Basic Indoc Flashcards

0
Q

Employee standards and rules of conduct (code of ethics).

A

A. At no time shall personnel discuss within in earshot of pax or others of the public, any matter that could cast doubt on the safety of the flight.

B. employees will not criticize other personnel or procedures while within earshot of the public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Employee standards and rules of conduct (code of ethics).

A

A. Appearance and conduct when in contact with the public, directly affects the public image of Mesa Airlines.

B. personnel in uniform must be especially careful to conduct themselves in a dignified, courteous, alert, and business-like manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Employee compensation, benefits, contracts, (ALPA, codeshare partners).

A

ALPA contract:

A. In accordance with the provisions of the Railway Labor Act.

B. Governs compensation, scheduling, senority, training, vacation, sick leave, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Employee compensation, benefits, contracts, (ALPA, codeshare partners).

Codeshare agreements: US Airways, United.

A

A. A codeshare agreement is an aviation business arrangement where two or more airlines share the same flight.

B. A seat can be purchased on one airline but is actually operated by a cooperating airline under a different flight number or code

C. Most major airlines today have code sharing partnerships with other airlines and code sharing is a key feature of the major airline alliances.

D. Under a code sharing agreement, the airline that actually operates the flight is called the operating carrier.

E. The company or companies that sells tickets for that flight but do not actually operate it are called marketing carriers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Authority and responsibilities of duty position.

Pilot in Command (PIC)

A

A. Joint responsibility with dispatch for flight planning

B. Responsible for safety of passengers, crewmembers, cargo and airplane.

C. Full operational control and authority in the operation of aircraft and crewmembers.

D. In-flight security coordinator.

E. Responsible for monitoring navigational performance and weather.

F. The PIC must not cooperate in a careless manner or reckless.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Authority and responsibilities of duty position.

Second in Command (SIC).

A

A. Assist in safe and efficient operation of the flight .

B. Proficient in duties such as:
1. System monitoring, Fuel management, Weight and Balance, Aircraft performance and Record keeping.

C. Advise the captain of any abnormality during ground or flight operations.

D. Duties may only be delegated by the first officer when the captain becomes incapacitated.

E. The first officer must not operate in a careless or reckless manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Company manual organization, revisions and employee responsibilities.

General Operations Manual (GOM, Manual 410)

A

Provides guidelines for personnel to carry out assigned duties and responsibilities in accordance with Mesa Airlines, Inc. policies, FAA and TSA regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Company required equipment (flight kit).

Electronic Flight Bags (EFB)

A

The Apple iPad 1,2,3 or 4 may be used as a substitute for Jeppesen, Inflight Pubs, GOM, CFM, FMS Manual and Ops Specs after completion of the required training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Company manual organization, revisions and employee responsibilities.

Company Flight Manual (CFM, Manual 950)

A

A. Used in lieu of the Bombardier Airplane Flight Manual to provide the crew operational information.

B. Provide information regarding standard operating procedures (SOPs), performance data and limitations.

C. Ouick Reference Handbook (QRH). Located in the aircraft and updated by tech pubs.
1. Provides quick access to emergency and abnormal procedures.

D. Crews must verify current revisions with the aircraft publications currency list (APCL).

E. APCL is sent to all pilots weekly.

F. Permanent revisions are printed on white paper. Temporary revisions are printed on yellow paper and inserted adjacent to page revising. Bulletins are printed on blue paper and inserted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flight crew memos

A

A. Crew memos are issued to appropriate crewmembers via company email

B. Pilots indicate they have read the memo by clicking the confirmation link.

C. New hires are responsible for reviewing all memos from the current year and previous year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flight crew qualifications

FAR 121.443

A

A. A pilot who has reached their 65th birthday may not be assigned any flight under part 21.

B. Each pilot must have in their possession a current airman and medical certificate while flying.

C. No pilot may serve as a crewmember under FAR 121 unless they have made three takeoffs and three landings in an approved visual simulator or in the aircraft within the preceding 90 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Flight crew qualifications

FAR 121.434, 121.438

A

Consolidation of knowledge and skills.
1. Crewmembers must acquire @ least 120 hours of line operating flight time (including IOE) within 120 days satisfactory completion of the proficiency check (check ride).

