BARRONS Flashcards

1
Q

social cognition

A

how people think about themselves and the social world; more specifically, how people select, interpret, remember, and use social information to make judgments and decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

attitude

A

set of beliefs and feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mere exposure effect

A

the more one is exposed to something, the more one will come to like it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LaPiere study

A

discovered that although people had bad attitudes towards Asians, they still treated them well

conclusion: attitude does not necessarily reflect behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cognitive dissonance theory

A

the theory that we act to reduce the discomfort (dissonance) we feel when two of our thoughts (cognitions) are inconsistent. For example, when our awareness of our attitudes and of our actions clash, we can reduce the resulting dissonance by changing our attitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Festinger and Carlsmith experiment

A

Subjects asked to perform a boring task and then lie to the next subject that it was fun. One group was paid $1 and the other group was paid $20. The group paid $1 said that the boring task was fun, because they didn’t have much of an external motivation to lie.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

compliance strategies

A

strategies to get others to comply with your wishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

foot-in-the-door

A

if you can get people to agree to a small request, they will become more likely to agree to a follow-up request that is larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

door-in-the-face

A

after people refuse a large reques, hey will look more favorably upon a follow-up request that seems, in comparison, much more reasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

norms of reciprocity

A

if someone does something nice for you, you feel obligated to do something nice for them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

attribution theory

A

how people determine the cause of what they observe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dispositional/person attribution

A

personality traits; Charley did well on a math test because he is good at math

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

situation attribution

A

situational influence; Charley did well on a math test because the test was easy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Harold Kelley

A

put forth a theory that explains the kind of attributions people make based on three kinds of information: consistency, distinctiveness, and consensus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

consistency

A

how similarly the individual acts in the same situation over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

distinctiveness

A

how similar this situation is to other situations in which we have watched the individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

consensus

A

how other people acted in the same situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

self-fulfilling prophecy

A

an expectation that causes others to act in ways that make that expectation come true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rosenthal and Jacobsen’s experiment

A

“Pygmalion in the Classroom”

when teachers expect students to do well and show intellectual growth, they do, example of self-fulling prophecy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

people in individualist cultures systematically seem to overestimate the role of dispositional factors in influencing another person’s actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

false-consensus effect

A

the tendency of people to overestimate the number of people who agree with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

self-serving bias

A

the tendency to take more credit for good outcomes than for bad ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

just-world belief

A

misfortunes befall people who deserve them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

stereotypes

A

ideas about what members of different groups are like, and these expectations may influence the way we interact with members of these groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

prejudice

A

an undeserved, usually negative, attitude toward a group of people

compare: discrimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

discrimination

A

unfair treatment of a person or group on the basis of prejudice

compare: prejudice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

in-group

A

people of their own group, seen as more diverse than people of out-groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

out-group

A

people of other groups, seen as more homogeneous than people of in-groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

in-group bias

A

people have a preference for members of their own group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

contact theory

A

contact between hostile groups will reduce animosity, but only if the groups are made to work toward a goal that benefits all and necessitates the participation of all (superordinate goal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

superordinate goal

A

a goal that benefits all and necessitates the participation of all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sherif’s camp study

A

Robbers Cave study

divided the campers into two groups and had them compete –> disliked each other

had the two groups work together –> improved relations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

instrumental aggression

A

aggression as a means to some goal other than causing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

hostile aggression

A

aggression stemming from feelings of anger and aimed at inflicting pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

frustration-aggression hypothesis

A

the feeling of frestration makes aggression more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Bandura, Ross, and Ross’s experiment

A

Bobo doll experiment

aggressive models lead to aggressive children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

prosocial behavior

A

behavior in which you help others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

bystander intervention

A

the act of helping strangers in an emergency situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

diffusion of responsibility

A

reduction in sense of responsibility often felt by individuals in a group; may be responsible for the bystander effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pluralistic ignorance

A

“no one believes, but everyone thinks that everyone believes”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

similarity, proximity and reciprocal liking

A

the three factors of physical attractiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

trephination

A

a operation that removes a circular section of bone from the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hippocrates

A

a Greek philosopher who maintained that psychological illnesses were influenced by biological factors and could therefore be treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Galen

A

a Roman philosopher who maintained that psychological illnesses were influenced by biological factors and could therefore be treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

deinstitutionalization

A

1960s and 1970s governmental policy that focused on releasing hospitalized psychiatric patients into the community and closing mental hospitals in order to save money and benefit the former inpatients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Did deinstitutionalization work?

A

No, because the former patients were unable to care for themselves, ending up homeless and delusional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

preventative efforts

A

psychological problems can be treated proactively, or before they become severe, suffering and cost to client will go down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

primary prevention

A

methods to avoid occurrence of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

secondary prevention

A

methods to avoid occurrence of disease in people at risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

tertiary prevention

A

methods to diagnose and treat existent disease in early stages before it causes significant morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

psychotherapy

A

therapeutic interaction or treatment contracted between a trained professional and a client, patient, family, couple, or group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

somatic treatments

A

the use of drugs to treat mental illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What kind of psychologists use “patient”?

A

psychologists with a biomedical orientation and psychoanalysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What kind of psychologists use “client”?

A

therapists other than psychologists with a biomedical orientation and psychoanalysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

psychoanalysis

A

a set of techniques developed by Freud for exploring underlying motives and a method of treating various mental disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

symptom substitution

A

when, after a person is successfully treated for one psychological disorder, that person begins to experience a new psychological problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

hypnosis

A

an altered state of consciousness in which psychoanalysts believe that people are less likely to repress troubling thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

free associate

A

to say whatever comes to mind without thinking, supposed to bypass the ego’s censoring and defenses and go straight into the unconscious where the problems are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

dream analysis

A

the patient reports the literal content (manifest content) to the psychoanalyst who interprets it to become what it really means (latent/hidden content)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

resistance

A

patient objections to the psychoanalyst’s interpretation

the psychoanalyst usually sees this as a sign that the analyst is heading in the right direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

transference

A

when patients begin to have strong feelings (negative or positive) toward their therapists

the psychoanalyst sees this as a redirection of strong emotions felt toward people with whom they have had troubling relationships onto their therapists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

psychodynamic theorists

A

psychologists who are influenced by Freud’s work but have significantly modified his original theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

insight therapies

A

psychoanalytic/psychodynamic treatments and humanistic therapies

a variety of therapies which aim to improve psychological functioning by increasing the client’s awareness of underlying motives and defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

self-actualization

A

to reach one’s highest potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

free will

A

the ability to choose their own destinies

compare: determinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

determinism

A

people have no influence over what happens to them and that their choices are predetermined by forces outside of their control

compare: free will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Carl Rogers

A

humanist

created client-centered therapy/person-centered therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

client-centered therapy/person-centered therapy

A

developed by Carl Rogers, this humanistic therapy includes unconditional positive regard and active listening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

unconditional positive regard

A

blanket acceptance and support of a person regardless of what the person says or does

humanistic therapists believe that this will help clients accept and take responsibility for themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

non-directive

A

humanistic therapists do not tell the clients what to do but seek to help the clients choose a course of action for themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

active listening

A

empathetic listening in which the listener echoes, restates, and clarifies

part of Carl Rogers’ client-centered therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Gestalt therapy

A

developed by Fritz Perls

an existentialist approach to psychological treatment with the goal of helping the client become aware of his or her thoughts, behaviors, experiences, and feelings and to “own” or take responsibility for them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

existential therapy

A

humanistic therapy that focuses on helping clients achieve a subjectively meaningful perception of their lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

counterconditioning

A

behavioral therapy

a kind of classical conditioning developed by Mary Cover Jones in which an unpleasant conditioned response is replaced with a pleasant one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

systematic desensitization

A

behavioral therapy

developed by Joseph Wolpe, a type of counterconditioning that associates a pleasant relaxed state with imagined, gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli, eventually replacing the feelings of anxiety with relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

anxiety hierarchy

A

a rank-ordered list of what the client fears, from least frightening to most frightening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

in vivo desensitization

A

behavioral therapy

a form of systematic desensitization in which the stimulus is actually encountered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

implosive therapy

A

behavioral therapy

a type of counterconditioning that has the client imagine the most anxiety inducing thing first, in the hopes that they will realize that their fear is irrational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

aversive conditioning

A

behavioral therapy

pairing a habit a person wishes to break with an unpleasant stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

instrumental conditioning

A

behavioral therapy

involves using rewards and/or punishments to modify a person’s behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

token economy

A

behavioral therapy

a type of instrumental conditioning

desired behaviors are identified and rewarded with tokens that can later be exchanged for various objects or privileges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

modeling (therapy)

A

behavioral therapy

can be used to treat phobia by having the client observe someone else interact calmly with the anxiety inducing object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

attributional style

A

a person’s characteristic way of explaining outcomes of events in his or her life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT or RET)

A

Cognitive behavioral therapy developed by Albert Ellis. Therapists look to expose and confront the dysfunctional thoughts of their clients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

cognitive therapy

A

developed by Aaron Beck, usually used in treatment of depression, involves trying to get clients to engage in pursuits that will bring them success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

cognitive triad

A

theorized by Aaron Beck

people’s beliefs about themselves, their worlds, and their futures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

family therapy

A

a type of group therapy used to treat families

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

self-help groups

A

a type of group therapy that does not involve a therapist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

psychopharmacology/chemotherapy

A

the use of drugs to treat psychological problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

antipsychotic drugs (neuroleptics)

A

block the receptor sites for dopamine, used to treat schizophrenia, may result in tardive dyskinesia

examples: Thorazine or Haldol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

Parkinsonian-like, chronic muscle tremors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

lithium

A

a metal used to treat the manic phase of bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

drugs used to treat anxiety disorders

A

barbiturates (Miltown) and benzodiazepines (Xanax and Valium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A

when an electric current is passed through one (unilateral ECT) or both (bilateral ECT) hemispheres of the brain

