Basic2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define movement area?

A

That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron(s)

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2
Q

Define apron

A

A defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accomodate aircraft for the purpose of loading unloading passengers, mail or cargo, refueling, parking or maintenance

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3
Q

Define manoeuvring area

A

That part pf the aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.

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4
Q

Define landing area

A

That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.

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5
Q

Define taxi circuit

A

The designated path for aircraft on the manoeuvring area, taking into consideration the prevailing wind situation

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6
Q

Define aerodrome traffic circuit

A

The specified path to be flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of an aerodrome

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7
Q

List the positions of aircraft in the traffic and taxi circuit

A
  • parking position
  • holding point
  • take-off position
  • downwind
  • base
  • final
  • turn-off position
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8
Q

List criteria to designate the rwy in use

A
  • wind
  • rwy length
  • rwy capacity
  • approach, departure and landing aids
  • adjecent aerodromes
  • traffic conditions
  • traffic circuit
  • noise abatement
  • weather effects
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9
Q

List which airspaces shall a flight avoid in controlled airspace

A
  • the boundary of the controller’s area of responsibitiy
  • danger areas
  • restricted areas
  • night low flying system (NLFS)
  • special activity areas
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10
Q

List vertical separations

A

1000 ft at below FL290
1000 ft for RVSM approved at FL290 to FL410
2000 ft at FL290 to FL410 for non-RVSM equipped acft, formation flights, acft with unservicable RVSM equipment
2000 ft for flights above FL410

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11
Q

RADAR

A

RAdio Detection And Ranging

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12
Q

RDPS

A

Radar Data Processing System

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13
Q

List the tasks for using a radar

A
  • to provide separation
  • to monitor and vector acft
  • to maintain an expeditious flow of air traffic
  • to assist pilots in circumnavigating areas of adverse weather
  • to assist pilots with navigational difficulties
  • to issue traffic information
  • to aid pilots in special situations
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14
Q

Describe mode 3/A SSR

A

Provides a 4-digit octal identification code for the aircraft, assigned by the ATC

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15
Q

Describe mode C SSR

A

Provides 4-digit code for aircraft’s pressure altitude

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16
Q

Squawk 7000

A

Civil VFR

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17
Q

Squawk 0033

A

Military VFR from GND to FL100

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18
Q

Squawk 0025

A

Acft droping parachutists

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19
Q

Squawk 7500

A

Hijack

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20
Q

Squawk 7600

A

Loss of communication/radio failure

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21
Q

Squawk 7700

A

Emergency

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22
Q

Squawk 2000

A

Used by flight crews in the absence of any ATC instructions or regional agreements.

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23
Q

List types of separation

A

Longitudinal (based on time, based on distance)

Lateral (track, geographical)

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24
Q

Describe longitudinal separation based on time

A

Same, opposite and crossing traffic=10 min rule.
Departure= 2 min if 40kt or faster, 1 min if flights diverging more than 45 deg, less than 1 min if rwys diverging by 45 deg.
Wake turbulence= LM-J 3 min all other 2 min

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25
Q

Describe longitudinal separation based on distance

A

Same track, level and speed or crossing at same level= 20 NM
All other= 10 NM

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26
Q

Traffic information types

A

Crossing, overtaking, opposite, closing

27
Q

Traffic info level and speed

A

Level: if verified stated as seen, if not “not confirmed”, if no level si observed “no level information”
Speed: “fast moving” (250 kt ), nothing if speed is between 150 kt and 249 kt

28
Q

List the methods of the identification using SSR

A
  • Recognition of the aircraft identification in a label
  • Recognition of an assigned discrete code in a label, the setting of which has been verified
  • Observation of compliance with an instruction to set or change a specific code
  • Observation of compliance with an instruction to squawk IDENT
  • Transfer of identification
29
Q

List the methods of the identification using PSR

A
  • Departing aircraft method
  • Position report
  • Radial and arc from a navigation aid
  • Turn method
  • Transfer of identification
  • Direction finding
30
Q

Definition Minimum Vectoring Altitude

A

Lowest altitude within controlled airspace which may be used for the vectoring of IFR flights, taking into account the minimum safe height and airspace structure within a specific area

31
Q

What is the minimum safe height provided by the MVA?

A

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 km and a 500 ft buffer to the lower limit of controlled airspace

32
Q

Issuing traffic information

A
  • A short description of the target concerned
  • Azimuth from the target in terms of the 12-hour clock
  • Distance from the target
  • General direction in which the target is proceeding
  • other information known or recognisable
33
Q

List transmission of information

A

general information - disseminated as aeronautical broadcasts
specific information - disseminated in individual cases
traffic information - both accepted and disseminated

34
Q

List aeronautical broadcasts

A

SIGMET and AIRMET
ATIS
Hazards and restrictions to air traffic occurring on short notice which cannot be published in time

35
Q

List what should an aeronautical broadcast contain

A
A general call
Transmitting unit
Reason of broadcast
The radius, location and level
The type of restriction
36
Q

What is a SIGMET

A

-Significant meteorological conditions
information issued by the meteorological office concerning the occurrence of specified en-route weather and other phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations.

