Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

biology of disease > Ballard's Exam 1 Material > Flashcards

Ballard's Exam 1 Material Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards
1
Q

The terms “idiopathic” and “essential” refer only to

A

When the cause of disease is unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The term “history” is associated with

A

Symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the United States, which of the following represents the leading cause of death for the whole population?

A

Cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Demonstrable lesions are present in patients with

A

Organic diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The sequence of events in the development of the disease from its earliest beginnings, including factors that influence its development defines

A

Pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The structural alterations, recognizable by gross and microscopic pathology refers to

A

Lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The prefix Angio refers to

A

Vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The failure of development of a primitive structure of an organ is

A

Agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Expansion or dilatation of small blood vessels is

A

Telengiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A bad growth that is often a precursor for cancer

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The suffix ectasia refers to

A

Expansion or dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The suffix rhexis refers to

A

Rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Odontogenesis begins in the

A

Induction stage
6-7 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The dental lamina begins initially in the

A

The ectoderm lining the stomodeum gives
rise to 1. oral epithelium and then to the 2. dental lamina.

Midline of for both arches and progresses posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The dental lamina forms during the

A

Induction stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The enamel organ forms during the

A

Cap stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The primary process occurring during the bud stage is

A

Extensive proliferation and growth of the dental lamina into buds or oral masses penetrating into the ectomesenchyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Bell stage occurs in the

A

11th and 12th week of prenatal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The following cell layers of the tooth are present in the Bell Stage EXCEPT?

A

Cell Loop

PRESENT CELL LAYERS
Dental sac
Outer enamel epithelium
Stallate reticulum
Stratum intermedium
Inner enamel epithelium
Outer cells of dental papilla
Inner cells of dental papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The cementum, periodontal ligament, and alveolar bone develop from

A

Mesenchyme or dental sac

The remaining mesenchyme surrounding the outside of the cap or enamel organ condenses into the dental sac and will produce the Periodontium, the supporting tissues of the tooth: Cementum, periodontal ligament, and the alveolar bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The outer cell of the dental papilla will differentiate into the?

A

Odontoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The inner cells of the dental papilla will differentiate into the?

A

dentin and pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The root of the tooth forms during the

A

Apposition stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The cell responsible for enamel production are the

A

Ameloblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The developmental stage where Anodontia occurs is the?

A

Initiation stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The structure responsible for root development is the?

A

Cervical Loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Supernumerary teeth develop during the?

A

Initiation stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The arrow is pointing to which structure?

A

Ameloblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The structure at the allow will differentiate into the

A

Dentin and Pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The tissue that is unable to replicate itself is

A

Enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This condition occurs during which developmental phases?

A

Apposition stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Microdontia and Microdontia occur during the?

A

Bud stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The periodontal Ligament begins development in the

A

Bell Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the function of the Stellate reticulum?

A

Supports the production of the enamel matrix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The increase in the size of an organ due to an increase in the size of the constituent cells is an example of

A

Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A congenital decrease in the size of a developing tissue or organ is

A

Hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Metaplasia is thought to be caused, in most cases, by

A

conversion of one fully differentiated cell type to another can be caused by smoking cigarettes, chronic irritation in the cervix due to HPV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mature squamous epithelium replacing the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium in the bronchial lining is an example of

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A cervical biopsy of a 24-year-old woman shows maturated squamous epithelium replacing the columnar mucosal surface of the endocervical glands is an example of

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Disorderly arrangement of maturing squamous epithelium of the skin with an intact basement membrane is

A

Dysplasia

41
Q

The change in the brain of this 82-year-old man is an example of

A

brain atrophy or shrinkage

atherosclerotic cerebral vascular disease results in reduced bloody supply.

Narrowing the gyri & widens the sulci

42
Q

A cervical biopsy of a 24-year-old woman shows a change in the expected columnar epithelium, replaced by the stratified squamous epithelium lining the mucosal surface of the endocervical glands and revealing immature cells occupying the lower two-thirds of the epithelium. What is the best designation for the change?

A

dysplasia

43
Q

This 65-year older man suffered a stroke causing paralysis in his left leg. The change in this biopsy of the left gastrocnemius is an example of?

A

Skeletal muscle neurogenic atrophy. Atrophic muscle, inflammation the connective tissue is paralyzed.

44
Q

A 53-year-old woman has experienced abdominal pain for two weeks. She has mild upper abdominal tenderness on palpation, and bowel sounds are present. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. The figure shows a microscopic examination of a biopsy specimen of a duodenal lesion. Which of the following pathologic processes is most likely present?

A

Ulceration

45
Q

A 53-year-old woman with no prior illnesses has a routine checkup by her physician. On examination, she has a 150/95 mm Hg blood pressure. If her hypertension remains untreated for years, which of the following c ellular alterations would most likely be present in her left ventricle?