Used to treat major depression and bipolar that is not responsive to other treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

psychosurgery

A

the purposeful destruction of part of the brain to alter a person’s behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

prefrontal lobotomy

A

a type of psychosurgery

an operation involving the cutting off of the main neurons leading to the frontal lobe of the brain

reduced level of functioning and awareness to a vegetative state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

psychiatrists

A

medical doctors and are the only therapists permitted to prescribe medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

clinical psychologists

A

psychologists with a Ph. D. and specialize in research, assessment, and therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

counseling psychologists

A

psychologists with a graduate degree in psychology and treat less severe problems than clinical psychologists do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

psychoanalysts

A

people trained specifically in Freudian methods who may or may not hold medical degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

abnormal psychology

A

the study of people who suffer from psychological disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

abnormality

A
  1. maladaptive and/or disturbing to the individual
  2. disturbing to others
  3. unusual, unshared by many others of the same population
  4. irrational, doesn’t make sense to the average person
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

insane

A

a legal term used to describe people who, because of a psychological disorder, cannot be held fully responsible for their crimes

NGRI= not guilty by reason of insanity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

A

a book used by psychologists to determine if someone has a psychological disorder

does not include discussion of causes or treatments because different factions of psychology have different ideas about the causes and treatments

latest version is the DSM-IV-TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

intern’s syndrome

A

the tendency to see in oneself the characteristics of disorders about which one is learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

phobia

A

anxiety disorder

an intense, unwarranted fear of a situation or object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

anxiety disorder

constant, low-level anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

panic disorder

A

anxiety disorder

acute episodes of intense anxiety without any apparent provocation, panic attacks tend to increase in frequency, people suffer more anxiety from anticipating the attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

A

anxiety disorder

when persistent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) cause someone to feel the need (compulsion) to engage in a particular action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

post-traumatic stress disorder

A

anxiety disorder

flashbacks or nightmares following a person’s involvement in or an observation of an extremely troubling event, these memories cause anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

somatoform disorders

A

when a person manifests a psychological problem through a physiological problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

hypochondriasis

A

somatoform disorder

minor problems are thought to be severe physical illness, frequent physical problems with no apparent cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

conversion disorder

A

somatoform disorder

a severe physical problem with no biological cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

dissociative disorders

A

disruptions in conscious processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

psychogenic amnesia

A

dissociative disorder

when a person cannot remember things and a physiological basis cannot be found

compare: organic amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

organic amnesia

A

when a person cannot remember things and there is a biological reason

compare: psychogenic amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

fugue state

A

dissociative disorder

having psychogenic amnesia and finding oneself in an unfamiliar environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

dissociative identity disorder

A

dissociative disorder

several personalities that may represent different ages and both sexes, people with DID commonly have a history of sexual abuse or some other childhood trauma

rare outside of US; DIDers may be role-playing b/c of their therapists’ questions and media portrayals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

major (unipolar) depression

A

mood or affective disorder

unhappiness for more than two weeks without a clear reason

other symptoms: loss of appetite, fatigue, change in sleeping patterns, lack of interest in normally enjoyable activities, feeling of worthlessness

linked with low levels of serotonin and norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

A

dissociative disorder

depression only during certain times of the year, usually winter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

bipolar disorder (manic depression)

A

dissociative disorder

depressed and manic (feelings of high energy) episodes

linked with more receptors for acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Aaron Beck

A

cognitive theorist who believes that the cognitive triad causes depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

cognitive triad

A

theorized by Aaron Beck

unreasonably negative ideas that people have about themselves, their world and their futures

failure is attributed to internal, global and stable causes

success is attributed to external, specific and unstable causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

schizophrenia

A

disordered, distorted thinking often demonstrated through delusions and/or hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

delusions

A

beliefs that have no basis in reality

common delusions are persecution and grandeur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

hallucination

A

perception without sensory stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

disorganized schizophrenics

A

use language oddly with neologisms and/or clang associations

also show inappropriate affect and flat affect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

neologisms

A

a characteristic of disorganized schizophrenics

made up words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

clang associations

A

a characteristic of disorganized schizophrenics

a string of nonsense words that rhyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

inappropriate affect

A

a characteristic of disorganized schizophrenics

expressing contradictory behavior when describing or experiencing an emotion (e.g., smiling when discussing something sad; laughing when talking about the death of a loved one).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

flat affect

A

a characteristic of disorganized schizophrenics

lack of emotinal reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

paranoid schizophrenia

A

schizophrenia characterized by delusions of persecution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

catatonic schizophrenia

A

engage in odd movements such as remaining motionless in strange postures for hours at a time, move jerkily and quickly for no apparent reason or alternate between the two

when motionless, may display waxy flexibility

increasingly less common form of schizophrenia in United States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

waxy flexibility

A

characteristic of catatonic schizophrenics

feature of catatonic schizophrenia in which people rigidly maintain the body position or posture in which they are placed by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

undifferentiated schizophrenia

A

exhibit disordered thinking, but none of the other symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

positive symptoms

A

excesses in behavior, thought, or mood

examples: neologisms, hallucinations

compare: negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

negative symptoms

A

deficits in behavior, thought, or mood

examples: flat affect, catatonia

compare: positive symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

dopamine relationship with schizophrenia 

A

high levels of dopamine are associated with schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

muscle tremors and stiffness caused by extensive use of anti psychotic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

double binds theory

A

cognitive-behavioral cause for schizophrenia

The Double Bind Theory was first articulated in relationship to schizophrenia when Bateson and his colleagues hypothesized that schizophrenic thinking was not necessarily an inborn mental disorder but a pattern of learned helplessness in response to cognitive double-binds externally imposed.

contradictory messages

compare: double blinds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

paraphilia

A

the sexual attraction to an object, person, or activity not usually seen as sexual

most paraphilias occur more commonly in men than in women, except for masochism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

fetishism

A

paraphilia

attraction to objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

pedophilia

A

paraphilia
abnormal sexual desire in adults for children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

zoophilia

A

paraphilia

attraction to animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

voyeurism

A

paraphilia

someone who becomes sexually aroused by watching others engage in some kind of sexual behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

masochist

A

paraphilia

someone who is aroused by having pain inflicted upon them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

sadist

A

paraphilia

someone who is aroused by inflicting pain on someone else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

antisocial personality disorder

A

little regard for other people’s feelings

criminals have a high incidence of antisocial personality disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

dependent personality disorder

A

rely too much on the attention and help of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

paranoid personality disorder

A

feeling persecuted, always nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

narcissistic personality disorder

A

seeing oneself as the center of the universe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

histronic personality disorder

A

overly dramatic behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

A

overly concerned with certain thoughts and performing certain behaviors, but not to the point of obsessive compulsive disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

anorexia nervosa

A

eating disorder

loss of 15 percent or more of the average body weight for one’s age and size, an intense fear of fat and food, distorted body image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

bulimia

A

eating disorder

fear of food and fat and a distorted body image

consists of a binge-purge cycle (eat a lot, then throw it up or use laxatives to get rid of the food)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

substance use disorder

A

regular and negative use of alcohol or other drugs that alter behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

substance dependence

A

addiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

autism

A

developmental disorder

seek less social and emotional contact than other children

slow to develop language skills

less likely to seek out parental support when distressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A

developmental disorder

difficulty paying attention or sitting still, occurs more commonly in boys

may be an overdiagnosis of a behavior typical in young boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Rosenhan Study

A

study in which healthy individuals were admitted into mental hospitals after saying they were hearing voices. Once in, they acted normally and still were not labeled as impostors.

raised questions about institutional care levels and the influence of labels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

standardized

A

tested on a standardization sample and made to fit norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

standardization samples

A

a group of people representative of the people who normally will take the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

reliability

A

results are consistent; can be duplicated

compare: reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

split-half reliability

A

test is split into two, each half is tested, if the scores are consistent, then the test is reliable (the closer the correlation is to +1, the more reliable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

equivalent-form reliability

A

correlation between performance on different forms of the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

test-retest reliability

A

correlation between a person’s score on one administration of the test with the same person’s score on a subsequent administration of the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

valid

A

measures what it’s supposed to measure, accurate

compare: reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

face validity

A

“if it looks like it works”

type of content validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

content validity

A

how well a measure reflects the entire range of material it’s supposed to be testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

concurrent validity

A

measures how much of a characteristic a person has now

type of criterion-related validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

predictive validity

A

measures future performance

type of criterion-related validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

construct validity

A

correlates the new test with another already-proved-to-be-valid test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

aptitude test

A

test that measures ability or potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

achievement test

A

test that measures what one has accomplished or learned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

speed test

A

large number of questions asked in a short amount of time, insufficient time is given

goal: see how fast someone can solve problems

compare: power test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

power test

A

questions are asked in increasing difficulty level, sufficient time is given

goal: see what the ceiling difficulty level is

compare: speed test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

group test

A

test administered to a large group of people, less expensive, more objective

compare: individual test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

individual test

A

test administered on a one-on-one basis, more expensive, less objective

compare: group test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

intelligence

A

the ability to gather and use information in productive ways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

fluid intelligence

A

the ability to solve abstract problems and pick up new information and skills, seems to decrease over time

compare: crystallized intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

crystallized intelligence

A

the ability to use knowledge accumulated over time, seems to stay the same or increase over time

compare: fluid intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Charles Spearman

A

intelligence theorist

used factor analysis (statistical technique that measures the correlations between different items) to conclude that underlying many different specific abilities “s” is a single factor named “g”

[Charles Spearman threw a “g” (gangster) SPEAR threw many S shaped stones]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

L.L. Thurstone

A

primary mental ability theory has seven main abilities: verbal comprehension, word fluency, number facility, spatial visualization, associative memory, perceptual speed and reasoning

[THOR juggled SEVEN STONEs]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

J.P. Guilford

A

primary mental ability theory has well over 100 different abilities

[The combination of GUILE and over 100 different abilities made her invincible]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Howard Gardner

A

multiple intelligences theorist

Spatial, Linguistic, Logical-mathematical, Bodily-kinesthetic, Musical, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal, Naturalistic

[In his garden grew many different kinds of smart plants]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Daniel Goldman

A

supports EQ (emotional intelligence)

[a heart of gold]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

EQ (emotional intelligence)

A

ability to identify, assess, and control the emotions of oneself, of others, and of groups; helps people achieve what they want to achieve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Robert Sternberg

