Bar Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is a Spendthrift trust?

A

The beneficiary is not allowed to either voluntarily or involuntarily transfer his interest in the trust, and creditors are unable to reach it to satisfy their claims (until the income has been paid to the beneficiary, at which point the creditors can reach it). Exceptions for (1) judgments for child/spousal support, (2) government claims, (3) where settlor is also beneficiary.

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2
Q

What are the 6 covenants of title in a general warranty deed? Which are present covenants enforceable only by the buyer, and which run with the land and are also enforceable by future interest holders?

A

(SEC… Quite Fucking Good)

Present

  • Covenant of Seisin – “I own it”
  • Covenant Against Encumbrances – no easements, etc.
  • Covenant of Conveyance – “I can sell it”

Run with Land

  • Covenant of Quiet Enjoyment – “no one will bother you”
  • Covenant of Further Assurances – “after I defend you, I’ll make sure it doesn’t happen again”
  • Covenant of General Warranty – “if someone bothers you, I’ll defend you”
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3
Q

Statutory formalities for a will (this will vary a bit from state to state/under UPC)

A

(WISE W.)

  • Written
  • Intent (testamentary intent – sham wills not given effect)
  • Signed (liberally construed, X counts, someone else signing for you at your direction counts. Most states it doesn’t have to be signed at the bottom, but anything added at a later time after the will has been signed is not valid).
  • Eighteen or older and sound mind
  • Witnesses (two of them) who both see the testator sign the will (most states = “conscious presence”) and themselves sign in the testator’s presence
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4
Q

Adverse Possession Elements

A

(ECHO)

  • Exclusive/Actual Possession – not sharing with the true owner
  • Continuous for statutory period – continuous = using it as an owner would be, not literally continuous. Tacking is permitted if there is privity between tackers.
  • Hostile – not by the owner’s permission
  • Open and Notorious – sufficiently apparent to put the true owner on notice that trespass is occurring
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5
Q

Fee Simple Determinable – what are words of creation? What is future interest?

A

“To A so long as”

Future interest = possibility of reverter held by grantor

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6
Q

What are the family law considerations for a choice of law issue (all 3 analytical approaches the same), (Marriage / Divorce / Legitimacy)

A

Marriage – if a marriage is valid where performed, it will be recognized as valid everywhere (unless temporary relocation to get around state rule)

Divorce – forum will apply its own divorce laws. To get jurisdiction, at least one of the parties must be domiciled in the state

Legitimacy – legitimacy of a child is governed by the law of the mother’s domicile at the time of the child’s birth. The validity of subsequent acts of legitimation are governed by the law of the father’s domicile.

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7
Q

What are considered fundamental corporate changes? What is the process for implementing them?

A

Fundamental changes

  • Amendments to articles of incorporation
  • Conversion of entity type
  • Merger. Exceptions:
    • Acquirer doesn’t have to have shareholder vote if acquisition is sufficiently small (e.g. no more than 20% share issuance, no changes to articles of incorporation, each shareholder holds the same number of shares)
    • Short form merger of subsidiary (parent owns 90% of sub)
  • Share exchange (one corporation purchases all shares of another) – only vote needed is for company to be acquired
  • Disposition of all or substantially all assets

Process for implementing

  • (1) board meets and votes in favor
  • (2) board adopts a resolution
  • (3) notice of a vote is sent to shareholders
  • (4) shareholders vote
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8
Q

What are the requirements for outside documents to be Incorporated by Reference into a will? Exception?

A

(1) Document must be in existence at the time of execution
(2) Document must be sufficiently described in the will
(3) Must be intent to incorporate document into will

Exception – many states and UPC allow an exception for the requirement that the document be in existence at time of execution for lists of bequests of personal property (can change list later)

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9
Q

What are the methods of witness impeachment?

A

(BC Crips)

  • Bias or Interest
  • Conviction of Crime (felony or involving dishonesty; past 10 years)
  • Contradictory Facts
  • Reputation/Opinion Evidence of Untruthfulness
  • Instances of Misconduct (specific)
  • Prior Inconsistent Statements
  • Sensory Deficiencies
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10
Q

What are the 3 “warranties for title?”

A

Quit-claim deed – bad for buyer, contains no promises

General warrant deed – great for buyer, warrants against all defects in title, including those attributable to successors

Special warranty deed – warrants against all defects in title, but not those attributable to successors

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11
Q

What are the three inchoate crimes/definitions? Are they specific or general intent?