37
Q

What is AIRMET

A

-Aeronautical meteorological information
Information concerning short term changes of en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low level aircraft operations

38
Q

What is ATIS

A

-Automatic terminal information service
Provides current, routine information to arriving and departing aircraft broadcast via VHF frequencies published in the AIP

39
Q

What is METAR

A

-aviation routine weather report

If relevant ATIS is not available, on pilots’ request, METAR should be reported to the pilot

40
Q

What is VOLMET

A

A worldwide network of radio stations that use automated voice transmission to broadcast TAF, SIGMET and METAR reports.

41
Q

What is STCA

A

-Short term conflict alert
assists the controller by providing a visual alert of potential or actual infringement of separation minima
used to warn the controller of potential separation problems between aircraft and: aircraft, areas and MVA.

42
Q

What is ACAS/TCAS and what is TA and RA?

A
  • Airborne Collision Avoidance System
  • Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance system
  • Traffic Advisories
  • Resolution Advisories
43
Q

List radar separation minima in BASIM

A

5 NM separation above FL135
3 NM separation above FL135
2.5 NM separation within 10 NM from touchdown

44
Q

list minimum safe height provided by the MVA

A

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 km and a 500 ft buffer to the lower limit of controlled airspace

45
Q

list holding speed values

A

< FL140=230kt IAS
FL140-FL200=240kt IAS
>FL200 = 265kt IAS

46
Q

rules of thumb for calculating descent rates

A

probable rate of descent = GS * 5

mileage needed to reach level = level difference * 3

47
Q

list silent radar transfer minima for MAIN sector

A

10 NM for EDDK inbounds and all flights into/from WURL sector
15 NM for all other flights into/from all other sectors

48
Q

Definition of radio mandatory zone (RMZ)

A

An airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of radio equipment is mandatory

49
Q

List the tasks for the radar controller

A

-identify aircraft and maintain identity
-issue clearances and instructions
-monitor the progress of flights
-issue traffic/adverse weather information
-vector aircraft to provide separation or navigational assistance

50
Q

List the tasks of planning controller

A
  • issue ATC clearances to adjacent units
  • establish and maintain an actual traffic picture
  • assist the appropriate radar controller in case of emergency
  • document clearances instructions and coordination results
  • coordinate IFR flights and military transit flights trough TRAs
51
Q

Definition of dummy clearance

A

a clearance issued by an aerodrome control tower without prior coordination with an approach control unit or an area control centre…

52
Q

what is a discrete code

A

discrete code is a four digit SSR code with the last two digits not being “00”

53
Q

when is the transfer of control in effect?

A
  • when passing the common boundary of two areas of responsibility
  • at points, times or levels agreed between the two control units concerned
54
Q

when should the transfer of communication be made?

A

not earlier than 2 minutes or 10 NM from the sector boundary, whichever is later

55
Q

when is a revision used?

A
  • ETO/ATO of 5 or more minutes
  • coordinated levels
  • other relevant data
56
Q

list radar separation minima

A

5 NM above FL135
3 NM below FL135
2.5 NM within 10 NM from touchdown

57
Q

list the wake turbulence separation minima

A
heavy-heavy = 4 NM
heavy-medium = 5 NM
heavy-light = 6 NM
medium-light = 5 NM
A388-heavy = 6 NM
A388-medium = 7 NM
A388-light = 8 NM
58
Q

how are ATC clearances obtained?

A

via radiotelephony, telephone or writing

59
Q

list the flights that have to be separated?

A
  • all flights in airspace classes A and B
  • all IFR flights in airspace classes C, D and E
  • IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C
  • IFR and SVFR
60
Q

list the events that may lead to hazards and restrictions to air traffic

A
  • distress incidents
  • fuel dumping
  • SAR missions
  • special occurrences on the ground
61
Q

what is NOTAM?

A

NOTAM is issued to disseminate information concerning operationally significant changes to the AIP which are of a temporary nature

62
Q

list the methods for transfer of identification

A
  • target is physically pointed
  • accepting controller is informed of the distance and bearing of the target from a fix or geographical position
  • transferring controller instructs the aircraft to change the code and accepting controller observes
  • transferring controller instructs the aircraft to squawk IDENT
  • notification of the discrete code of the aircraft
63
Q

define distress and list the distress signals

A

distress means that grave and imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance is requested

  • SSR code 7700
  • morse code SOS (…_ _ _ …)
  • MAYDAY sent via radiotelephony
  • MAYDAY sent via data link
  • parachute flare showing a red light
  • rockets or shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals
64
Q

define urgency and list the urgency signals

A

Urgency means that the pilot has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or persons on board or in sight

  • morse code XXX (.. .. ..)
  • PAN PAN sent via radiotelephony
  • PAN PAN sent via data link
  • repeated switching on and off of the landing lights, or position lights in such manner that they cannot be mistaken for flashing position lights