cautions of Naloxone

A

N/V, pain, tachycardia, increased SNS

171
Q

What are the cautions of Propofol

A

bacterial growth, soy/egg allergy, hypotension, HTN

172
Q

What are the cautions of Etomidate

A

myoclonus, PONV, pain on injection

173
Q

What are the cautions of Ketamine

A

emergence delirium

174
Q

What are the cautions of Succinylcholine

A

malignant hypothermia, myalgia

175
Q

What are the cautions of Neostigmine

A

BLUDS, PONV, hypotension

176
Q

What are the cautions of Ephedrine

A

tachyphylaxis, depletion of norepinephrine

177
Q

What are the cautions of Phenylephrine

A

reflex bradycardia, increased afterload

178
Q

What are the cautions of Labetalol

A

?2 antagonism ? bronchoconstriction

179
Q

What are the cautions of Ondansetron

A

may expand Q-T interval

180
Q

Useful notes on Midazolam

A

synergy with narcotics, same IV dose regardless of weight

181
Q

Useful notes on Fentanyl

A

bradycardia > morphine, synergism with benzos, 100x potent as morphine, hemodynamic stability

182
Q

Useful notes on Morphine

A

often diluted from 10 mg/ml to 1 mg/ml

183
Q

Useful notes on Hydromorphone

A

not as much PONV as morphine

184
Q

Useful notes on Naloxone

A

dilute 0.4 mg vial in 10 ml and give 1 ml at a time

185
Q

Useful notes on Propofol

A

burns on injection, decreases PONV, short duration from redistribution, dose dependent decrease in respirxn, little analgesia

186
Q

Useful notes on Etomidate

A

cardiovasvular stability, used with bad hearts or HTN

187
Q

Useful notes on Ketamine

A

nystagmus, prolongs SUX duration

188
Q

Useful notes on Succinylcholine

A

causes fasciculations, metabloized by plasma cholinesterase, many adverse side effects

189
Q

Useful notes on Rocuronium

A

increased duration with liver disease and pregnancy, metabolized by liver/kidneys, use TOF for maint and give 1 ml at a time

190
Q

Useful notes on Vecuronium

A

hardly used for intubation b/c of long onset, use TOF for maint and give 1 ml at a time

191
Q

Useful notes on Cisatracurium

A

good for renal/hepatic dysfunction, undergoes Hoffman degradation

192
Q

Useful notes on Neostigmine

A

dosage based on twitch monitor, BLUDS caused at muscarinic cholinergic receptor sites

193
Q

Useful notes on Glycopyrrolate

A

used specifically to counteract BLUDS, used w/ neostigmine b/c of similar onset/duration, 80 kg pt -> 8.0 -> 4.0 ml neo, 4.0 ml glyco

194
Q

Useful notes on Epinephrine

A

effects ? & ? receptors

195
Q

Useful notes on Ephedrine

A

mainly indirect action by causing NE release

196
Q

Useful notes on Phenylephrine

A

direct acting binds to ? receptors, caution w/ bad hearts b/c of increased afterload, no ? effect, occ. combined with glycopyrrolate

197
Q

Useful notes on Esmolol

A

fast onset/short duration, works only on ?1 receptors of heart ? ?HR/contractility ? ?BP, metabolized by plasma cholinesterase

198
Q

Useful notes on Metoprolol

A

same effect as Esmolol, but lasts longer

199
Q

Useful notes on Labetalol

A

?:? antagonism 7:1, vasodilation from blocking ?1

200
Q

Useful notes on Nitroglycerin

A

fast onset/short duration, no effect on heart only vasculature, mainly venous side, ? ventricular wall tension

201
Q

Useful notes on Hydralazine

A

no effect on heart only vasculature, mainly arterial side, long duration undesirable with blood loss

202
Q

Useful notes on Ondansetron

A

give 30 min before emergence, have PO version for morning sickness, sometimes pushed with induction for short cases

203
Q

Useful notes on Droperidol

A

used mainly as a secondary to Zofran

BasicDrugs(Dont use this one, has formatting errors) Use CC2 (12 decks)

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