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Comprehensive exam Spring 21 (retake) > Basic exam 3 > Flashcards

Basic exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What medication can you give to someone to prevent anesthesia awareness?

A

Benzodiazepine

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2
Q

What can cause the oculocardiac reflex?

A

Pressure on the globe

pressure on extraocular muscles

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3
Q

Preop patient is anxious what dose of diazepam would you give them?

A

2-5mg of diazepam PO

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4
Q

Type One OR fire is located?

A

In and on the patient

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5
Q

What does BIS monitor assess?

A

Monitors anesthetic depth

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6
Q

What is implicit memory?

A

Patient can follow commands but has no memory

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7
Q

Regional Ophthalmic anesthesia(Potential risk factors with various types of anesthesia?

A

Seizure is a risk

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8
Q

What medication has alpha, minimal beta- used for phentolamine reversal?

A

Phenylephrine

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9
Q

Risks associated with strabismus surgery?

A

MH
PONV
OCR

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10
Q

Laryngospasm mediated from?

A

Superior laryngeal nerve branch of the Vagal Nerve

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11
Q

OCR is afferent and efferent, tell me two details about that (which one is Afferent/efferent, and which is one is to the CNS and from the CNS)

A

Afferent trigeminal, efferent vagal

Afferent is to CNS; Efferent is from CNS

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12
Q

Epiglottitis most likely caused by which pathogen?

A

Acute haemophilus influenzae type B

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13
Q

Tell me what you will and will not do with a kid who comes in with Epiglottitis?

A

Do NOT attempt to directly visualize the glottis unless you are in the OR with a surgeon ready and proficient with surgical airways and intubation/airway experience.

Do not administer anesthesia until the correct equipment and people are ready and there.

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14
Q

02 levels should be what percent to avoid OR fire?

A

less than 30%

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15
Q

High CO2, Increased inspiratory pressure, decreased O2 may indicate?

A

ETT dislodgement

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16
Q

Concentration of O2 that causes OR fire in 0.1 sec in cotton huck towel?

A

95%

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17
Q

A patient that would benefit from prolonged post op monitoring after TNA?

A

< 4 years of age

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18
Q

What patient would NOT be a candidate for a stand alone clinic?

A

Insulin dependent diabetic

also that combined with or stand alone CHF or TIA recently patient

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19
Q

Why is Remifentanil helpful in ear surgeries?

A

reduces middle ear blood flow, creating a dry surgical field for tympanoplasty

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20
Q

What induction medication may reduce PONV?

A

Propofol

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21
Q

What ventilation technique can cause IOP?

A

bag/face masking

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22
Q

Most common cause of post op eye pain?

A

Corneal abrasions

23
Q

True or false:

Afferent carries stimulus from the CNS?

A

False, Afferent carries stimulus to the CNS

24
Q

How do you identify an ester from an Amide?

A

one “i” esters

25
Q

Normal IOP is?

A

10-22 mmHg

26
Q

Oculocardiac reflex can be abated by what?

A

Parasympatholytic (atropine/glycopyrrolate)

27
Q

What combination of anesthetic techniques could improve patient satisfaction?

A

combined regional and GA

28
Q

An Adult with URI is scheduled for surgery. How long would you delay the surgery?

A

6 weeks

29
Q

A child has an URI: How long would you delay?

A

2 weeks

30
Q

What medication should be stopped 10 hours before surgery?

A

ACE inhibitors

31
Q

Obese patient supine for surgery, becomes hypoxic, why physiologically did this happen?

A

decreased FRC

32
Q

What is true regarding stopping metformin prior to surgery?

A

Should be Dc’d 48 hours prior to surgery, and it is controversial

33
Q

Regarding HbA1C, erythrocytes have a life span of?

A

120 days

34
Q

Lidocaine 0.75% is equal to what in mg?

A

7.5mg

35
Q

What should you do regarding an OR fire in the airway?

A

Simultaneously stop gases, remove ETT, disconnect circuit.

36
Q

Type 1 OR fires consists of? (2)

A

Can include drapes and surgical towels

Usually in or on patient

37
Q

What is true regarding 02 rich atmospheres in the OR (2)

A

Decreases temperature at which a fuel will ignite

Fire will burn more vigorously

38
Q

What can you allow to happen in order to decrease fires in the OR?

A

Make sure the prep dries completely before placing drape

39
Q

What anesthetic gas would you consider NOT using in a patient that experiences post op NV?

A

N2O

40
Q

What patient would you consider using triple medication therapy on? (anti-PONV)

A

A patient with a past experience of PONV that usually requires pain medications 3-7 days post op

41
Q

What will sevoflurane combine with to form an exothermic reaction in the OR (choose 2)

A

Soda lime

baralyme

42
Q

Bovie would be called what in the triad of fire?

A

Ignition

43
Q

If a patient drank water how long will you have to delay the surgery?

A

2 hours

44
Q

Patient that had steak dinner one hour ago, how long to keep NPO?

A

7 hours (total of 8 hours after a full meal or fatty foods)

45
Q

What medication would you avoid to prevent IOP?

A

Succinylcholine

46
Q

A patient should DC metformin 48 hours preoperatively to decrease what incidence?

A

Fatal lactic acidosis

47
Q

What type of response can spinal anesthesia cause?

A

Parasympathetic response

48
Q

Spinal anesthesia can cause what to happen to the blood pressure?

A

Hypotension

49
Q

Tell me what Implicit and Explicit memory means?

A

Implicit: unconscious memory

Explicit: conscious

50
Q

What type of anesthesia has a decreased risk of PONV?

A

Regional

51
Q

A patient showing signs of lactic acidosis without signs of hypoperfusion or hypoxia. What would you do? (Lactic acidosis r/t Metformin)

A

Give fluids

52
Q

3 major causes of Intraoperative awareness of anesthesia?

A

light anesthesia

increased patient anesthetic requirement

anesthetic delivery problems

53
Q

High level transverse fracture above the malar bone and through the orbits describes which Lefort?

A

Lefort III

Comprehensive exam Spring 21 (retake) (5 decks)

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