A

created triarchic theory, which consists of

  1. componential/analytic intelligence
  2. experiential intelligence
  3. contextual/practical intelligence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

componential/analytic intelligence

A

the ability to compare and contrast, explain, and analyze

part of triarchic theory by Robert Sternberg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

experiential intelligence

A

the ability to use their knowledge and experiences in new and creative ways

part of triarchic theory by Robert Sternberg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

contextual/practical intelligence

A

the ability to apply their knowledge to real-world situations

part of triarchic theory by Robert Sternberg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Alfred Binet

A

wanted to design test to find children who would need help in school and created mental age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

mental age

A

an average 5-year-old will have the mental age of 5

a below average 5-year-old may have the mental age of 3

an above average 5-year-old may have the mental age of 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Louis Terman

A

a Stanford professor, came up with Stanford-Binet IQ test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Stanford-Binet IQ test

A

-divide mental age by chronological age, then multiply by 100

-all adults have mental age of 20

-compare: Weschler tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Weschler test

A

yields deviation IQ scores, mean is 100, standard deviation is 15, scores form a normal distribution

also has subscores for verbal and performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

heritability

A

a measure of how much of a trait’s variation is explained by genetic factor

can range from 0 to 1, with 0 being completely environmentally affected and 1 as completely genetically affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Flynn effect

A

performance on intelligence tests has been increasing steadily throughout the century, probably due to better environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

personality

A

the unique attitudes, behaviors, and emotions that characterize a person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

stage theories

A

theories in which development is thought to be discontinuous

example: Freud’s stage theory; see developmental psychology chapter 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

penis envy

A

part of Freud’s psychosexual stage theory

girls are jealous of boys’ penises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

castration anxiety

A

part of Freud’s psychosexual stage theory

the fear that if they misbehave, they will be castrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

identification

A

part of Freud’s psychosexual stage theory

when a person emulates and attaches themselves to an individual who they believe threatens them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

id

A

contains instincts and psychic energy, called Eros and Thanatos

exists entirely in the unconscious mind

propelled by pleasure principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

pleasure principle

A

followed by id

immediate gratification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

ego

A

follows the reality principle

job is to negotiate between the desires of the id and the limitations of the environment

exists in both the unconscious mind and the conscious mind

uses defense mechanisms to protect the conscious mind from the threatening thoughts buried in the unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

reality principle

A

followed by ego

negotiate between the desires of the id and the limitations of the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

superego

A

exists in both the unconscious mind and the conscious mind

sense of conscience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

repression

A

pushing thoughts out of conscious awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

denial

A

not accepting the ego-threatening truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

displacement

A

redirecting one’s feelings towards another person or object. When people displace negative emotions like anger, they often displace them onto people whoa re less threatening than the source of the emotion

compare: projection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

projection

A

believing that the feelings one has toward someone else are actually held by the other person and directed at oneself

compare: displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

reaction formation

A

expressing the opposite of how one truly feels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

regression

A

returning to an earlier, comforting form of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

rationalization

A

coming up with a beneficial result of an undesirable occurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

intellectualization

A

undertaking an academic, unemotional study of a topic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

sublimation

A

channeling one’s frustration toward a different goal

viewed as a particularly healthy defense mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Jung’s unconscious

A

consists of collective unconscious and personal unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

collective unconscious

A

unconscious passed down through the species; explains the similarities across cultures

contains archetypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

archetypes

A

universal concepts we all share as part of the human species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

personal unconscious

A

resembles Freud’s view of the unconscious; contains the painful or threatening memories and thoughts the person does not wish to confront; called complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Freudian ego psychologist

A

a Freudian psychologist who downplays the importance of the unconscious and focuses on the conscious role of the ego

notable ego psychologist Alfred Adler believed people were motivated by inferiority and superiority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Alfred Adler

A

a Freudian psychologist who downplays the importance of the unconscious and focuses on the conscious role of the ego who also believed people were motivated by inferiority and superiority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

inferiority

A

the fear of failure

theorized by Adler to motivate people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

superiority

A

the desire to achieve

theorized by Adler to motivate people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

nomothetic

A

the belief that the same basic set of traits can be used to describe all people’s personalities

Hans Eysenck’s introversion-extroversion scale and stable-unstable scale

Raymond Cattel’s 16 PF (personality factor)

big five personality traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Hans Eyesenck

A

introversion-extroversion scale and stable-unstable scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Raymond Cattel

A

16 PF (personalty factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

big five personality traits

A

extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, openness to experience, and emotional stability (or neuroticism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

factor analysis

A

a statistical technique used to reduce the vast number of different terms we use to describe people to 16 or five basic traits

groups the traits that correlate under a common factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

idiographic theorists

A

oppose nomothetic theorists

believe that people need to be represented by few traits that best characterize them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Gordon Allport

A

theorized that in order to have a full understanding of someone’s personality, you needed to look at their personal traits

posited three types of personal traits: cardinal dispositions, central and secondary dispositions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

cardinal dispositions

A

one trait that plays a pivotal role in virtually everything a small number of people do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

central dispositions

A

more apparent than secondary dispositions, but less so than cardinal dispositions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

secondary dispositions

A

less apparent than central dispositions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

criticism of trait theories

A

underestimate importance of the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

heritability

A

the measure of the percentage of a trait that is inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

temperaments

A

heritable

the emotional style and characteristic way of dealing with the world

thought to influence the development of his or her personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

somatotype theory

A

William Sheldon

identified three body types: endomorphs (fat), mesomorphs (muscular), and ectomorphs (thin)

each body type associated with certain personality traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

endomorphs (fat)

A

according to William Sheldon

shy and secretive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

mesomorphs (muscular)

A

according to William Sheldon

aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

ectomorphs (thin)

A

according to William Sheldon

friendly and outgoing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Albert Bandura

A

believed that personality is created by an interaction between the person (traits), the environment, and the person’s behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

triadic reciprocality/reciprocal determinism

A

the person (traits), the environment, and the person’s behavior each influence both of the other two in a constant looplike fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

self-efficacy

A

Refers to one’s belief about one’s ability to perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes. Those with high levels for a particular task are more likely to succeed than those with low levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

George Kelley

A

proposed personal-construct theory of personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

personal-construct theory of personality

A

George Kelley

people, in their attempts to understand the world, develop their own individual systems of personal constructs

people’s behavior is based on how they interpret the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

locus of control

A

Julian Rotter

internal locus of control- they are responsible for what happens to them

external locus of control- outside forces are responsible for what happens to them

internals tend to be healthier, more politically active and do better in school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

determinism

A

the belief that what happens is dictated by what has happened in the past

compare: free will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

free will

A

an individual’s ability to choose his or her own destiny

compare: determinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

humanistic psychology

A

also called the third force

view people as innately good and able to determine their own destinies through the exercise of free will

focus on self-concept and self-esteem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

self-concept

A

a person’s global feeling about himself and herself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

self-esteem

A

A measure of how much you value and respect yourself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

self-actualize

A

to reach one’s full potential

believed by Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

self-theory

A

created by Carl Rogers

believed that people needed unconditional positive regard in order to self-actualize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

unconditional positive regard

A

a kind of blanket acceptance important in Carl Rogers’ self-theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

projective tests

A

used by psychoanalysts

involve asking people to interpret ambiguous stimuli

example: Rorschach inkblot test, thematic apperception test (TAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

self-report inventories

A

questionnaires that ask people to provide information about themselves

example: Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Barnum effect

A

the tendency for people to see themselves in vague, stock descriptions of personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

developmental psychology

A

the study of how behaviors and thoughts change over our entire lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

cross-sectional research

A

participants of different ages to compare how certain variables may change over life span

+ produces quick results

  • results may be due to factors other than age, such as historical evens and cultural change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

longitudinal research

A

study of one group of participants over time

+ precisely measures the effects of development on a specific group

  • time consuming, results may take years to develop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

teratogens

A

certain chemicals or agents that can cause harm if ingested/contracted by the mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

A

displayed by children of mothers who drink heavily during pregnancy, small, malformed skulls and mental retardation are symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

fetal alcohol effect

A

less severe version of FAS, learning disabilities or behavioral problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

reflex

A

specific, inborn, automatic responses to certain specific stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

rooting reflex

A

when touched on cheek, will turn head to put object in mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

sucking reflex

A

object in mouth will suck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

grasping reflex

A

object in hand or foot will grasp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Moro reflex

A

startled, fling limbs out, quickly retract them, make himself as small as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Babinski reflex

A

foot stroked, spread toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

attachment

A

the reciprocal relationship between parent and child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Henry Harlow

A

study on monkeys with two wire frame monkey mothers, one with milk, one that was soft

  • monkey babies preferred soft mother over milk mother

conclusion: physical comfort is important in the formation of attachment with parents

  • wireframe baby monkeys became more stressed and frightened than normal baby monkeys when put into new situations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Mary Ainsworth

A

conducted study on what infants would do if their parents left them alone, then came back

categorized results into secure attachments (66%), avoidant attachments (21%) and anxious/ambivalent attachments (12%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

secure attachments (66%)

A

Mary Ainsworth’s baby experiment

confidently explore novel environment when parents are present, distressed when they leave, go to parents when they return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

avoidant attachments (21%)

A

Mary Ainsworth’s baby experiment

resist being held by the parents and will explore novel environment, don’t go to parents for comfort when they return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

anxious/ambivalent attachments (12%)

A

Mary Ainsworth’s baby experiment

show extreme stress when parents leave, but resist being comforted when they return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

authoritarian parenting style

A

strict standards for their children’s behavior and apply punishments for violations of these rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

effects of authoritarian parenting style

A
  • distrust others and withdrawal from peers
  • obedient attitudes are more important than discussions on why the rules are what they are
  • punishment used more than reinforcement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

permissive parenting style

A

unclear guidelines for their children; rules are constantly changed or aren’t enforced consistently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

effects of permissive parenting style

A

emotional control problems are are more dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

authoritative parenting style

A

set, consistent standards that are reasonable and explained

encourage children’s independence, but not past point of violating rules

praise as much as punish

explanations encouraged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

effects of authoritative parenting style

A

children are more socially capable and perform better academically`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

continuity

A

developing steadily from birth to death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

discontinuity

A

developing with some stages of rapid growth and some of relatively little change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

psychosexual stages

A

theorized by Sigmund Freud

  1. oral
  2. anal
  3. phallic
  4. latency
  5. genital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

oral (psychosexual stages)