Pairing Requirements “Green on Green”
1. Either pilot in command or the sic has at least 75 hours of line operating flight time in aircraft type, either as pic or sic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Flight Crew Qualifications (FAR 121.438)

If the f/o has fewer than 100 hours of flight time as sic under 121 in the type airplane being flown (including IOE), and the captain is not an appropriately qualified check pilot, THE CAPTAIN MUST MAKE ALL T/O AND LANDINGS, in the following situations.

A

A. At “special airports” designated by the Administrator or at special airports designated by the certificate holder.

In following conditions:
1. Prevailing visibility at airport is at or below 3/4 mile
(All takeoffs with visibility less than 1sm will be made by PIC).
2. RVR is at or below 4000 feet. (All t/o a With less than 5000 RVR will be made the PIC.
3. Water, snow, slush or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane performance (contaminated runway).
4. Braking action is reported less than “good”.
5. X-wind component for runway in use is in excess of 15 knots.
6. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
7. Any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the PICs prerogative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Medical certificates, Physical Examinations, and Fitness for duty.

Mesa Airlines policy for required medical certificate.

A

Captain-Current First Class:
Captains under 40 must renew every 12 months.
Captains 40 or older must renew every 6 months.

First Officers-Current First Class
First Officers 60 or older must renew every 6 months.
First Officers any age must renew every 12 months.

A crew members FAA medical certificate that expires in a given month, must be submitted to Crew Qualifications by the 25th day of that month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Medical certificates, physical examinations, and fitness for duty.

Factors that would prevent a pilot from flying

A

A. A known medical deficiency that would cause him/her to be unable to meet the medical requirements

B. Pilot having emotional problems. In which he/she should contact the Chief Pilot.

C. A pregnant pilot. In which she will contact the Chief Pilot, and her doctor will determine the length of time she can safely fly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Medical certificates, physical examinations, and fitness for duty.

A

Crewmembers shall not participate in scuba diving within 24 hours prior to reporting for duty.

It is recommended that crewmembers do not donate blood unless absolutely necessary.

If necessary the crewmember shall report within 72 of giving blood.

Prescribed or over the counter: each should consult with AME or ALPA Aeromedical to determine if it is legal for them to fly while taking any medication or supplement.

All pilots shall carry their First Class medical certificate with them while acting as a crewmember and during any TRAINING EVENT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Flight Crew Documents

Documents that should be on the Pilot while on duty.

A

A. Pilot Certificate
B. Medical Certificate
C. Passport
1. Has to be valid.
2. If the passport was misplaced or has been sent with a new application for a new passport, the Assistant Chief Pilot will be notified. A copy of the new passport will be sent to crew quals.
3. Foreigners must advise crew quals if they become a naturalized U.S. Citizen and are issued a passport.
4. The (ESS) will updated within 5 days of receipt of the new passport.

Current logbook
Electronic flight bags.
Company ID
Corrective lenses if needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Flight crew documents

Lost or destroyed certificates.
Exemption 5560

A

A. Lost certificates Pilots must obtain a FAX from FAA confirming that it was issued. The facsimile may be carried as a certificate for no longer than 60 days.

B. Exemption 5560.
If insufficient time exist to contact the FAA In Okc, the pilot may continue to serves a crewmember under part 121operations without having a certificate in his/her possession in accordance with Exemption 5560

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Exception 5560

A

A. Immediately contact crew tracking
B. the pilot’s identity will be verified
C. The pilot’s legality will be confirmed
D. Temporary Airman Certificate letter will be issued to the pilot by crew tracking.
E. The letter will serve as a temporary cert. for a period of 7 days within the 48 contiguous states only.
F. A request for a fax from the FAA shall be made within 72 hours of the initiation of any flight.
G. Within 24 hours of receipt of the fax received from the FAA, a copy of that fax will be sent to crew quals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Command and Operational Control

PIC and Dispatcher.