A

Solicitation – asking another to commit a crime with intent that it be committed.

Attempt – specific intent to commit a crime plus an overt act beyond mere preparation.

Conspiracy – an agreement among multiple parties to carry out an illegal act. Mere preparation will usually suffice. Conspirator can be convicted of a foreseeable crime committed by another conspirator in furtherance of the conspiracy.

All three are specific intent crimes.

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12
Q

On MBE, assume pure comparative negligence. What is pure comparative negligence? What are alternatives?

A

Pure comparative negligence - P can recover even if 99% at fault. Reduce P’s recovery by % of P’s fault.

Modified Comparative negligence – P cannot recover if more than 50% at fault. Reduce P’s recovery by % of P’s fault.

Contributory negligence: P cannot recover if at fault.

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13
Q

When does 5th Amendment provision against self-incrimination / Miranda warnings apply?

A

(1) perp is in custody (reasonable person would not feel free to leave)
(2) perp knows person questioning him is a cop
(3) there was an interrogation (words or conduct by the police that they should know is likely to elicit an incriminating response)

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14
Q

Reasonable suspicion

A

Reason to believe that criminal activity has taken place based on something less than probable cause but based on articulable facts

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15
Q

If Worker A is working for Company/Person B, is Company/Person B liable for Worker A’s torts? Under what theories?

A

Threshold question – is worker an employee or contractor? For employee, look for principal control over manner/method in which job is performed. Factors: characterization of parties, degree of skill required, whose tools and facilities are used, time period of employment (definite and short = contractor), etc.

Possibility 1 – Company/Person B is directly liable for negligent hiring/retaining/supervising.

Possibility 2 – For an employee, principal is liable under respondeat superior if the act was within the scope of employment

Possibility 3 – For a contractor, principal is only liable under respondeat superior if (1) the activity is inherently dangerous, (2) the principal delegated nondelegable duties, (3) the principal knowingly selected an incompetent independent contractor (different than negligent hiring)

Possibility 4 – no respondeat superior, but person/company B is liable under apparent authority

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16
Q

What qualifies as an obscenity?

A

(PP SLAP)

  • Prurient Interest in sex (appeals to)
  • Patently Offensive (community standards)
  • Lacks Scientific, Literary, Artistic or Political Value (national reasonable person standard)
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17
Q

What are the elements required to create an express/private (i.e. not charitable) trust?

A

(Trusts Create Incredibly Big Present Value)

  • (1) Trustee that is competent, with duties (a court will appoint if necessary)
  • (2) Capacity to convey on part of settlor
  • (3) Intent (present) to create a trust relationship (“precatory expressions” i.e. hope/wish/etc. generally not enough)
  • (4) Beneficiary (definite) (Same person is not sole trustee and sole beneficiary). Some states apply anti-lapse but most do not.
  • (5) Property (specific)
  • (6) Valid trust purpose (not against public policy, to defraud, illegal, etc.)
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18
Q

When is transfer of venue allowed?

A

(1) court may transfer the case for the convenience of the parties or witnesses to any court where it could originally have been filed (needs SMJ, PJ, proper venue)
(2) all parties may consent to transfer to a particular district (forum selection clause will be enforced by means of a motion to transfer “in the interests of justice” unless exceptional public interest factors dictate otherwise)

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19
Q

How to determine if a partnership has been formed? What factors are relevant?

A

No formalities are needed to form a partnership

To determine whether a partnership exists, courts generally look to the intent of the parties. If they intended to carry on a business as co-owners, there is a partnership even if they did not intend to carry on a business as co-owners. Sharing profits raises a presumption of partnership.

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20
Q

What are the (1) majority rule, (2) modern/UPC rule, and (3) traditional rule for the intestate share of children when there is no surviving spouse?

A

Majority rule – per capita with representation. Property is divided equally at first generation that has living takers. From there, it flows down each line of descent. (could be some uneven distriubtions among grandchildren)

Modern trend/UPC – per capita at each generational level (all children, grandchildren, etc. take same amount as each other)

Traditional rule - classic per stirpes. Shares pass down lines of descent equally (so e.g. often uneven distributions between grandchildren)

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21
Q

Supplemental Jurisdiction Scenarios/Test

A

(1) Original claim is under diversity. New claim for $75k or less (and complete diversity of citizenship still exists). Test: common nucleus of operative fact
(2) Compulsory counterclaim for $75k or less. (by definition meets CNOF)
(3) When state and federal claim are brought together, federal court may exercise supplemental jurisdiction over state claim. This idea applies to both supplemental claims and parties. Test: CNOF.