A

first stage, pleasure through mouth

fixation: overeating, smoking, childlike, dependence on things and people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

anal (psychosexual stages)

A

second stage, toilet training

fixation: overly controlling (retentive), out of control (expulsive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

phallic (psychosexual stages)

A

third stage, babies realize gender

boys have Oedipus complex, girls have Electra complex

fixation: later problems in relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

latency (psychosexual stages)

A

forth stage, calm and low psychosexual anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

genital (psychosexual stages)

A

fifth and final stage, fixation here is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Erik Erikson

A

neo-Freudian theoriest who believed in basics of Freud’s theory but adapted it to fit his own observations

created psychosocial stage theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

psychosocial stage theory (eight stages)

A

created by Erik Erikson

  1. trust vs. mistrust
  2. autonomy vs. shame and doubt
  3. initiative vs. guilt
  4. industry vs. inferiority
  5. identity vs. role confusion
  6. intimacy vs. isolation
  7. generativity vs. stagnation
  8. integrity vs. despair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

trust vs. mistrust

A

first stage of psychosocial stage theory

during the first year of life, infants learn to trust when they are cared for in a consistent warm manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

autonomy vs. shame and doubt

A

second stage of psychosocial stage theory

a toddler learns to exercise will and to do things independently; failure to do so causes shame and doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

initiative vs. guilt

A

third stage of psychosocial stage theory

a child aged 3 - 6 years begin to take initiative that conflicts with parental wishes. Over-controlling parents may instill feelings of guilt and damage self-esteem. Supportive parents encourage emerging independence while providing appropriate controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

industry vs. inferiority

A

fourth stage of psychosocial stage theory

a child from age 6 through puberty extends social functioning beyond the family. The child must learn that productivity is valued in this sphere to achieve a sense of competence or he will develop a sense of inferiority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

identity vs. role confusion

A

fifth stage of psychosocial stage theory

From age 12 - 20, the major task is to build a consistent identity, a unified sense of self. Failure of teens to achieve a sense of identity results in role confusion and uncertainty about the future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

intimacy vs. isolation

A

sixth stage of psychosocial stage theory

From age 21 - 40, the major task is to achieve intimacy (deeply caring about others and having meaningful experiences with them). Otherwise, we experience isolation, feeling alone and uncared for in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

generativity vs. stagnation

A

seventh stage of psychosocial stage theory

From age 40 - 65, adults need to express their caring about future generations by guiding/mentoring others or producing creative work that enriches the lives of others. Failing this, people become stagnant and preoccupied with their own needs and comforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

integrity vs. despair

A

eighth stage of psychosocial stage theory

From age 65 to death, people who look back on their lives with satisfaction develop a sense of wholeness and integrity. Those in despair look back with regret and disappointment in the lives they have led.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Jean Piaget

A

created cognitive-development theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

assimilation

A

the incorporation of experiences into existing schemata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

Jean Piaget’s cognitive development stage theory

A

created by Jean Piaget

  1. sensorimotor stage (birth to about 2 years)
  2. preoperational stage (2 to about 7 years)
  3. concrete operations (8 to about 12 years)
  4. formal operations (12 years through adulthood)`
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

sensorimotor stage (birth to about 2 years)

A

first stage of Jean Piaget’s cognitive-development theory

object permanence

behavior governed by senses and reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

object permanence

A

objects continue to exist outside of visual range

starts in sensorimotor stage (birth to about 2 years)

307
Q

preoperational stage (2 to about 7 years)

A

second stage of Jean Piaget’s cognitive-development theory

use of symbols to represent real-world objects

start using language, but limited in the ways of thinking about objects and their relationships

308
Q

concrete operations (8 to about 12 years)

A

third stage of Jean Piaget’s cognitive-development theory

start to think more logically about complex relationships

concepts of conservation

309
Q

concepts of conservation

A

the properties of objects remain the same even when their shapes change

starts in concrete operations (8 to about 12 years)

310
Q

formal operations (12 years through adulthood)

A

fourth stage of Jean Piaget’s cognitive-development theory

abstract reasoning

hypothesis testing

metacognition

311
Q

abstract reasoning

A

manipulation of objects and contrasting ideas without seeing them

starts in formal operations (12 years through adulthood)

312
Q

hypothesis testing

A

reason from a hypothesis

starts in formal operations (12 years through adulthood)

313
Q

metacognition

A

thinking about thinking

starts in formal operations (12 years through adulthood)

314
Q

criticisms of Jean Piaget’s cognitive development theory

A
  • underestimates children
  • too discontinuous
315
Q

information processing model

A

a continuous alternative of Piaget’s stage theory

316
Q

Lawrence Kohlberg

A
  • experimented on children regarding moral development using the Heinz dilemma
  • created three broad categories of responses: preconventional, conventional, postconventional
317
Q

Heinz dilemma

A

stealing a drug he cannot afford in order to save his wife’s life

318
Q

preconventional

A

reasoning limited to how things affect themselves

  • don’t steal the drug
319
Q

conventional

A

choice based on how others will view them

  • steal
320
Q

postconventional

A

examines rights and values involved in choice

  • steal
321
Q

Criticisms of Lawrence Kohlberg

A

Carol Gilligan noted that his research was based on boys, her research showed that boys and girls had different moral attitudes, but was later disproved

However, her criticism brought attention to how possible gender differences may change how we develop

322
Q

biopsychological (neuropsychological) theory of gender development

A

studies demonstrate that biological differences do exist between the sexes

women have larger corpus callosums, which may affect how the right and left hemispheres communicate and coordinate tasks

323
Q

psychodynamic theory of gender development

A

gender development is a competition for your opposite sex parent, when you realize you can’t win, you imitate your same-sex parent

difficult to verify this idea

324
Q

social-cognitive theory of gender development

A

effects of society and thoughs about gender on role development

gender-schema- messages about gender are internalized into cognitive rules about how each gender should behave

325
Q

motivations

A

feelings or ideas that cause us to act toward a goal

326
Q

Drive Reduction Theory

A

behavior is motivated by biological needs

does not explain all behaviors, such as adrenaline addicts

327
Q

need

A

one of our requirements for survival

328
Q

drive

A

an impulse to act in a way that satisfies this need

329
Q

homeostasis

A

a balanced internal state

330
Q

primary drives

A

biological needs

331
Q

secondary drives

A

learned drives

332
Q

arousal theory

A

motivated by the need for an optimum level of excitement or arousal

performance is best at optimum levels of arousal, depending on how difficult the task is (Yerkes-Dodson law)

333
Q

Yerkes-Dodson law

A

relationship between performance and arousal that states that performance increases with physiological or mental arousal, but only up to a point

334
Q

Incentive Theory

A

behavior is not pushed by a need, but by a desire (incentive)

335
Q

incentive

A

stimuli that we are drawn to due to learning

336
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A

basic needs are fulfilled before other needs

physiological (hunger, thirst, sex)

safety (safe, secure, out of danger)

belongingness and love

esteem (approval and recognition)

self-actualization (fulfill unique potential

337
Q

lateral hypothalamus

A

causes animal to eat when stimulated

338
Q

ventromedial hypothalamus

A

causes animal to feel full when stimulated

339
Q

set-point theory

A

the hypothalamus wants to maintain a certain optimum body weight

340
Q

hunger motivation

A

stomach feels full –> we feel full (balloon experiment)

341
Q

metabolic rate

A

how quickly body uses energy

342
Q

externals

A

people who are motivated to eat by external food cues, such as attractiveness or availability

343
Q

internals

A

people who are more motivated to eat by internal hunger cues (empty stomach)

344
Q

Garcia effect

A

taste aversion, when nausea and a food are paired, the food will be averted in the future

345
Q

bulimia

A

has two phases: binging and purging

mostly women

346
Q

binging

A

eating large amounts of food in a short amount of time

347
Q

purging

A

getting rid of food through vomiting, excessive exercise, or laxative use.

348
Q

anorexia nervosa

A

starving yourself to below 85% of normal body weight: vast majority are women

349
Q

obesity

A

severely overweight, unhealthy eating habits, some are genetically predisposed

350
Q

William Masters and Virginia Johnson

A

Sexual Response Cycle

351
Q

Sexual Response Cycle

A

created by William Masters and Virginia Johnson

  1. initial excitement
  2. plateau phase
  3. orgasm
  4. resolution
352
Q

initial excitement (Sexual Response Cycle)

A

genital areas become engorged with blood, penis becomes erect, clitoris swells, respiration and heart rate increase

353
Q

plateau phase (Sexual Response Cycle)

A

respiration and heart rate continue at an elevated level, genitals secrete fluids in preparation for coitus

354
Q

orgasm (Sexual Response Cycle)

A

rhythmic genital contractions that may help conception, respiration and heart rate increase further, males ejaculate, often accompanied by a pleasurable euphoria

355
Q

resolution (Sexual Response Cycle)

A

respiration and heart rate return to normal resting states, men experience a refractory period- a time period that must elapse before another orgasm, women do not have a similar refractory period and can repeat the cycle immediately

356
Q

achievement motivation

A

desire to master complex tasks and knowledge, desire to reach personal goals, desire to figure out world

regardless of benefits

357
Q

extrinsic motivators

A

rewards received for accomplishments that are outside ourselves

very effective for a short amount of time

358
Q

intrinsic motivators

A

rewards we get internally

most effective at continuing a behavior

359
Q

Management Theory

A

consists of theory x: (legalism) people will only work for benefits or threatened with punishments
and theory y:employees are internally motivated to do good work
has more benefits

360
Q

approach-approach conflict

A

decision between two favorable outcomes

361
Q

avoidance-avoidance conflict

A

decision between two unfavorable outcomes

362
Q

approach-avoidance conflict

A

one event/goal has both good and bad outcomes

363
Q

James-Lange theory

A

the theory that our experience of emotion is our awareness of our physiological responses to emotion-arousing stimuli

364
Q

Cannon-Bard theory

A

theory of emotion that the body changes and understanding of the emotion occurs simultaneously from cues in the thalamus

  • inaccurate about the thalamus playing such a big role, other structures such as the amygdala are involved
365
Q

