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MLS 420 > Basic Immunology > Flashcards

Basic Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: An opsonin coats an antigen to enhance phagocytosis.

A

True

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2
Q

True or False: A hapten is a molecule capable of stimulating an immune response on its own.

A

False

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3
Q

True or False: The Fab piece of an immunoglobulin contains all the variable region and a portion of the constant region of the heavy and light chains.

A

True

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4
Q

What cell marker is on a cytotoxic T cell, that helps identify this lymhocyte using flow cytometry?

a. BCR
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD24

A

c. CD8

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5
Q

What type of substance make sthe best immunogen?

a. Carbohydrate
b. Hapten
c. Lipid
d. DNA
e. Protein

A

e. Protein

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6
Q

The portion of the immunogen (antigen) that reacts with components of the immune system such as T cell receptors or antibodies is known as the:

a. epitope
b. fraction crystallizable
c. hapten
d. hypervariable region

A

a. epitope

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7
Q

Natural killer cells:

a. do not need MHC to be activated
b. are B cells that can kill without complement
c. are cytotoxic T cells that do not require activation
d. produce immunoglobulins to viruses

A

a. do not need MHC to be activated

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8
Q

The antigen-binding site is formed by the _____ regions on immunoglobulins.

a. hypervariable
b. constant

A

a. hypervariable

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9
Q

The antigen binding site is found in the ______ fraction of immunoglobulins (antibodies).

a. Fab
b. Fc

A

a. Fab

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10
Q

The portion of the antibody that interacts with cells of the immune system is the ______.

a. Fab
b. Fc

A

b. Fc

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11
Q

How is the classical pathway of complement activated?

a. C1 binding to two neighboring Fc pieces of immunoglobulins that is bound to foreign antigens.
b. Lectin binding to terminal mannose residuse found on a microorganism’s cell surface
c. C3b binding to a foreign antigen on the cell membrane
d. C4b attaching to the cell membrane or pathogen cell wall at. site near an antibody-antigen complex

A

a. C1 binding to two neighboring Fc pieces of immunoglobulins that is bound to foreign antigens

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12
Q

The functions of complement include:

a. cell lysis, opsonization, phagocytosis of foreign antigens and release histamine
b. cell lysis, opsonization, immune complex clearance and trigger specific cell functions
c. secrete immunoglobulins, stimulate hematopoiesis, phagocytosis of foreign antigens and release histamine
d. secrete immunoglobulins, stimulate hematopoiesis, and trigger specific cell functions

A

b. cell lysis, opsonization, immune complex clearance and trigger specific cell functions

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13
Q

Which one of the following is true regarding the alternative complement pathway?

a. It can be triggered by bacterial cell walls.
b. It requries the components of C1, C2, or C4.
c. It cannot be initiated unless C3b fragments are already present.
d. It does not include a membrane attack complex.

A

a. It can be triggered by bacterial cell walls.

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14
Q

Complement lyses cells by:

a. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
b. enhancing phagocytosis
c. insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane to form a pore
d. activating the production of antibodie

A

c. insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane to form a pore.

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15
Q

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II proteins present antigens to ______ cells while MHC class I proteins present antigens to ______ cells.

a. CD4+/CD8+
b. CD8+/CD4+
c. Endogenous/Exogenous
d. Exogenous/Endogenous

A

a. CD4+/CD8+

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16
Q

Which of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct?

a. Found on all nucleated cells
b. Recognition elements for helper T cells
c. Present exogenous antigens
d. Found on antigen presenting cells

A

a. Found on all nucleated cells

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17
Q

Which of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct?

a. Found on all nucleated cells
b. Recognition element for cytotoxic T cells
c. Used to present exogenous antigens
d. Consists of 3 alpha domains and 1 beta domain

A

c. Used to prevent exogenous antigens

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18
Q

Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?

a. Class I MHC antigens
b. Class II MHC antigens
c. CD4 antigens
d. Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns

A

c. CD4+

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19
Q

Class I MHC aids in presenting (endogenous/exogenous) antigens to (cytotoxic T/helper T) cells.