A
Command Responsibility (FAR 121.533)
 The PIC and Dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release of a flight.

Dispatcher Responsibilities
A. Monitor the progress of each flight
B. issuing necessary information for the safety of the flight.
C. Canceling or redispatching a flight, if in the opinion of the dispatcher or PIC, the flight cannot operate or continue to operate safely as planned or released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Admission to the flight deck

A

A. TSA directive May further restrict flight deck access.

B. PIC always have the final authority of the aircraft and may exclude any person from the flight deck in the interest of safety.

C. Flight deck door shall remain locked. Admission of pax to the flight deck is limited to the ground with no engine running provided at least one flight crewmember remains in the flight deck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Carriage of live animals

Live animals can be carried under the following conditions.

A

A small animal in a container that can fit under the seat or in an overhead bin. The PIC will determine if the container Is adequate.

Codeshare partner rules on the maximum number of passenger pets allowed on board will be followed.

Live animals may be carried in the aft cargo compartment of the crj700 & 900 in suitable container.

Their weight will be listed on the load sheet which will also indicate a live animal is in the cargo compartment.

DO NOT carry live animals in the cargo compartment if the CRJ200 due to lack of heat.

Do not ship bees, venomous or toxic animals

No limit on the number of trained service animals allowed on board.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aircraft fueling

If pax are inboard while refueling.

A

The door will remain open

Flight attendants will remain near their assigned stations.

A fire extinguisher will be available in the immediate area of the aircraft.

In the event a fuel spillage, the aircraft will be evacuated immediately

A crewmember will brief the pax that smoking is prohibited.

Flight attendants will ensure that all routes to the emergency exit are us obstructed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aircraft lighting

A

TAXI LIGHT should be on while TAXIING.

Turn on all exterior lights when crossing any runway

If cleared to line up and wait, turn on all exterior lights except landing lights.

An aircraft in the takeoff position with landing lights ON is most likely about to takeoff.

While in flight, the captain shall consider illuminating all lights practical while operating in congested airspace and while below 10,000 MSL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sterile cockpit procedures

A

Critical phases of flight (all ground ops, taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all flight operations below 10,000 feet except cruise flight).

PIC will ensure that crewmembers do not engage in any activities not essential to the safe operation of the flight.

When stopped with the parking brake set, non-essential activities such as passenger service announcements are authorized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sterile cockpit procedures cont’

A

Sterile cockpits terminates after climbing through 10,000 MSL. And is reentered when descending through 10,000 MSL

PILOT MONITORING (PM) will signal the termination of sterile cockpit by cycling the seat belt sign to generate two tones. And will signal reentry into sterile cockpit by cycling the seat belt sign to generate two tones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Proactive go-around policy.

Go around fallout and response

A

The unwillingness of pilots to execute a go-around and missed approach when necessary was the cause, at least in part, of many approach and landing accidents.

The unwillingness may stem from pressures to sacrifice safety in favor of other considerations, such as schedules or cost.

Either pilot flying or pilot monitoring may make a go-around callout.

The flying pilots immediate response to a go-around callout by the pilot monitoring is the execution of a missed approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Proactive go-around (stabilized approach)
The flight will be stabilized BY 1,000 HAT. An approach is stabilized when all of the following criteria are maintained from 1,000 HAT TO A LANDING In the touchdown zone.

A

The airplane is on correct track.
The airplane is in the proper landing configuration.
After glide path intercept, or after the FAF, the PF requires no more than normal bracketing corrections to maintain the correct track and desired profile to landing within the touchdown zone.
The airplane is at the proper approach speed with engines spooled up
The rate of descent is no greater than 1,000 fpm.
If an expected rate of descent greater than 1,000 fpm is planned, a special approach briefing should be performed.
Power setting is appropriate for the landing configuration selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Flight crew emergency authority, interference with crewmembers, reporting requirements

A

In an emergency involving the safety of persons or property, the PIC may deviate from the procedures in this manual and FAR’S to the extent required to meet that emergency.