Two Factor Theory

A

Stanley Schacter

  • better than James-Lange and Cannon-Bard
  • both physical responses and cognitive labels combine to cause emotion
  • experiment showed that aroused people felt emotions more intensely than not aroused people
366
Q

Stanley Schacter

A

created Two Factor Theory

367
Q

stressors

A

stressful life events

368
Q

stress reactions

A

reactions to stressors

369
Q

social readjustment rating scale (SRRS)

A

designed by Thomas Holmes and Richard Rahe

measures stress using life-change units (LCUs)

regardless of posiive or negative, events may have the same LCU count

shows correlation between stress and disease

370
Q

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)

A

created by Hans Seyle

describes the general response animals have to a stressful event

  1. alarm reaction
  2. resistance
  3. exhaustion
371
Q

What happens physically in the alarm reaction GAS

A

heart rate increases, blood is diverted away from other body functions to muscles needed to react, activates the sympathetic nervous system

372
Q

resistance (GAS)

A

hormones are released t maintain physiological readiness described in alarm reaction, if it lasts too long, can deplete resources

373
Q

exhaustion (GAS)

A

parasympathetic nervous system returns body back to normal, more vulnerable to disease especially if resources were depleted

374
Q

three-box/information-processing model

A

sensory, encoding, short-term/working, long-term and retrieval

375
Q

George Sperling

A

demonstrated sensory memory by flashing a grid of 9 letters for 1/20th of a second

also: iconic memory

376
Q

sensory memory

A

a split-second holding tank for incoming sensory information

377
Q

iconic memory

A

a split-second perfect photograph of a scene

378
Q

echoic memory

A

a split-second perfect memory of a sound

379
Q

selective attention

A

determines what is encoded from sensory memory to short-term memory

380
Q

short-term (working) memory

A

memories currently using and are aware of in consciousness

  • short-term memories will fade in 10 to 30 seconds if mused
  • capacity is limited to about 7 items
381
Q

chunking

A

grouping items in about 7

memory tool

382
Q

mnemonic aids

A

memory aids

memory tool

383
Q

rehearse

A

repeat

memory tool

384
Q

long-term memory

A

permanent storage

385
Q

episodic memory

A

memories of specific events, stored in a sequential series of events

386
Q

semantic memory

A

general knowledge of the world, stored as facts, meanings, or categories rather than sequentially

387
Q

procedural memory

A

memories of skills and how to perform them

388
Q

explicit (declarative) memory

A

conscious memories of facts or events we actively tried to remember

389
Q

implicit (nondeclarative) memory

A

unintentional memories that we might not even realize we have

390
Q

eidetic (photographic) memory

A

the ability to remember with great accuracy visual information on the basis of short-term exposure

391
Q

Alexandra Luria

A

studied a patient with eidetic memory who could repeat a list of 70 letters or digits and remember it up to 15 years later

392
Q

levels of processing model

A
  • long/short-term memory doesn’t exist
  • instead, deeply (elaboratively) or shallowly (maintenance) memory
393
Q

retrieval

A

two types of retrieval: recognition and recall

394
Q

recognition

A

the process of matching a current event or fact with one already in memory

395
Q

recall

A

retrieving a memory with an external cue

396
Q

primacy effect

A

predicts that we are more likely to recall items presented at the beginning of a list

compare: recency effect

397
Q

recency effect

A

predicts that we are more likely to recall items presented at the end of a list

compare: primacy effect

398
Q

serial position effect (curve)

A

when recall of a list is affected by the order of items in a list

primacy effect and recency effect

399
Q

tip-of-the-tongue-phenomenon

A

condition of being almost, but not quite, able to remember something; used to investigate the nature of semantic memory

400
Q

semantic network theory

A

memories are linked to one another like spiderwebs

401
Q

flashbulb memory

A

highly detailed memory of the moment and circumstances in which a piece of surprising news is heard

402
Q

state-dependent memory

A

recalling events encoded while in a particular state of consciousness, like sleepiness

403
Q

mood congruent memory

A

the greater likelihood of recalling an item when our mood matches the mood we were in when the event happened

404
Q

Elizabeth Loftus

A

showed that recovered memories could be constructed or false recollections of events

405
Q

constructed memory

A

may report false details of a real event or might even be a recollection of an event that never occured

406
Q

decay

A

not using a memory or connections to a memory for a long period of time

407
Q

relearning

A

after learning and forgetting, learning again becomes faster

408
Q

interference

A

other information competes with what you’re trying to recall

two types: retroactive and proactive

409
Q

retroactive interference

A

learning new information interferes with the recall of older information

compare: proactive interference

410
Q

proactive interference

A

old information interferes with the recall of newer information

compare: retroactive interference

411
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

old memories can be recalled, new memories (except procedural) cannot be made

412
Q

long-term potention

A

repeated firings between neurons strengthen the connection between them

413
Q

phonemes

A

the smallest units of sound used in a language

compare: morphemes

414
Q

morphemes

A

the smallest unit of meaningful sound

compare: phonemes

415
Q

language acquisition

A

natural unconscious process of language development in humans that occurs without instruction, but needs exposure

  1. babbling 2. telegraphic
416
Q

language acquisition theory

A

the ability to learn a language rapidly as children

417
Q

Noam Chomsky

A

language acquisition device

also called nativist theory of language acquisition

418
Q

language acquisition device

A

the ability to learn a language quickly as children

also called nativist theory of language acquisition

419
Q

babbling stage

A

innate, represents a baby’s experimentation with phonemes

after this stage, the baby loses the phonemes unused in the primary language

420
Q

telegraphic

A

second stage in language acquisition

combination of the words into simple commands and sentences; meaning clear, syntax absent

421
Q

overgeneralization

A

misapplication of grammar rules

422
Q

linguistic relativity hypothesis

A

Benjamin Whorf

language may control or limit our thinking

  • studies show effect of labeling on how we think about people, objects, or ideas, but do not show that language changes what we can think about
423
Q

prototype

A

Preconceived notion of what something is supposed to look like. what concepts are based on, the most typical example of a particular concept

424
Q

image

A

mental pictures created in mind, not necessarily visual

425
Q

algorithm

A

a problem solving technique that guarantees the correct solution by trying every possibility

426
Q

heuristic

A

a rule of thumb, generally but not always true

types: availability heuristic and representativeness heuristic

affected by: belief bias and belief perseverance

427
Q

availability heuristic

A

judging a situation based on examples of similar situations that come to mind initially

428
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

judging a situation based on how similar the aspects are to prototypes the person holds in his or her mind

429
Q

belief bias

A

illogical conclusions in order to confirm our preexisting beliefs

430
Q

belief perseverance

A

tendency to maintain a belief even after the evidence we used to form the belief is contradicted

compare: confirmation bias

431
Q

rigidity (mental set)

A

the tendency to fall into established thought patterns

432
Q

functional fixedness

A

an example of rigidity

the inability to see a new use for an object

433
Q

confirmation bias

A

the tendency to look for evidence that confirms our beliefs and ignore evidence that contradicts what we think is true

compare: belief perseverence

434
Q

framing

A

the way a problem is presented

435
Q

creativity

A

original/novel but still fits the situation

436
Q

convergent thinking

A

thinking pointed toward one solution

437
Q

divergent thinking

A

thinking that searches for multiple possible answers to a question

associated with creativity

438
Q

classical conditioning

A

people and animals can learn to associate neutral stimuli with stimuli that produce reflexive, involuntary responses and will learn to respond similarly to the new stimulus as they did to the old one

compare: operant conditioning

439
Q

unconditioned stimulus

A

in classical conditioning, a stimulus that unconditionally—naturally and automatically—triggers a response.

440
Q

neutral stimulus

A

in classical conditioning, an originally irrelevant stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to trigger a conditioned response

441
Q

conditioned response

A

an acquired response that is under the control of (conditional on the occurrence of) a stimulus

442
Q

acquisition

A

the cognitive process of acquiring skill or knowledge

443
Q

delayed conditioning

A

ideal training - neutral stimulus precedes the unconditioned stimulus, briefly overlaps.

444
Q

trace conditioning

A

the presentation of the CS, followed by a short break, followed by the presentation of the US

445
Q

simultaneous conditioning

A

neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus paired together at the same time.

446
Q

backward conditioning

A

least effective- occurs when a conditioned stimulus immediately follows an unconditioned stimulus

447
Q

extinction

A

the process of unlearning a behavior

448
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

the reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response

449
Q

generalization

A

transfer of a response learned to one stimulus to a similar stimulus

450
Q

discriminate

A

distinguish between various stimuli

451
Q

John Watson and Rosalie Rayner’s experiment

A

taught little boy Albert to fear a white rat

452
Q

aversive conditioning

A

conditioning to avoid an aversive stimulus

453
Q

higher-order conditioning

A

a procedure in which a neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus through association with an already established conditioned stimulus.

454
Q

learned taste aversions

A

If you ingest an unusual food/drink and become nauseous, an aversion to that food/drink will develop (can be based on a single pairing, as opposed to repeated)

455
Q

salient

A

having a quality that thrusts itself into attention

456
Q

Garcia and Koelling’s experiment

A

experiment showing how rats more readily learned to make certain associations than others

457
Q

operant conditioning

A

type of learning based on the association of consequences with one’s behaviors

compare: classical conditioning

458
Q

Edward Thorndike and his experiment

A

one of the first people to research operant conditioning

Placed cat in a puzzle box next to food; cat gradually became quicker at getting to the food

459
Q

law of effect

A

Thorndike’s principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and that behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely

460
Q

instrumental learning

A

what Throndike called his work because he believed consequences were instrumental in shaping future behaviors

461
Q

B.F. Skinner

A

created the term “operant conditioning”

created Skinner box

462
Q

Skinner box

A

Named for its developer, B.F. Skinner, a box that contains a responding mechanism and a device capable of delivering a consequence to an animal in the box whenever it makes the desired response

463
Q

reinforcement

A

anything that makes a behavior more likely

compare: punishment

464
Q

positive reinforcement

A

the addition of something pleasant

465
Q

negative reinforcement

A

the removal of something unpleasant

466
Q

punishment

A

anything that makes a behavior less likely

compare: reinforcement

467
Q

positive punishment

A

the addition of something unpleasant

468
Q

omission training/negative punishment

A

the removal of something pleasant

469
Q

escape learning

A

an organism acquires a response that decreases or ends some aversive stimulation

470
Q

avoidance learning

A

learning to avoid events or conditions associated with dreaded or aversive outcomes

471
Q

shaping

A

An operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior

472
Q

chaining

A

in operant conditioning, combining the steps of a sequence to progress toward a final action

473
Q

discriminative stimulus

A

in operant conditioning, a stimulus that elicits a response after association with reinforcement (in contrast to related stimuli not associated with reinforcement)

474
Q

primary reinforcer

A

an innately reinforcing stimulus, such as one that satisfies a biological need

475
Q

secondary reinforcer

A

stimulus such as money that becomes reinforcing through its link with a primary reinforcer

476
Q

generalized reinforcer

A

secondary reinforcer associated with a number of different primary reinforcers

example: money

477
Q

token economy

A

An operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token of some sort for exhibiting a desired behavior and can later exchange the tokens for various privileges or treats.