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22
Q

When can a law be attacked facially under the 1st Amendment?

A
  • Over-broad
  • Vague
  • Allows publicofficials unfettered discretion
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23
Q

Under the UCC, what is the obligation of sellers in terms of the condition of goods? What is the consequence of seller sending nonconforming goods? What options does a buyer have when it receives nonconforming goods?

A

Perfect tender rule: seller must deliver perfect tender to the buyer

Result of perfect tender violation = simultaneous acceptance and breach of contract

Options for buyer:

  • (1) accept the goods and pay the contract price
  • (2) timely reject the goods and sue for damages
  • (3) accept some of the goods and reject some of the goods

Exception: nonconforming goods with a “notice of accommodation” from seller is considered a counteroffer

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24
Q

What are the different pre-answer motions (and what are timing limitations for raising each)?

A

(Silly Scott Van Pelt Peels French Fries)

May be raised any time even on appeal

  • SMJ doesn’t exist

Waived if not raised by motion/answer (whichever is first)

  • Service was insufficient
  • Venue is improper
  • Process was insufficient
  • PJ doesn’t exist

May be raised before/at trial

  • Failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted
  • Failure to join an indispensable party
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25
Q

What is an Antilapse statute? When does it not apply?

A

If devisee predeceases the testator (i.e. the person who was going to get the gift dies before the testator), the default rule is that the gift fails. Antilapse statues say that if the devisee is a descendant of a grandparent (i.e. cousin or more closely related) then the gift passes to the devisee’s estate rather than failing.

Antilapse does not apply to person who is dead at time of execution of will. Also does not apply to member of class gift.

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26
Q

Fee Simple subject to condition subsequent

A

“To A but if X happens, grantor can re-enter/retake”

Future interest = right of entry/power of termination held by grantor

27
Q

Voluntary Manslaughter

A

Killing done in the heat of passion as a result of adequate provocation (e.g. subject to battery/threat, finding spouse in bed)

28
Q

Elements for strict liability

A

(1) nature of D’s activity imposes an absolute risk to make safe
(2) dangerous aspect of activity was actual and proximate cause of P’s injury
(3) P suffered damages to person or property

29
Q

What is Dissolution? How can it happen and what is effect?

A

Partnership business is wound up.

How can it happen: partnerships at will can be dissolved at any time by any partner without penalty, partnership with definite term expires or all partners agree to dissolve (or more than half of partners agree to dissolve following death/bankruptcy/wrongful dissociation).

30
Q

Larceny

A

(1) the taking
(2) and carrying away of the property of another
(3) by trespass (without consent or induced by fraud)
(4) with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property (at time D took property)

Can also be continuing trespass – D took it wrongfully without intent to permanently deprive and later decides to keep it

31
Q

What is a codicil and when is it given effect?

A

Codicil is a new document that modifies a previously executed will. The codicil must itself be executed with the same formalities.

32
Q

What is the duty of care standard that is generally used by courts?

A

If action was (1) in good faith, (2) with care that an ordinarily prudent person in that position would exercise, and (3) in a manner the directors reasonably believe to be in the best interest of the corporation… then decision will be reviewed under the business judgment rule (deferential to decisions of board. Burden of proof is on challenger).

33
Q

What are the three distinguishing rules for charitable trusts (that differentiate them from private trusts)?

A

(1) Indefinite beneficiaries (trust must have. Specific organization still has indefinite beneficiaries)
(2) Perpetual (trust may be)
(3) Cy Pres doctrine applies (if original purpose is frustrated (e.g. cure for disease is found) court will choose another purpose that is “cy pres” (as near as possible))

34
Q

What is the mailbox rule, and what are the exceptions?