If involving engine loss, the PIC must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time at which a suitable landing can be made. (FAR 121.565).

The PIC shall send a complete report of the emergency to the director of operations (done by completing the Mesa Airlines Occurence Report) within 24 hours after the completion of the flight.

Any other required reporting to the FAA, NTSB, etc. will be done by MESA Airlines’ director of operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

TSA regulations and security

Carriage of accessible weapons

A

No crewmember or other employee of the cert holder is authorized to carry weapons aboard Mesa Airlines Aircraft.

The following persons may be carried aboard Mesa Airlines with weapons in their possessions:
A. A federal law enforcement officer (LEO)
B. a full time municipal county or state law enforcement office who is direct employee of the government agency.

With the exemption of FAMs on duty status, LEO’s must meet all of the following requirements.
A. Be sworn and commissioned to enforce criminal statutes or immigration statutes
B. be authorized by the employing agency to have the weapon in connection with assigned duties
C. Completion of the “Law enforcement officers flying armed”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(TSA) regulations and security

Carriage of accessible weapons

A

An authorization form must be provided to Mesa Airlines. For qualified individuals to carry weapons on board. Forms must be presented to PIC prior To flight.

Prior to aircraft doer closure, the CSR shall notify the PIC and the flight attendant of the presence and seat location of all armed individuals that are on the flight.

The flight attendant must ensure that any other armed LEO is notified of the location of each armed LEO or FAM onboard.

No weapon will be carried in the flight deck

No individual May place a weapon in an overhead bin

Weapon must be kept on their person if LEO is in uniform.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(TSA) Regulations and security

Transport of prisoners and deportees

A

Low risk prisoners may be transported when accompanied by an armed LEO who meets Carriage of Accessible Weapons, company, and codeshare acceptance programs.

It is the responsibility of ground operations personnel for verifying that the armed LEO and prisoner meet all acceptance requirements upon check-in.

The GSC or ground operations agent will provide the completed armed LEO paperwork to the PIC.

A high risk prisoner is an exceptional escape risk, as determined by the law enforcement agency, and charged with or convicted of a violent crime
No more than one high risk prisoner may be transported during flight.

Mesa will not accept any escorted persons who are violent, physically resist escorts, who express to Mesa Airlines personnel objection or are deemed dangerous for transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(TSA) Regulations and security

Transport of prisoners and deportees
Continued

A

Minimum LEOs Required:
Minimum of one armed LEO must control a low risk prisoner on a flight that is scheduled for four hours or less.

A minimum of two armed LEO’s must control a low risk prisoner on a flight that is scheduled for more than four hours.

One armed LEO may control no more than two low risk prisoners.
Two armed LEO’s may control no more than two low risk prisoners

High risk prisoners must be accompanied by two law enforcement officers. An armed LEO escorting a prisoner must provide advance of travel.

No more than one high risk prisoner may be transported during flight.

Prisoner and LEO’s should be pre boarded and seated in the most aft pax seats. LEO seated between the prisoner and the aisle.

The escorted LEO’s and the person in custody shall remain seated. Until all deplaning pax have left the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dispatcher responsibility and authority

In accordance with FAR 121.533

A

Co-responsibility with the captain to dispatch and operate any flight in accordance with applicable regulations

Responsibility to delay or cancel any flight which, in the flight dispatchers judgement should be delayed or canceled.

Responsibility to reroute or redirect a flight based upon purely economic considerations. This may include, but is not limited to, instructions pertaining to special Routings, pax convenience, aircraft and crew utilization. In these cases captain’s will comply with all instructions and request of the flight dispatcher which are compatible with safety.

Responsibility to initiate a charge in release when, in the flight dispatcher’s opinion, such a change is in the interest of safety or an improved operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Aircraft dispatcher information to the PIC

A

The dispatcher shall provide the PIC all available current reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect.