478
Q

Premack principle

A

principle that a less frequently performed behavior can be increased in frequency by reinforcing it with a more frequent behavior

479
Q

continuous reinforcement

A

reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs

480
Q

partial-reinforcement effect

A

a phenomenon in which behaviors learned under a partial reinforcement schedule are more difficult to extinguish than behaviors learned on a continuous reinforcement schedule

481
Q

fixed-ratio schedule

A

in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified number of responses

482
Q

variable-ratio schedule

A

in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses

483
Q

fixed-interval schedule

A

reinforces a response only after a specified time has elapsed

484
Q

variable-interval schedule

A

in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals

485
Q

instinctive drift

A

The tendency for an animal’s innate responses to interfere with conditioning processes.

486
Q

contiguity model

A

a model that the more times two things are paired, the greater the learning that will take place

487
Q

contingency model

A

Robert Rescorla’s revision of the contiguity model; the more times the presence of one predicts the other, the greater the learning that will take place

488
Q

observational learning/modeling

A

studied by Albert Bandura

learning through observation and imitation

489
Q

latent learning

A

studied by Edward Tolman

sometimes learning occurs but is not immediately evidenced

490
Q

Edward Tolman

A

researched latent learning

conducted experiment on three groups of rats running through a maze

491
Q

abstract learning

A

Understanding concepts rather than learning to simply press a bar or peck a disk in order to receive a reward

492
Q

insight learning

A

studied by Wolfgang Kohler

when one suddenly realizes how to solve a problem

493
Q

Wolfgang Kohler

A

studied insight learning

observed chimpanzees suddenly learn how to get a banana

494
Q

equipotentiality

A

any animal can be conditioned to do anything

opposite to instinctive drift

495
Q

preparedness

A

biological predisposition to learn some things more quickly than others

496
Q

dualism

A

the universe, including humans, is made up of thought and matter (matter- everything that has substance)

497
Q

monism

A

everything is part of the same substance

498
Q

consciousness

A

level of awareness

499
Q

mere-exposure effect

A

old stimuli are preferred over new stimuli, because on some level the old stimuli are remembered and known

500
Q

priming

A

exposure to a stimulus influences a response to a later stimulus

501
Q

blind sight

A

some blind people can respond to visual stimuli because on some level of consciousness is able to “see”

502
Q

conscious

A

the information about yourself and your environment you are currently aware of

503
Q

nonconscious

A

body processes controlled by your mind that we are not usually aware of

504
Q

preconscious

A

information abut yourself or your environment that you are not currently thinking about, but could be

505
Q

subconscious

A

information that we are not consciously aware of but we know must exist due to behavior like priming and mere-exposure

506
Q

unconscious

A

psychoanalyst idea– some unacceptable events and feelings are repressed from conscious mind to unconscious

difficult to prove

507
Q

circadian rhythm

A

a daily cycle of activity observed in many living organisms

508
Q

sleep onset

A

the stage between wakefulness and sleep

509
Q

alpha waves

A

relatively high-frequency, low amplitude waves produced while awake and in stages 1 and 2

510
Q

sleep spindles

A

short bursts of rapid brain waves that start to appear in stage 2 sleep

511
Q

delta sleep/slow-wave sleep

A

stages 3 and 4’s other names due to the delta waves that exist during these stages

replenishes the body’s chemical supplies, releasing growth hormones in children and fortifying the immune system

512
Q

rapid eye movement (REM) (paradoxical sleep)

A

period of intense brain activity, eyes dart back and forth, many muscles twitch repeatedly, dreams

occurs when going from delta sleep back to stage 1 sleep

lack of REM sleep –> memory issues

more stress –> more REM sleep

513
Q

REM rebound

A

individuals deprived of REM sleep will experience more and longer periods of REM sleep the next time they are allowed to sleep normally

514
Q

insomnia

A

problems getting to sleep/staying asleep at night

affects up to 10% of people

515
Q

treatment of insomnia

A

treated with changes of behavior:

  • reduction of caffeine/ other stimulants
  • exercise at appropriate times
516
Q

narcolepsy

A

periods of intense sleepiness and falling asleep at unpredictable and inappropriate times

affects less than 0.001% of people

517
Q

treatment of narcolepsy

A

treated with medication and changing sleep patterns (naps at certain times of the day)

518
Q

sleep apnea

A

when a person stops breathing for short periods of time during the night

  • robs the person of deep sleep
  • causes attention and memory problems
  • treated with respiration machine
519
Q

night terrors

A

feelings of terror or dread usually affecting children

occurs during stage 4 sleep

520
Q

somnambulism

A

sleep walking usually occurring in children

occurs during stage 4 sleep

521
Q

manifest content

A

literal content of dreams

compare: latent content

522
Q

latent content

A

the unconscious meaning of the manifest content

compare: manifest content

523
Q

protected sleep

A

ego protects us from unconscious by representing everything in symbols

524
Q

activation-synthesis theory

A

dreams are interpretations of physiological things and have no meaning

525
Q

information-processing theory

A

more stress causes more dreams about your stress, dream content relates to daily concerns. The brain is dealing with daily stress and information during REM dreams and the function of REM may be to integrate information processed during the day into our memories

526
Q

posthypnotic amnesia

A

people forget events that occurred during hypnosis

527
Q

posthypnotic suggestion

A

a suggestion that a hypnotized person have a certain way after hypnosis

528
Q

role theory

A

hypnosis is not an alternate state of consciousness; hypnotized people are just filling out the “role” of a hypnotized person

529
Q

hypnotic suggestibility

A

some people are more easily hypnotized than others

richer fantasy life, follow directions well, and able to focus intensely on a single task for a long period of time

530
Q

state theory

A

theory that hypnosis is an altered state of consciousness

531
Q

dissociation theory

A

created by Ernest Hilgard

hypnosis causes us to divide our consciousness voluntarily; one part stays tuned to reality, another part to the hypnotist

532
Q

Ernest Hilgard

A

dissociation theory

533
Q

psychoactive drugs

A

chemicals that change the chemistry of the brain and induce an altered state of consciousness

534
Q

blood-brain barrier

A

thick walls surrounding the brain’s blood vessels that protect the brain from harmful chemicals

535
Q

agonist

A

drugs that mimic neurotransmitters

536
Q

antagonists

A

drugs that block neurotransmitters

537
Q

tolerance

A

a physiological change that produces a need for more of the same drug in order to achieve the same effect

compare: reverse tolerance

538
Q

reverse tolerance

A

the first dose lingers in the body and enhances the effect of the second dose although it may be smaller

compare: tolerance

539
Q

depressants

A

drugs that slow down body processes

examples: alcohol, barbiturates, anxiolytics (tranquilizers/antianxiety drugs ex: Valium)

540
Q

effects of alcohol

A

slowed down reactions and judgment, impaired motor coordination

541
Q

stimulants

A

drugs that speed up body processes

542
Q

examples of stimulants

A

caffeine, cocaine, amphetamines and nicotine

543
Q

side effects of stimulants

A

disturbed sleep, reduced appetite, increased anxiety, heart problems

544
Q

hallucinogens/psychedelics

A

drugs that cause changes in perceptions of reality, including sensory hallucinations, loss of identity, and vivid fantasies

stay in body for a long time

effects are less predictable

545
Q

examples of hallucinogens/psychedelics

A

LSD, peyote, psilocybin mushrooms, marajuana

546
Q

opiates

A

drugs that act as agonists for endorphins and reduce pain and elevate mood

547
Q

examples of opiates

A

morphine, heroin, methadone, codeine

548
Q

side effects of opiates

A

drowsiness, euphoria, physically addictive because they change brain chemistry quickly

549
Q

transduction

A

the process in which signals are transformed into neural impulses

550
Q

cocktail-party phenomenon

A

when your attention involuntarily switches (someone calls your name)

551
Q

cornea

A

a protective covering of the eye

552
Q

pupil

A

dilates and becomes smaller to allow the right amount of light into your eye

553
Q

lens

A

curved and flexible in order to focus the light

554
Q

retina

A

a screen on the back of your eye

555
Q

cones

A

cells activated by color

compare: rods

556
Q

rods

A

cells that respond to black and white

outnumber cones 20:1

compare: cones

557
Q

fovea

A

located at the center of your retina and contains the highest concentration of cones

558
Q

ganglion cells

A

their axons make up the optic nerve that sends visual impulses to the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus

559
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus

A

a place in the thalamus that receives impulses from the optic nerve

560
Q

blind spot

A

where the optic nerve leaves the retina, calls such because has no rods or cones

561
Q

optic chasm

A

optic the place nerves from both eyes join and cross over within the brain

562
Q

feature detectors

A

discovered by Hubel and Weisel, nerve cells in the brain that respond to specific features of the stimulus, such as shape, angle, or movement

563
Q

trichromatic theory

A

there are three types of cones in the retina (blue, red and green) that activate in different combinations to produce all the colors of the visible spectrum

does not explain afterimages and color blindness

564
Q

afterimage

A

an image (usually a negative image) that persists after stimulation has ceased

565
Q

opponent-process theory

A

the theory that opposing retinal processes (red-green, yellow-blue, white-black) enable color vision. For example, some cells are stimulated by green and inhibited by red; others are stimulated by red and inhibited by green