a. endogenous/cytotoxic T
b. exogenous/cytotoxic T
c. endogenous/helper T
d. exogenous/helper T

A

a. endogenous/cytotoxic T

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20
Q

Mature B cells display ______ and ______ on their cell surface creating the ______ receptor.

a. class I MHC and CD4/Toll like
b. class II MHC and CD8/antigen
c. Fab and Fc/Pattern recognition
d. IgM and IgD/B cell

A

d. IgM and IgD/B cell

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21
Q

The main role of the macrophage is to:

a. make antibody
b. lyse virus-infected target cells
c. activate cytotoxic B cells
d. process and present antigens

A

d. process and present antigens

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22
Q

The white blood cells (name of the effector cell) that produce immunoglobulins are:

A

plasma cells

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23
Q

Lymphocytic cells that mature in the thymus are called thymocytes until they mature after matureation they are known as:

A

T cells

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24
Q

The primary lymphoid tissues are:

A

Bone marrow and thymus

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25
Q

What are the components of complement that form the membrane attack complex?

A

C5b6789

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26
Q

List three factors that influence immunogenicity (not antigenicity) of an immunogen:

A

chemical composition

dose

route of entry

immunogen structure

immunogen size

degree of foreignness

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27
Q

Name a biological function associated with complement component C3b.

A

opsonization

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28
Q

A group of chemical mediators in the serum that INCREASE in concentration at the onset of inflammation, injury, or infection are collectively referred to as ______:

A

positive acute phase reactants

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29
Q

Explain how negative acute phase reactants differ from positive acute phase reactants?

A

negative APR decreases in serum concentration and positive APR increases in serum concentration

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30
Q

List two negative acute phase reactants

A

albumin

transferrin

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31
Q

Which APR neutralizes lysosomal enzymes?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

Serum Amyloid A

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32
Q

Which APR elevates within 4 hours?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

C-reactive protein

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33
Q

Which APR is a protease inhibitor?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin

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34
Q

Which APR binds free hemoglobin?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

Haptoglobin

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35
Q

Which APR transports copper in the plasma?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

Ceruloplasmin

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36
Q

Which APR causes cell lysis?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

Complement

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37
Q

Which APR transports iron?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

Transferrin

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38
Q

Which APR transports drugs, bilirubin, fatty acids?

  • serum amyloid a
  • haptoglobin
  • c-reactive protein
  • alpha-1 antitrypsin
  • albumin
  • ceruloplasmin
  • trasferrin
  • complement
A

Albumin

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39
Q

Which antibody can cross the placenta?

  • IgG
  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgM
A

IgG

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40
Q

Which antibody occurs as a dimer in secretions?

  • IgG
  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgM
A

IgA

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41
Q

Which antibody is the first an infant can form?

  • IgG
  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgM
A

IgM

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42
Q

Which antibody plays an important role in allergies?

  • IgG
  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgM
A

IgE

43
Q

Which antibody’s function is poorly understood?

  • IgG
  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgM
A

IgD

44
Q

Which cytokine sitmulates production of interferon gamma?

  • Interleukin 12
  • Interleukin 1
  • Chemokines
  • Interferon gamma
  • Tumor necrosis factor alpha
A

Interleukin 12

45
Q

Which cytokine attracts cells to the area of inflammation?

  • Interleukin 12
  • Interleukin 1
  • Chemokines
  • Interferon gamma
  • Tumor necrosis factor alpha
A

Chemokines

46
Q

Which cytokine helps fight gram-negative infections?

  • Interleukin 12
  • Interleukin 1
  • Chemokines
  • Interferon gamma
  • Tumor necrosis factor alpha
A

Tumor necrosis factor alpha

47
Q

Which cytokine is an inflammatory molecule produced by macrophages?

  • Interleukin 12
  • Interleukin 1
  • Chemokines
  • Interferon gamma
  • Tumor necrosis factor alpha
A

Interleukin 1

48
Q

Which cytokine stimulates production of MHC I and II?