Before beginning a flight, the aircraft dispatcher shall provide the pilot in command with all available weather reports and forecast of weather phenomena that may affect the safety of the flight, including adverse weather conditions, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude Windshear, for each route to be flown and each airport to be used.

During a flight, the aircraft dispatcher Shall provide the pilot in command any additional information of the meteorological. Conditions (including adverse weather phenomena, such as CAT, THUNDERSTORMS, and low altitude Windshear). And irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Company communications

Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that a two way communication system is available at points that will ensure reliable and rapid communications, under normal operating conditions over the entire route between each airplane and the appropriate dispatch office, and between each airplane and the appropriate ATC unit.

A

Mesa Airlines complies with this regulation through the use of:

Station operations
Radios
SELCAL
ACARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The Dispatch release will contain at least

A
Aircraft identification number 
Flight number
Departure, intermediate, destination, alternate
Type of operation (IFR/VFR)
Minimum fuel supply
MEL/CDL/NEF items

Attached to the release must be a copy of the current weather and forecast information pertinent for the flight.

Copies of all dispatch releases, flight plans and related weather reports will be retained by System Control for at least 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Flight following procedures

A

Once a flight has been released, the dispatcher is responsible for monitoring the progress of that flight.

No aircraft will be released unless it is in airworthy condition

An aircraft may be released with inoperative or missing components in accordance with the MEL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dispatch procedures

Change in Flight Plan

A

The PIC is expected to follow the flight plan as provided by the dispatcher.

Deviations required by ATC or weather avoidance do not require prior approval if the aircraft has sufficient fuel to complete the flight safely.

The PIC will contact dispatch as soon as practical with details of any delay exceeding 15 mins.

In cases of emergency, the PIC will advise the dispatcher as soon as practical of any deviation from proposed route of flight or destination airport.

39
Q

Dispatch Procedures

Amendments to Dispatch Release

A

The PIC must contact the dispatcher to obtain an amended release if changes are necessary.

A new printed release is not Always required.

A pen and ink change may be done in many cases
The PIC will make the changwon release, indicate the Zulu time the change was made and the initials of the dispatcher.
The dispatcher will make indicate the changes on the release in Sabre, with the Zulu time the change was made and indicate the reason for the change.

40
Q

Dispatcher Procedures

Revalidation of a dispatch release

A

The dispatcher will issue a new release or revalidate a previously issued release:

Before a a flight departs an originating station after a delay of more than two hours.

When a flight returns to the airport from which it last departed

41
Q

Dispatch procedures

Fuel planning

A

The dispatcher will determine a fuel load with enough fuel to:

Fly to the airport to which the flight is dispatched.

Thereafter, fly to the most distant alternate airport (if required)

Thereafter, fly for 45 mins at normal cruise fuel consumption.

42
Q

Special Area & Airports (SARA)

No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command to or from an airport determined to require special airport qualification unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months.

A

The PIC or SIC has made an entry to that airport (including t/o and landing) while serving as a pilot flight crewmember; or

The PIC has qualified by using pictorial means acceptable to the administrator for that airport.

SARA PIC qualification does not apply when an entry to that airport (including a takeoff and landing) is being made if the ceiling at that airport is at least 1000 feet above the lowest MEA or MOCA, OR INITIAL APPROACH procedure for that airport and the visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

43
Q

Standard takeoff minimums

A

Standard conditions for takeoff under IFR part 121 flight rules (2 engines) are (1) sm visibility or 5000 feet RVR

If the actual weather conditions at the departure airport are below these minimums, the “lower than standard” takeoff criteria is set forth in Mesa Airlines specifications.

All t/o will performed by the captain when the visibility is less than 1sm or less than 5000RVR.

44
Q

Lower than Standard Takeoff Visibility

For operations below RVR 1600

A

A minimum of two operative RVR reporting system are required

All available RVR reports are controlling (except far end which is advisory only).

At least one of e following have to be available:
Operative high intensity runway lights
Operative runway centerline lights
Serviceable runway centerline marking

If none of the above are available:
Runway markings or lighting to continuously identify the takeoff surface.