A

Acceptance of a contract is effective upon dispatch, not receipt

Exceptions:

  • Acceptance under an option contract is not effective until receipt
  • If offeree sends a rejection and then an acceptance, whichever is received first controls. (If offeree sends an acceptance and then a rejection, acceptance controls).
35
Q

Requirements for Land Sale Contract and Exception

A

Must pass statute of frauds – writing signed by the party to be charged (i.e. sued) and essential terms – parties, description of land, price

Partial performance is an exception to the statute of frauds. Need a valid oral contract plus two of the following three things:

  • (1) Buyer is in possession
  • (2) Buyer has paid in full
  • (3) Buyer has made improvements to the real estate
36
Q

What is a discretionary trust?

A

Trustee is given discretion whether to apply or withhold payments of income/principal to beneficiary

37
Q

Is consideration necessary for a valid option contract?

A

Common law: yes

UCC: Generally still yes, but with an exception for the merchant’s firm offer rule – signed writing from merchant saying that it will hold an offer open for up to 90 days is an enforceable option even without consideration

38
Q

Who has priority between perfected secured parties (general rule + exceptions/special rules)?

A

General rule: First to file or perfect wins (filing can be before perfection)

Exceptions/Special Rules:

  • Perfection by control prevails over other perfection methods
  • PMSI has superpriority (although sometimes requires perfection at time debtor takes possession). For conflicting PMSIs, priority goes to seller PMSI.
  • Purchasers of chattel paper/instruments who in good faith give new value have priority over other perfected parties
  • Perfected security interest in proceeds has same date of priority as original perfection
39
Q

What is Dissociation? How can it happen and what is the effect?

A

Dissociation is a change in the relationship of the partners caused by any partner ceasing to be associated in carrying on the business.

How can it happen: a partner expressly withdraws, happening of an agreed event, expulsion of a partner, death of a partner, partner’s bankruptcy, partner’s death

Effect: Dissociation by partner expressly withdrawing triggers dissolution. Otherwise, partnership continues operating and the leaving partner’s share is bought out by the partnership. Leaving partner is also indemnified against losses. Leaving partner can potentially be sued for wrongful dissociation.

40
Q

Involuntary Manslaughter

A

(1) death resulting from criminally negligent behavior
(2) death resulting from a misdemeanor of commission of an unenumerated (non-BARRK) felony

41
Q

Burglary

A

(1) the breaking and entering of the dwelling house (just walking in isn’t enough, but breaking can be constructive e.g. threats)
(2) at night
(3) with the intent to commit a felony therein (must exist at time of breaking and entering)

42
Q

Fee simple subject to an executory interest

A

“To A but if X happens, to B”

Future interest = executory interest held by B

43
Q

What are the two privileges related to marriage? Definition of each.

A

Spousal immunity - in criminal cases, spouse cannot be compelled to testify against defendant-spouse. Ends w/ divorce.

Confidential communication between spouses - in either a civil or criminal case, spouse may not disclose confidential communication w/out consent from other spouse. Survives divorce.

44
Q

Claim Preclusion vs. Issue Preclusion

A

Claim Preclusion (Res Judicata): claimant can’t try the same cause of action in a later lawsuit

Issue Preclusion (Collateral Estoppel): on a later/different cause of action, an earlier final judgment is binding as to the issues that were already resolved

45
Q

Special standards of care (other than owner/occupier of land)

A

Professionals – knowledge and skill of an average person in the profession

Children – subjective standard of a child of similar age, education, intelligence and experience. Child under 5 usually not capable of negligence. Child performing adult activity (driving car) held to adult standard.

Common carriers + Innkeepers

Bailment Duties (loaning goods to someone else to use)

Emergency Situations

46
Q

If a counterparty sends back a contract with different terms, is there an acceptance?

A

Common law: no (mirror image rule)

UCC: contracts between two merchants (nonmerchant, additional terms not included)

  • (1) acceptance with material change: change is out
  • (2) acceptance with nonmaterial change: change is part of contract unless timely objection
  • Exception: if the offeree makes acceptance conditional upon assent, then you have rejection and counteroffer
47
Q

Classification of testamentary gifts (relevant for abatement: reducing estates assets to pay off creditors)

A

Specific devise – specific item of property (e.g. wedding ring)

General legacy – gift of general economic benefit (e.g. $10k)

Demonstrative legacy – hybrid. (e.g. $10k from the sale of my XYZ stock)

Residuary estate

Property passing by intestacy

48
Q

Standards of Review on appeal

A

Trial judge erred on pure matter of law – de novo

Facts found by judge during bench trial – not “clearly erroneous”

Facts found by jury – reasonable jury could have reached conclusion

Mixed question of fact/law – de novo

Discretionary matters of judge – judge didn’t “abuse discretion”

49
Q

Do contract modifications need consideration?