566
Q

amplitude

A

the height of a sound wave, measured in decibels

567
Q

frequency

A

the length of the waves and determines pitch, measured in megahertz

568
Q

order of sound in your ear

A

ear canal -> eardrum/tympanic membrane -> hammer (malleus bone) -> anvil (incus bone) -> stirrup (stapes bone) -> oval window -> cochlea (snail’s shell filled with fluid) -> hair at bottom of cochlea -> organ of Corti (neurons activated by the hair) -> auditory nerve

569
Q

place theory

A

hair cells in the cochlea respond to different frequencies of sound based on where they are located in the cochlea

570
Q

frequency theory

A

place theory works for high frequency sounds, but not low frequency

hair cells fire at different rates in the cochlea

571
Q

conduction deafness

A

something goes wrong with the system of conducting sound to the cochlea

572
Q

nerve (sensorineural) deafness

A

when the hair cells in the cochlea are damaged, usually by loud noise

573
Q

gate-control theory

A

when a higher priority pain message coincides with a lower priority pain message, only the higher one will be felt

574
Q

papillae

A

the bumps on your tongue

575
Q

olfactory bulb

A

one of two enlargements at the terminus of the olfactory nerve at the base of the brain just above the nasal cavities

576
Q

vestibular sense

A

how our body is oriented in space

577
Q

kinesthetic sense

A

the position and orientation of specific body parts

578
Q

absolute threshold

A

the smallest amount of stimulus we can detect

579
Q

subliminal

A

stimuli below absolute threshold

580
Q

difference threshold (just-noticeable difference)

A

the smallest amount of change needed in a stimulus before we can detect a change

computed by Weber’s law

581
Q

Weber’s law

A

the change needed to make a noticeable difference to something is proportional to the original intensity of the stimulus

582
Q

signal detection theory

A

a theory predicting how and when we detect the presence of a faint stimulus (“signal”) amid background stimulation (“noise”). Assumes there is no single absolute threshold and detection depends partly on a person’s experience, expectations, motivation, and level of fatigue.

583
Q

response criteria (receiver operating characteristics)

A

how motivated people are to detect certain stimuli and expectations for what they want to perceive

584
Q

false positive

A

when we think we perceive a stimulus that is not there

585
Q

a false negative

A

not perceiving a stimulus that is present

586
Q

top-down processing

A

information processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions

drawing on our experience and expectations

compare: bottom-up processing

587
Q

schemata

A

mental representations of how we expect the world to be

588
Q

perceptual set

A

a predisposition to perceiving something in a certain way

589
Q

backmasking

A

supposed hidden messages musicians recorded backward in their music

590
Q

bottom-up processing (feature analysis)

A

we use only the features of the object itself to perceive it

compare: top-down processing

591
Q

figure-ground relationship

A

A Gestalt principle of perceptual organization that states that we automatically separate the elements of a perception into the feature that clearly stands out and its less distinct background.

592
Q

constancy

A

the ability to maintain a constant perception of an object despite changes in direct appearance

593
Q

visual cliff experiment

A

created by E.J. Gibson, used to determine when infants can perceive depth

594
Q

Muller-Lyer illusion

A

demonstrates that some perceptual rules are learned from culture

both lines are the same length, but one is perceived to be longer

595
Q

Weber’s law for sight

A

constant for vision: 8%

596
Q

Weber’s law for hearing

A

constant for hearing: 5%

597
Q

Stroboscopic Effect

A

A visual illusion in which the perception of motion is generated by a series of stationary images that are presented in rapid succession

Ex: book flip image thing

598
Q

Phi Phenomenon

A

The perception of movement as a result of sequential presentation of visual stimuli

Ex: Lights on/off= moving

599
Q

Autokinetic Effect

A

The tendency to perceive a stationary point of light in a dark room as moving

600
Q

Monocular Cues

A

Not dependent on two eyes

601
Q

Binocular Cues

A

Depend on two eyes

Binocular Disparity: Both eyes see objects with slightly different angles, brain gets both images. Closer= similar image; Farther= more disparity between two images viewed

Convergence: Eyes move closer to each other to keep focus as object gets closer to our face

602
Q

neuroanatomy

A

the study of the parts and function of neurons

603
Q

neurons

A

individual nerve cells that make up our entire nervous system

604
Q

dendrites

A

rootlike parts of the nerve cell that stretch out from the cell body; grow to make synaptic connections with other neurons

605
Q

cell body (soma)

A

contains the nucleus and other parts of the cell needed to sustain its life

606
Q

axon

A

wirelike structure ending in the terminal buttons that extends from the cell body

607
Q

myelin sheath

A

a fatty covering around the axon that speeds neural impulses

608
Q

terminal buttons

A

also called: end buttons, terminal branches of axon, synaptic knobs

the branched end of the axon that contains neurotransmitter

609
Q

neurotransmitters

A

chemicals contained in terminal buttons that enable neurons to communicate

610
Q

synapse

A

the space beween the terminal buttons of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neurons

611
Q

action potential

A

the local voltage change across the cell wall as a nerve impulse is transmitted

612
Q

function of acetylcholine

A

motor movement

613
Q

lack of acetylcholine

A

Alzheimer’s disease

614
Q

function of dopamine

A

motor movement and alertness

615
Q

what is parkisons causes by

A

lack of dopamine

616
Q

overabundance of dopamine

A

schizophrenia

617
Q

function of endorphins

A

pain control; involved in addictions

618
Q

function of serotonin

A

mood control

619
Q

lack of serotonin

A

associated with clinical depression

620
Q

afferent neurons

A

neurons that take information from the senses to the brain

621
Q

interneurons

A

in the brain or spinal cord, neurons that take messages and send them elsewhere in the brain or spinal cord

622
Q

efferent neurons

A

neurons that take information from the brain to the rest of the body

623
Q

Central Nervous System

A

consists of the brain and spinal cord; nerves encased in bone

compare: Peripheral Nervous System

624
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

consists of nerves not encased in bone

Divided into two categories: somatic and automatic nervous system

compare: Central Nervous System

625
Q

Somatic Nervous System

A

controls voluntary muscle movements

compare: Autonomic Nervous System

626
Q

Autonomic Nervous System

A

controls the automatic functions of our body

divided into two categories: sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

compare: Somatic Nervous System

627
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A

part of the Autonomic Nervous System

mobilizes our body to respond to stress

compare: Parasympathetic Nervous System

628
Q

Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

part of the Autonomic Nervous System

slowing body down after a stress response

compare: Sympathetic Nervous System

629
Q

Phineas Gage

A

a railroad worker involved in an accident that damaged the front part of his brain

630
Q

lesioning

A

the removal or destruction of part of the brain

example: frontal lobotomy

631
Q

frontal lobotomy

A

type of lesioining that was used to treat mentally ill patiens

632
Q

electroencephalogram (EEG)

A

detects brain waves, used in sleep research

633
Q

Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT)

A

a sophisticated 3D X ray of the brain

634
Q

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

A

a sophisticated 3D magnetic field image of the brain

635
Q

Portion Emission Tomography (PET)

A

measures how much of a certain chemical parts of the brain is using

636
Q

Functional MRI

A

combination of MRI and PET

637
Q

hindbrain

A

structures in the top part of the spinal cord, controls basic biological functions that keep us alive

638
Q

medulla

A

part of hindbrain

controls blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing

639
Q

pons

A

part of hindbrain

connects the hindbrain with the midbrain and forebrain, involved in the control of facial expressions

640
Q

cerebellum

A

part of hindbrain

looks like smaller version of brain stuck onto the underside of brain, coordinates fine muscle movements

641
Q

midbrain

A

coordinates simple movements with sensory information

contains reticular formation

642
Q

reticular formation

A

a netlike collection of cells throughout the hindbrain that controls general body arousal and he ability to focus our attention

if it does not function, you will fall into a coma

643
Q

forebrain

A

controls thought and reason

contains thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala and hippocampus

644
Q

thalamus

A

part of forebrain

located at top of brain stem

receives sensory signals from spinal cord and sends hem to the appropriate areas in the rest of the forebrain

645
Q

hypothalamus

A

part of forebrain

controls several metabolic functions, including body temperature, sexual arousal, hunger, thirst and the endocrine system

646
Q

amygdala and hippocampus

A

hippocampus- arms surrounding the thalamus

amygdala- structures near the end of each hippocampal arm

involved in processing and perceiving memory and emotion

647
Q

limbic system

A

made up of thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala and hippocampus

deal with aspects of emotion and memory

648
Q

fissures

A

wrinkles in the cerebral cortex

649
Q

contralateral control

A

each hemisphere of the brain controls the opposite side of the body

650
Q

brain lateralization/hemispheric specialization

A

specialization of function in each hemisphere

651
Q

corpus callosum

A

the nerve bundle that connects the two hempisheres; cut in split-brain patients

652
Q

split-brain patients

A

patients whose corpus callosums have been cut

653
Q

association area

A

any area of the cerebral cortex that is not associated with receiving sensory information or controlling muscle movements

654
Q

frontal lobes

A

part of the cerebral cortex

responsible for abstract thought and emotional control

contains: Broca’s area and motor cortex

655
Q

Broca’s area

A

in the frontal lobe

responsible for controlling the muscles involved in producing speech

656
Q

motor cortex

A

in the frontal lobe

sends signals to muscles, controlling voluntary movements

bottom of cortex controls top of body and vice versa

657
Q

parietal lobes

A

contains sensory cortex (somato-sensory cortex)

658
Q

sensory cortex (somato-sensory cortex)

A

receives incoming touch sensations from the rest of the body

bottom of sensory cortex receives sensations from top of body and vice versa

659
Q

occipital lobes

A

at the very back of the brain

impulses from the right half of each retina is processed in the right occipital lobe and vice versa

660
Q

temporal lobes

A

unlike occipital lobes, sound from either ear is processed in both temporal lobes

contains Wernicke’s area

661
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

located in temporal lobe

interprets both written and spoken speech

662
Q

brain plasticity

A

the ability of other parts of the brain to take over functions of damaged regions. Declines as hemispheres of the cerebral cortex lateralize.