45
Q

Lower than standard takeoff Visibility

TDZ RVR 1200, mid RVR 1200 (if installed), Rollout RVR 1000

A

Daylight hours:
Serviceable runway centerline markings (RCLM) or high intensity runway lights (HIRL) or centerline lights (CL)

Night time hours:
High intensity runway (HIRL) or operative runway centerline lights (RCL).

46
Q

Lower than standard Takeoff visibility

TDZ RVR 1000, Mid RVR 1000, Rollout RVR 1000

A

Operative runway centerline lights (RCL)

High intensity runway lights (HIRL) and runway centerline markings (RCLM).

47
Q

Lower than standard Takeoff Visibility

TDZ RVR 500, mid RVR 500 (if installed), Rollout RVR 500

A

High intensity runway light (HIRL)

Operative runway centerline lights (RCL)

48
Q

Landing minimums

TDZ RVR reports, when available for a particular runway, are controlling for all approaches to and landings on that runway

A

The mid RVR and rollout RVRreports (if available) provide advisory information to pilots

Visibility values below 1/2 statue mile are not authorized and shall not be used

The Mid RVR report may be substituted for the TDZ RVR report if the TDZ RVR is not available

49
Q

Landing minimums

High minimum Captains

A

Any Captain who has not served 100 hours as PIC (not including IOE) in type under Part 121operations is considered High minimums captain.

Takeoff: high minimums Captains can apply Lower than Standard Minimums for takeoff; however, the need for a takeoff alternate for the departure airport is predicated on HMC landing minimums

Landing: landing minimums for HMC may be determined by adding to the published approach procedure, 100 feet to the DH/MDA and by adding ONE STATUE MILE to the required minimum visibility.

Alternates landing minimums for HMC at alternate airports are not increased above those minimums applicable to the alternate airports, and lower than standard alternate rules may apply, but in no case may be less than a 300 FOOT CEILING AND ONE MILE VISIBILITY, regardless of the operation.

50
Q

Takeoff alternate

A

A Takeoff alternate is required if the reported visibility for the departure airport at the time of the departure is below the lowest suitable minimum for the runway(s) in use.

E takeoff alternate must be located not more than ONE HOUR FROM THE DEPARTURE AIRPORT AT NORMAL CRUISING SPEED IN STILL AIR WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE.

The takeoff alternate, if required, must be specified on the dispatch release.

Look at Mesa op spec to look for weather to see if it conforms to alternate weather minimums.

51
Q

Alternate requirements

A

An alternate is required if the forecast weather at the destination, 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA, indicates the ceiling will be less than 2,000 feet above the airport or the visibility will be less than 3 miles.

Dispatchers shall not list an alternate airport in the release.

52
Q

Alternate requirements

1 navaid 2 navaid rule

For airports with at least one operational naV facility providing a straight in non precision approach procedure or Cat I precision approach or when applicable , a circling maneuver from an IPA.

A

Add 400 ft to MDA or DH as applicable &

Add 1 statute mile visibility or 1600m to the landing minimum.

53
Q

Alternate requirements

1 navaid 2 navaid rule

For airports with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight in approach procedure to different suitable runways.

A

Add 200 feet to higher DA or MDA of the two approaches used &

Add 1/2 sm visibility or 800m to the higher authorized landing minimum of the two approaches used

54
Q

Exemption 3585

A

A part 121 flight may be dispatched to a destination airport and or alternate airport when the TAF for either one or both of those airports indicate by the use of conditional phrases in the remarks section that the weather could be below authorized weather minimums at the ETA

The main body of the forecast MUST indicate that the weather will at or above authorized weather minimums at the ETA.

55
Q

Basic empty weight

A

The weight of the airframe , engines and fixed operating equipment, both standard and optional, trapped and unusable fuel, full oil and full hydraulic fluid.

56
Q

Basic operating weight

A

The basic empty weight plus items that are always carried on the aircraft (crew, crew bags, galley supplies, etc.)