A

Common law: yes (pre-existing duty rule says that you need consideration to make modification to existing contract. Modern courts are changing where modification is fair/equitable.)

UCC: good-faith modifications are allowed

50
Q

What is ademption?

A

Testator no longer has property for specific devise. Result: Gift fails. (some statutory exceptions may give would-be devisee the proceeds of sale, casualty insurance, etc.)

51
Q

How is jurisdiction for child custody action decided?

A

Primary test – home state jurisdiction (where a child lived with a parent for 6 months before the commencement of proceedings). Beyond that, lots of discretion.

52
Q

What is a support trust?

A

Trustee pays out income/principal to trustee to support their lifestyle at a certain standard. This is a type of discretionary trust.

53
Q

Probable cause

A

Reasonably trustworthy facts that would lead a prudent person to believe a crime has been committed

54
Q

Elements of Battery

A

(1) Harmful or offensive contact (can be direct (punch) or indirect (gunshot))
(2) To plaintiff’s person (or something they are touching or holding)
(3) Intent
(4) Causation

55
Q

What is a partnership?

A

A partnership is an association of two or more persons to carry on as co-owners of a business for profit. (a “person” can be an individual, trust, corporation, partnership, or other entity)

56
Q

When can a contract be modified or cancelled without a 3rd party beneficiary’s permission?

A

A contract can be modified or cancelled without a 3rd party beneficiary’s consent until the 3rd party’s rights have vested. Rights vest in 3 situations:

  • (1) 3rd party assents to contract (different than just learning about contract)
  • (2) Detrimental reliance
  • (3) Brings lawsuit to enforce the contract (different than lawsuit brought to enforce contract after modification/cancellation)
57
Q

What are the 8 types of intangible or semi-intangible collateral (and definitions)? Whose perspective do you use to determine which it is?

A

Perspective: the category into which intangible or semi-intangible collateral is placed depends on the nature of the collateral (rather than its use)

(1) Instruments – piece of paper representing the right to be paid money (e.g. notes, drafts, certificates of deposit)
(2) Documents – document representing the right to receive goods (bills of lading and warehouse receipts)
(3) Chattel paper – record evidencing both a monetary obligation and a security interest (e.g. promissory note, written security agreement)
(4) Accounts – right to payment (think account receivable)
(5) Deposit Accounts – bank account (nonconsumer)
(6) Investment Property – stocks, bonds, mutual funds, brokerage accounts
(7) Commercial Tort Claims
(8) General intangibles

58
Q

Outside of cases where “character is directly at issue,” when can you admit evidence of defendant’s past crimes or specific bad acts?

A

(MIMIC)

  • Motive
  • Intent
  • Mistake or accident (absence of)
  • Identity
  • Common Scheme or Plan
59
Q

What are the 3 requirements for full faith and credit to be given? (recognizing judgment from another state)

A

(1) Jurisdiction was proper in rendering court
(2) Judgment was on the merits
(3) Judgment was final

60
Q

What is the proper district for venue? (where do businesses reside for venue purposes)

A

(1) a district where any defendant resides, if all defendants reside in the same state
(2) Any district where a substantial portion of the cause of action arose

Fallback – any district where a defendant is subject to personal jurisdiction

Businesses reside in any judicial district in which it is subject to personal jurisdiction (different test than “at home” for diversity!)

61
Q

What are the different insanity tests and definitions?

A

M’Naughten – D doesn’t know right from wrong or understand nature of actions

Irresistible Impulse Test – unable to control actions or conform conduct to law

Durham – but for the mental illness, defendant would not have committed the act

M.P.C. test – combination of M’Naughten and Irresistible Impulse. (either one is sufficient)

62
Q

What are the exceptions to the Statute of Frauds?

A
  • Performance
  • “Judicial admission” (party admits to contract in court)
  • Estoppel – D convinces P SoF doesn’t apply
  • Specialty Manufactured Goods (UCC)
  • Merchant’s Confirmatory Memo – both parties must be merchants (UCC)
63
Q

When is declarant unavailable for purposes of hearsay?

A

(PRISM)

  • Privilege
  • Refusal
  • Incapacity
  • Subpoena (failure to comply)
  • Memory (lack of)