663
Q

adrenal glands

A

produce adrenaline, which causes rest of body to go into fight or flight mode

664
Q

Thomas Bouchard

A

conducted study on identical twins that found a correlation of 0.69 on IQ, criticized because their similar appearances may have led to their being treated similarly

665
Q

Turner’s syndrome

A

only one X chromosome in the 23rd pair

shortness, webbed necks

666
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

extra X chromosome

minimal sexual development and personality traits like extreme introversion

667
Q

Down’s syndrome

A

extra chromosome on the 21st pair

rounded face, shorter fingers and toes, slanted eyes set far apart, different extents of mental retardation

668
Q

applied research

A

research with clear, practical applications

compare: basic research

669
Q

basic research

A

research that explores questions that are of interest of psychologists that are not intended to have immediate, real-world applications

compare: applied research

670
Q

valid

A

measures what it’s supposed to measure; accurate

compare: reliable

671
Q

reliable

A

can be replicated, consistent

compare: valid

672
Q

hypothesis

A

a relationship between two variables

673
Q

variables

A

things that vary among the participants in the research

674
Q

dependent variable

A

depends on the independent variable

675
Q

theory

A

an explanation of some phenomenon, allows researchers to generate testable hypotheses

676
Q

operationalize

A

to explain how you will measure a variable

677
Q

subjects

A

the participants in research

678
Q

sampling

A

the process by which subjects are selected

679
Q

sample

A

group of subjects; should be representative of a larger population

680
Q

population

A

anyone or anything that could possibly be selected to be in the sample

681
Q

random selection

A

randomly selecting the sample group, increases the likelihood that the sample represents the population

682
Q

stratified sampling

A

randomly sampling each strata (category of people, for example race or gender) of the population, so that the final sample reflects the population more accurately

683
Q

laboratory experiment

A

conducted in a lab, a highly controlled environment

684
Q

field experiment

A

conducted in the world, more realistic than laboratory experiment

compare: laboratory experiment

685
Q

experiment

A

only experiments can show cause and effect relationships through the manipulation of the independent variable and subsequent observation of the dependent variable while controlling for confounding variables

686
Q

confounding variable

A

any difference between the experimental and control conditions, besides the changes of the independent variable

687
Q

assignment

A

the process by which subjects are put into a group, experimental or control

688
Q

random assignment

A

each subject has an equal chance of being placed in either the experimental or the control group

controls subject-relevant confounding variables

compare: random selection

689
Q

group matching

A

half of each condition (for example, male or female) is assigned to each group (experimental or control)

compare: stratified sampling

690
Q

situation-relevant confounding variables

A

differences between the experimental and control situations that may affect the experiment

equivalent environments control for situation-relevant confounding variables

691
Q

experimenter bias

A

the unconscious tendency for researchers to treat members of the experimental and control groups differently to increase the chance of confirming their hypotheses

692
Q

double-blind procedure

A

neither the subjects nor the researcher are able to affect the outcome of the research

minimizes the effect of demand characteristics and some kind of response/subject bias

compare: single-blind procedure

693
Q

single-blind procedure

A

only the subjects do not know which group they’re in

minimizes the effect of demand characteristics and some kind of response/subject bias

compare: double-blind procedure

694
Q

demand characteristics

A

cues about the purpose of the study

695
Q

response/subject bias

A

when subjects behave in ways they think the observer wants them to behave

social desirability (desire to act or answer questions in a way that others will like) is a type of this

696
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

selecting a group of people on whom to experiment will affect the performance of hat group, regardless of what is done to the individuals

697
Q

placebo effect

A

the purely psychological effects of thinking you took a drug when you really didn’t

698
Q

counterbalancing

A

using subjects as their own control group by having half of them be experimental first and half of them be control first

699
Q

order effect

A

the order of the experimental/control group activities may affect the results

700
Q

correlation

A

a relationship between two variables without ascribing cause

701
Q

ex post facto study

A

research in which subjects are chosen based on a pre-existing condition; all other variables are controlled

702
Q

survey method

A

kind of correlational research in which surveys are filled out; difficult to control for confounding variables

703
Q

naturalistic observation

A

unobtrusive observation on subjects in their natural habitats, control is sacrificed

compare: field experiment

704
Q

case study

A

a full, detailed picture of one subject or a small group of subjects; not reflective of population, as a result findings cannot be generalized

705
Q

descriptive statistics

A

describe a set of data

compare: inferential statistics

706
Q

frequency distribution

A

a distribution of observed frequencies of occurrence of the values of a variable

707
Q

frequency polygon

A

line graph

708
Q

histogram

A

bar graph

709
Q

measures of central tendency

A

attempt to mark the center of a distribution

consists of mean, median, mode

compare: measures of variability

710
Q

mean

A

the average of all the scores in a distribution

most commonly used measure of central tendency

when distorted by extreme scores or outliers, median should be used

compare: median, mode

711
Q

median

A

the middle score of a distribution when written in ascending or descending order

compare: mode, mean

712
Q

mode

A

the score that appears most frequently

compare: median, mean

713
Q

positively skewed

A

when a distribution has a high outlier, there are more low scores than high scores due to the outlier

mean is higher than median

compare: negatively skewed

714
Q

negatively skewed

A

when a distribution has a low outlier, there are more high scores than low scores due to the outlier

mean is lower than median

compare: positively skewed

715
Q

measures of variability

A

attempt to depict the diversity of the distribution

consists of range, variance, standard deviation

compare: measures of central tendency

716
Q

variance

A

the average of the squared differences of each number from the mean

compare: standard deviation, range

717
Q

standard deviation

A

the square root of the variance

compare: variance, range

718
Q

range

A

the distance between the highest and lowest score in a distribution

compare: variance, standard deviation

719
Q

z score

A

the distance of a score from the mean in units of standard deviation

negative z scores are below the mean

positive z scores and above the mean

720
Q

normal curve

A

theoretical bell-shaped curve for which the area under the curve lying between any two z scores has been predetermined

memorize the normal distribution chart

721
Q

percentile

A

the distance of a score from 0

nth percentile means you scored better than n percent of the people taking the test

722
Q

correlation coefficient

A

range from -1 and +1

0 is the weakest correlation– no correlation

723
Q

scatter plot

A

a series of points plotted on a graph

the closer the points come to a line, the stronger the correlation

724
Q

line of best fit

A

the line drawn through the scatter plot that minimizes the distance of all the points from the line

725
Q

inferential statistics

A

determine whether or not findings can be applied to the larger population from which the sample was selected; making sure the results are not due to sampling error and chance

t-tests, ANOVAs, MANOVAs are types of inferential statistical tests

compare: descriptive statistics

726
Q

sampling error

A

the extent to which a sample differs from the population

727
Q

p value

A

the percent chance that the findings were due to chance

.05 (5% chance) is the cut off for statistically significant results

p value of 0 cannot exist

728
Q

institutional review board

A

reviews research proposal for ethical violations and/or procedural errors

729
Q

informed consent

A

participants must know that they are involved in research and give their consent

730
Q

coercion

A

participation must be voluntary

731
Q

anonymity/confidentiality

A

both protect privacy

anonymity- no data that allows researchers to match the data with the person

confidentiality- the source of any data will not be revealed

732
Q

risk

A

participants cannot be placed in significant mental or physical risk

733
Q

debriefing procedures

A

participants must be told the purpose of the study and provided with ways to contact the researchers about study results

734
Q

introspection

A

the purposeful and rational self-observation of one’s mental state; first wave of psychology

735
Q

trephination

A

a operation used by Stone Age humans that removes a circular section of bone from the skull

736
Q

Wilhelm Wundt

A

set up the first psychological laboratory, trained subjects in introspection

737
Q

structuralism

A

the idea that the mind operates by combining subjective emotions and objective sensations

738
Q

William James

A

published psychology’s first textbook: The Principles of Psychology, created functionalism

739
Q

functionalism

A

explains how the structures in structuralism function in our lives

740
Q

Gestalt psychology

A

examined a person’s total experience, not just bits and pieces of it; second wave of psychology

741
Q

Max Wertheimer

A

a Gestalt psychologist

742
Q

psychoanalysis

A

human behavior, experience, and cognition are largely determined by irrational drives; third wave of psychology

743
Q

Sigmund Freud

A

created psychoanalytic theory

744
Q

unconscious mind

A

a part of the mind that we do not have conscious control that determines, in part, how we think and behave

745
Q

repression

A

the pushing down into the unconscious events and feelings that cause so much anxiety and tension that our conscious mind cannot deal with them

746
Q

defense mechanism

A

psychological strategies brought into play by the unconscious mind to manipulate, deny, or distort reality

747
Q

behaviorism

A

psychologists should only look at behavior and causes of behavior, not elements of consciousness; fourth wave of psychology; dominant school of thought from the 1920s to 1960s

748
Q

John Watson

A

studied Ivan Pavlov’s conditioning experiments, main proponent of behaviorism

749
Q

stimuli

A

environmental events

750
Q

responses

A

physical reactions

751
Q

B.F. Skinner

A

behaviorist, expanded the ideas to include reinforcement

752
Q

reinforcement

A

environmental stimuli that either encourage or discourage certain responses

753
Q

eclectic

A

drawing from multiple perspectives of psychology; fifth wave of psychology; most current psychologists are eclectic

754
Q

humanism

A

stresses individual choice and free will, most of our behaviors are chosen due to physiological, emotional, or spiritual needs

755
Q

Abraham Maslow

A

Contributed to humanistic psych and hierarchy of needs

756
Q

Carl Rogers

A

Founder of the humanist approach

757
Q

biopsychology

A

explains human thought and behavior in terms of biological processes only

758
Q

evolutionary psychologists (sociobiologists)

A

examine human thoughts and actions in terms of natural selection

759
Q

natural selection

A

favorable traits for survival will be passed down and preserved

760
Q

cognitive psychologists

A

examine human thought and behavior in terms of how we interpret, process, and remember environmental events

761
Q

social-cultural psychologists

A

looks at how human thought and behavior varies from culture to culture

762
Q

comparative psychologists

A

look at the psychology of non-human animals

763
Q

overt behavior

A

Behavior that has the potential for being directly observed by an individual other than the one performing the behavior.

764
Q

covert behavior

A

Behavior that can be subjectively perceived only by the person performing the behavior. Thoughts and feelings are covert behaviors.