57
Q

Center of gravity

A

The point at which the aircraft would balance if suspended

58
Q

CG Limits

A

The EXTREME center of gravity locations within which the aircraft must be operated at a given weight

59
Q

Landing weight

A

The weight of the aircraft at landing touchdown

60
Q

Maximum weight

A

The largest weight allowed by design, structural, performance or other limitations

61
Q

Payload

A

The weight of the passengers,baggage, and cargo.

62
Q

Ramp weight

A

The aircraft weight at engine starting assuming all loading is complete.

63
Q

Takeoff weight

A

Maximum takeoff weight after all corrections are applied, may not exceed Bombardier’s max structural weight.

64
Q

Unusable Fuel

A

Trapped or residual fuel not available for pickup.

65
Q

Usable Fuel

A

Fuel on board that can actually be used by the engines.

66
Q

Useful load

A

The maximum weight of the aircraft mins the basic operating weight (BOW). This load consist of the fuel, passengers, baggage and cargo unless otherwise noted

67
Q

Zero Fuel Weight

A

The maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, cargo, etc.) less its fuel. All weights in excess of maximum zero fuel weight must consist of usable fuel.

68
Q

General Loading procedures

A

The FA will count and verify pax count and hand it to the pilots.

The ramp agent will hand the pilots the cargo load sheet.

The flight crew will enter the numbers into the ACARS system which will calculate the takeoff weight and C.G.

In the vent the ACARS is not available, the flight crew will complete a manual weight and balance form.

69
Q

Effects of Fuel Burn and Load Shifts in Flight

A

The CG of the aircraft travels as fuel is burned during flight.

For the CRJ, Bombardier provides a method to account for the center of gravity variation caused by fuel loading and usage and is part of the curtailment figured in the weight and balance program.

70
Q

Effect of Moving CG aft

A

Lower stall speed

Higher cruise speed

Increased range

Increased endurance

Decreased stability

71
Q

Effects of Increasing weight

A

The aircraft will need a higher takeoff speed, which results in a longer takeoff run.

Both the rate and angle of climb will be reduced.

The service ceiling will be lowered

The cruising speed will reduced

The cruising range will be shortened

Maneuverability will be decreased

A longer landing roll will be required because the landing speed will be higher.

72
Q

Temperature

A

Standard temperature at sea level 15 degrees Celsius

The higher the deviation at altitude the less performance available

The standard or average temperature lapse rate is 2 degrees Celsius per 1000 feet

If the surface temperature is 16 degrees Celsius, subtract 0 and divide by 2 degrees Celsius (16-0)/2=8

Freezing level is approximately 8,000 feet AGL, assuming the actual lapse rate is close to 2 degrees Celsius per 1,000 feet

73
Q

International standard temperature (ISA)

A

Atmospheric model of how the pressure, temperature, density and viscosity, of the earth’s atmosphere change over a wide range of altitudes

74
Q

Density altitude

A

Amount of air particles correspondent to temperature at a certain altitude.

75
Q

Atmospheric Moisture and Clouds

A

High clouds-have bases above 18,000 feet

Middle clouds- have bases between 7,000 and 18,000 feet

Low clouds- have bases below 7,000 feet

Fog- cloud in contact with the ground

Multi- level clouds vertically thick spanning multiple layers

Orographic clouds- distant clouds that form via interaction between wind and mountainous terrain features.

76
Q

Acclimated

A

A condition in which a flightcrew member has been in theater for 72 hours or has been given at least 36 hours free from duty.

77
Q

Deadhead transportation

A

A condition of a flight crew member as a pax or non-stop flight crew member; by any mode of transportation as required by the certificate holder, excluding transportation to or from a suitable accommodation . All time spent in deadheading is dug and is not rest.

78
Q

Fatigue risk management

A

Management system for a certificate holder used to mitigate the effects of fatigue in it’s particular operations. It is the data driven process and systematic method used to continuously monitor and manage safety risk associated with fatigued related error

79
Q

Fit for duty

A

Means physiologically and mentally prepared and capable of performing assigned duties at the highest degrees of safety.