  • Interleukin 12
  • Interleukin 1
  • Chemokines
  • Interferon gamma
  • Tumor necrosis factor alpha
A

Interferon gamma

49
Q

Compare innate and acquired immunity (e.g., how they differ). Think about lag time, cells involved, response to an antigen, subsequent exposures to an antigen, etc.

A

Innate immunity: present at birth, has rapid, non-specific response.. responds the same way to every antigen.. cells: neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, mast cells, dendritic cells, monocytes, macrophages; help activate the adaptive system

Adaptive immunity: develops only after exposure to specific antigen and takes longer to develop.. forms memory cells that allow for a quicker response to multiple exposure to same antigen.. cells: lymphocytes

50
Q

Explain how passive immunity differs from active immunity.

A

Passive immunity: immunity is passed from one person or animal from another.. No immunologic memory formed.. only provides short term protection

Active immunity: the result of exposure to infectious agent.. antibodies produced by host in response to infectious agent or in response to immunization with some product derived from infectious agent.. immunologic memory formed, provided long term protection

51
Q

Give one example of passive immunity.

A

Immunoglobulin shot (Hepatitis B gamma globulin shot)

Immunoglobulin from mom in breast milk

IgG acquired via placental transfer

52
Q

The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that

a. it can be administered orally.
b. it provides protection quickly.
c. antibody persists for a longer period.
d. it contains primarily IgM.

A

b. it provides protection quickly.

53
Q

During acute inflammation ____ respond to area within approximately 30 minutes, while ____ takes several hours to respond.

a. B cells/T cells
b. T cells/B cells
c. Monocytes/Neutrophils
d. Neutrophils/Monocytes

A

d. Neutrophils/Monocytes

54
Q

Chemical mediators that attracts cells to the area of acute inflammation are known as:

a. bradykinin
b. chemokines
c. IL-1
d. TNF-γ

A

b. chemokines

55
Q

The process by which white blood cells leave the blood stream and enter the tissues during acute inflammation is called:

a. chemotaxis
b. extravasation
c. exocytosis
d. phagocytosis

A

b. extravasation

56
Q

Discuss what causes the swelling seen in acute inflammation.

A

Release of histamine by mast cells causes vasodilation, allowing for the influx of fluid into the interstitial spaces causing the swelling associated with acute inflammation.

57
Q

In the acute inflammatory response ____ is a kinin molecule that cause pain.

A

bradykinin

58
Q

True or False: In the acute inflammatory response, histamine and kinins cause vasoconstriction.

A

False

59
Q

The primary cells involved in chronic inflammation include:

a. lymphocytes and macrophages
b. plasma cells and natural killer cells
c. neutrophils and macrophages
d. cytotoxic T cells and thymocytes

A

a. lymphocytes and macrophages

60
Q

Explain the difference between acute and chronic inflammation. Include the differences in the cells and chemical mediators from both types of inflammation (i.e., what cells are different in chronic vs. acute).

A

Acute: cells: neutrophils.. chemical mediators: histamine, kinis, complement, IFN-γ, GM-CSF, fibrinogen, fibrinolytic factors, CRP.. SPEP: increased beta region

Chronic: cells: lymphocytes.. chemical mediators: IL-6.. SPEP: largely increased gamma region

61
Q

List the seven steps of phagocytosis in the correct order:

A
  1. contact and adherence
  2. engulfment
  3. phagosome formation
  4. lysosome contact
  5. phagolysosome formation
  6. digestion
  7. exocytosis
62
Q

During the oxygen dependent phagocytosis process NADPH oxidase reduces ____ to form ____ which is toxic to pathogens.

a. defensins/proteases
b. proteases/defensins
c. oxygen/superoxide
d. superoxide/oxygen

A

c. oxygen/superoxide

63
Q

During phagocytosis the digested contents are eliminated from the phagocyte by:

a. endocytosis
b. exocytosis
c. opsonization
d. oxidation

A

b. exocytosis

64
Q

In phagocytosis, oxygen independent destruction involves:

a. the formation of superoxide anion
b. lysosome enzymes
c. creation of hydrogen peroxide
d. release of C3b

A

b. lysosome enzymes

65
Q

What are the major cellular components of the innate immune system?