80
Q

Home base

A

Location where flightcrew member begins and ends duty period.

81
Q

Line holder

A

Flightcrew member who has an assigned flight duty period and is not acting as reserve.

82
Q

Reserve availability period

A

Means a duty period at which a certificate holder requires a flight crew member on short call reserve to be available to receive an assignment period.

83
Q

Reserve flight crew member

A

A flightcrew member who a certificate holder requires to be available to receive an assignment.

84
Q

Scheduled

A

Means to appoint, assign, or designate for a fixed time.

85
Q

Short call reserve

A

Means a period of time in which a flightcrew member is assigned to a reserve availability period.

86
Q

Split duty

A

Means a flight duty period that has a scheduled break in duty that is less than a required rest period.

87
Q

117.23 cumulative limitations

A

(a) The limitations of this section include all flying by flightcrew members on behalf of any certificate holder or 91K Program Manager during the applicable periods.
(b) No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight time will exceed the following:
(1) 100 hours in any 672 consecutive hours or
(2) 1,000 hours in any 365 consecutive calendar day period.
(c) No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total Flight Duty Period will exceed:
(1) 60 flight duty period hours in any 168 consecutive hours or
(2) 190 flight duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

88
Q

Rest period

A

(a) No certificate holder may assign and no flightcrew member may accept assignment to any reserve or duty with the certificate holder during any required rest period.
(b) Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period a flightcrew member must be given at least 30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive hour period.
(c) If a flightcrew member operating in a new theater has received 36 consecutive hours of rest, that flightcrew member is acclimated and the rest period meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
(d) A flightcrew member must be given a minimum of 56 consecutive hours rest upon return to home base if the flightcrew member: (1) Travels more than 60° longitude during a flight duty period or a series of flight duty period, and (2) is away from home base for more than 168 consecutive hours during this travel. The 56 hours of rest specified in this section must encompass three physiological nights’ rest based on local time.
(e) No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is given a rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or flight duty period measured from the time the flightcrew member is released from duty. The 10 hour rest period must provide the flightcrew member with a minimum of 8 uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity.
(f) If a flightcrew member determines that a rest period under paragraph (e) of this section will not provide eight uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity, the flightcrew member must notify the certificate holder. The flightcrew member cannot report for the assigned flight duty period until he or she receives a rest period specified in paragraph (e) of this section.
(g) If a flightcrew member engaged in deadhead transportation exceeds the applicable flight duty period in Table B of this part, the flightcrew member must be given a rest period equal to the length of the deadhead transportation but not less than the required rest in paragraph (e) of this section before beginning a flight duty period.

89
Q

Flight duty rest period (FDP)

A

Flight duty period (FDP) means a period that begins when a flightcrew member is required to report for duty with the intention of conducting a flight, a series of flights, or positioning or ferrying flights, and ends when the aircraft is parked after the last flight and there is no intention for further aircraft movement by the same flightcrew member. A flight duty period includes the duties performed by the flightcrew member on behalf of the certificate holder that occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without a required intervening rest period. Examples of tasks that are part of the flight duty period include deadhead transportation, training conducted in an aircraft or flight simulator, and airport/standby reserve, if the above tasks occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without an intervening required rest period.

90
Q

Wakefulness equivalents

A

17 hours= BAC .05% (illegal to fly)

24 hours= BAC .10% (legally drunk)

91
Q

Circadium rhythm

A

Body’s natural rhythm tells a person when to be awake and sleep!!!!

92
Q

If crewmember is not available within 10 minutes of show time”

A

Call crew tracking.

93
Q

121.613 weather dispatching requirements

A

For flights less than one hour, use whatever is the lowest of either the METAR or the TAF. THE LOWEST MOST CONSERVATIVE WEATHER IS CONTROLLING.

94
Q

Mesa airlines complies with FAR 121.99 121.607 through the use of?

A

Station operations
Radios
SELCAL
ACARS