A

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, mast cells, dendritic cells, monocytes, macrophages

66
Q

True or False: Innate immunity is nonspecific immunity.

A

True

67
Q

True or False: The innate and adaptive immune responses largely work independently of one another.

A

False

68
Q

The patterns that the cells of the innate immune system recognize on microorganisms as foreign are ____.

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

69
Q

Which of these characteristcs describe the adaptive immune system?

a. Response is immediate upon first exposure to pathogens
b. Responds more quickly upon secondary exposure to pathogens
c. Does not create memory cells
d. Reacts nonspecifically through pattern recognition receptors

A

b. Responds more quickly upon secondary exposure to pathogens

70
Q

What event initiates an adaptive immune response?

a. Interaction of a plasma cell with a helper T cell
b. Expression of the cytokines CD4 and CD8
c. Production of Class I and Class II MHC molecules
d. Interaction of a naïve T cell with an antigen-presenting cell

A

d. Interaction of a naïve T cell with an antigen-presenting cell

71
Q

What type of immunity is described as: only forms after exposure to a foreign antigen, is specific, and has two forms?

a. Innate
b. Acquired
c. Passive
d. Natural

A

b. Aquired

72
Q

The adaptive immune response differs from the innate immune response in that the adaptive response:

a. involves phagocytic cells and occurs in the skin
b. has memory and is specific
c. is nonspecific and only occurs in the lymph nodes
d. is acitvated by pathogen recognition patterns and lack memory

A

b. has memory and is specific

73
Q

Which of the following cells that participate in cell-mediated immunity are antigen specific and directly kill target cells?

a. Cytotoxic T cells
b. Macrophages
c. Natural Killer Cells
d. Th1 Helper Cells

A

a. Cytotoxic T cells

74
Q

True or False: Immune defense by cytotoxic T cells is called humoral mediated immunity.

A

False

75
Q

Perforin and granzymes are used by which type of immune cell to kill intracellularly infected cells?

a. B cells
b. CD4+ T cells
c. CD8+ T cells
d. Macrophages

A

c. CD8+ T cells

76
Q

A cell that can recall previous contact with a particular antigen so that subsequent exposure leads to a more rapid and more effective immune response than the first encounter is which type of cell?

a. Plasma cell
b. Memory cell
c. Stem cell
d. Granulocyte

A

b. Memory cell

77
Q

For pathogens (antigens) to be recognized as foreign by T cells, antigen-presenting cells must display the antigen to a T cell in conjunction with a/an:

a. B cell cluster of differentiation marker
b. IgM molecule and complement
c. major histocompatibility molecule
d. pattern recognition receptor

A

c. major histocompatibility molecule

78
Q

The role of cell-mediated immunity is to:

a. find cells infectd with extracellular pathogens
b. eliminate cells with intracellulary pathogens
c. present antigens to helper T cells
d. produce immunoglobulins

A

b. eliminate cells with intracellular pathogens

79
Q

A ____ T cell is a lymphocyte that attaches to a virally infected cell and releases chemicals to form a pore in the cell leading to apoptosis.

a. helper
b. cytotoxic
c. regulatory
d. CD4+

A

b. cytotoxic

80
Q

The helper T cell and the cytotoxic T cell can be differentiated based on the presence of which cluster of differentiation marker on helper T cells?

a. CD2
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD19

A

b. CD4

81
Q

In a primary humoral immune response the first antibody produced is ____.

A

IgM

82
Q

The difference in the time it takes for antibodies to rise between a primary and secondary immune response is the result of the presence of what type of cell?

a. Macrophages in the secondary response
b. Memory cells in the secondary response
c. Suppressor cells in the primary response
d. T cells in the primary response

A

b. Memory cells in the secondary response

83
Q

The immunoglobulin isotype produced later in the course of a primary humoral immune response contains which of the following heavy chains?

a. Gamma
b. Kappa
c. Lambda
d. Mu

A

a. Gamma

84
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in a normal immune response?

a. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation
b. APCs migrate to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation
c. Antigen presentation > APCs migrate to lymph nodes > antigen uptake < antigen processing
d. Antigen processing > APCs migrate to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen presentation

A

a. Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation

85
Q

The portion of an antigen to which an antibody binds is the ____.

a. adjuvant
b. epitope
c. hapten
d. immunogen

A

b. epitope

86
Q

The ____ is a primary lymphoid organ and is where B cell ____ occurs.

a. bone marrow, maturation
b. bone marrow, activation
c. thymus, maturation
d. thymus, activation

A

a. bone marrow, maturation

87
Q

A lipid is not as effective of an antigen because they:

a. are >100,000 daltons
b. display conformational epitopes
c. have complex structures
d. have a simple structure

A

d. have a simple structure

88
Q

The heavy chain determines the class of antibody; the classes are:

a. alpha, delta, epsilon, gamma, mu
b. alpha, beta, delta, eta, gamma, mu
c. lambda and kappa
d. lambda, kappa, mu, nu

A

a. alpha, delta, epsilon, gamma, mu

89
Q

The opsonization of microbes is a result of:

a. antigen-antibody complex formation
b. white blood cells secreting complement
c. phagocytosis of antihuman immunoglobulins
d. formation of superoxide ions

A

b. white blood cells secreting complement

90
Q

The first antibody that a newborn can form is:

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

A

e. IgM

91
Q
  • In vivo* antigen-antibody reactions in which complement activation was complete result in the:
    a. agglutination of cells
    b. lysis of cells
    c. binding of lectin proteins
    d. release of tumor necrosis factor
A

b. lysis of cells

92
Q

The activation of the alternative pathway of the complement cascade can occur through:

a. IgG or IgM binding to bacterial antigens
b. C3b binding to bacterial cell wall
c. properdin binding to mannose
d. C1 binding to the Fc portion of an antibody

A

b. C3b binding to bacterial antigens

93
Q

True or False: A function of interleukin-1 (IL-1) is to inhibit to production of interferon gamma (IFN-γ).

A

False

94
Q

True or False: Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class I molecules are found on all nucleated cells.

A

True

95
Q

True or False: The humoral immune response clears an infection by neutralization, opsonization, complement fixation, and antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity.

A

False

96
Q

True or False: The edema seen in inflammation is caused by the release of histamine and other vasodilators from damaged mast cells.

A

True

97
Q

The main antibody seen in the primary humoral response is ____ and the primary antibody in the secondary humoral response is ____.

a. IgA; IgG
b. IgG; IgA
c. IgG; IgM
d. IgM; IgG

A

d. IgM; IgG

98
Q

An individual receiving antibodies from another person who is immune is an example of ____ immunity.

a. active
b. cell mediated
c. innate
d. passive

A

d. passive

99
Q

Pattern recognition receptors recognize ____ to activate white blood cells that are part of the innate immune system.

a. antigen-antibody complexes
b. B-cell membrane bound IgM
c. pathogen-associated molecular patterns
d. toll-like patterns

A

c. pathogen-associated molecular patterns

100
Q

Phagocytes kill pathogens through the:

a. chemokines
b. interleukins
c. expulsion
d. respiratory oxidative burst

A

d. respiratory oxidative burst

101
Q

Phagocytes play a role in the immune response through ____ and ____.

a. apoptosis; passive immunity
b. antibody production; complement activation
c. ingestion of foreign material; clearing of dead tissue
d. regulation of cytokines; avidity maturation

A

c. ingestion of foreign material; clearing of dead tissue

102
Q

What are the hallmark characteristics of acute inflammation?

a. Heat, pain, redness, swelling
b. Heat, pus, redness, swelling
c. Dry mouth, pus, redness, swelling
d. Dry mouth, heat, pus, redness

A

a. Heat, pain, redness, swelling

103
Q

An immune response that primarily involves neutrophils, vasoactive amines and lasts up to a few days is:

a. acute inflammation
b. chronic inflammation
c. memory cell activation
d. lymphocytosis

A

a. acute inflammation

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