A

Hypertrophy

46
Q

A 22-year-old woman becomes pregnant. A fetal ultrasound examination at 13 weeks gestation shows her uterus measures 7.0 × 4.0 × 3.0 cm. At delivery of a term infant, her uterus measures 34 × 18 × 12 cm. Which of the following cellular processes has contributed most to the increase in her uterine Size?

A

Myometrial smooth muscle hypertrophy

47
Q

A 25-year-old woman breastfeeds her infant. On examination, her breasts are slightly increased in Size. Milk can be expressed from both nipples. Which of the following processes in her breasts during pregnancy enabled her to breastfeed the infant?

A

Lobular hypoplasia

48
Q

A 29-year-old man sustains a left femoral fracture in a motorcycle accident. A cast is placed on his leg for six weeks. Upon the cast’s removal, the calf’s diameter decreased. The change in diameter is an example of?

A

atrophy

49
Q

A 34-year-old obese woman has experienced heartburn from gastric reflux for the past five years after eating large meals. She undergoes upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and a biopsy specimen of the distal esophagus. Which of the following microscopic changes, seen in the figure, has most likely occurred?

A

Coulmnar Cell Metaplasia (Glandular Metaplasia)

50
Q

A screening chest radiograph of an asymptomatic 37-year-old man shows a 3-cm nodule in the middle lobe of his right lung. The nodule is excised with a pulmonary wedge resection, and sectioning shows a sharply circumscribed mass with a soft, white center. The microscopic appearance is shown in the figure. The serum interferon gamma release assay is positive. Which of the following pathologic processes has most likely occurred in this nodule?

A

Caseous necrosis

51
Q

The shrinkage and condensation of the nucleus of a cell is called

A

Pyknosis

52
Q

The form of necrosis with retention of both proteinaceous material and cell boundaries is?

A

Caseous- usually occurs in TB
coagulative necrosis

53
Q

Liquefactive necrosis is most common in which of the following organs?

A

In the 1. brain 2. skin

54
Q

A genetically determined cell death program that can be activated by various physiological signals of cellular injury is referred to as?

A

Apoptosis

55
Q

Coagulative necrosis is seen in which of the following organs?

A

Heart, kidney, adrenal gland, spleen

56
Q

Fragmentation of the nucleus is referred to as

A

Karyorrhexis

57
Q

Deposition of normal calcium tissue resulting from hypercalcemia and increased serum phosphate is called?

A

Metastatic calcification

58
Q

The cells most susceptible to ischemic necrosis are?

A

Neurons

59
Q

A 72-year-old man died suddenly from congestive heart failure. At autopsy, his heart weighed 580 g (normal 330 g) and showed marked left ventricular hypertrophy and minimal coronary arterial atherosclerosis. A serum chemistry panel ordered before death showed no abnormalities. Which of the following pathologic processes best accounts for the appearance of the aortic valve in the figure

A

Dystrophic calcification

60
Q

The lesion present in this photograph below is an example of

A

Enzymic fat necrosis

61
Q

The pigment associated with atrophy and aging is

A

Lipofuscin

62
Q

Increased (hypercalcemia) due to vitamin D intoxication is an example of

A

Metastatic calcification

63
Q

Migration of leukocytes directly toward a foreign substance or injured tissue is called

A

Chemotaxis

64
Q

Multinucleated giant cells of the foreign body type originate from

A

fusion or nuclear division of microphage

65
Q

The warmth of an acutely inflamed skin lesion is due to

A

Hypermia

66
Q

Inflammation is best defined as

A

local reaction to tissue injury

67
Q

Which part of the microcirculation is most consistently involved in the permeability changes and A. exudation of acute inflammation?

A

Venules

68
Q

The principal cells of granulation tissue are

A

Fibroblast and endothelial cells

69
Q

Which of the following is most characteristic of repair?

A

Granulation tissue

70
Q

The process represented in the figure below is an example.

A

Purulent (Suppurative) inflammation Abscess

71
Q

A 53-year-old woman has had a high fever and cough productive of yellowish sputum for the past two days. Her vital signs include a temperature of 37.8° C, pulse of 103/min, respirations of 25/min, and blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg. On auscultation of the chest, crackles are audible in both lung bases. A chest radiograph shows bilateral patchy pulmonary infiltrates. The microscopic appearance of her lung is in the figure. Which of the following inflammatory cell types is most likely to be seen in significantly increased numbers in her sputum specimen?

A

neutrophils

72
Q

A 24-year-old, sexually active woman has experienced lower abdominal pain for the past day. Her temperature is 37.9° C, and the left lower abdomen is markedly tender on palpation. Laboratory findings include a total WBC count of 29,000/mm3 with 75% segmented neutrophils, 6% bands, 14% lymphocytes, and 5% monocytes. Laparotomy reveals a distended, fluid-filled, reddened left fallopian tube near rupture. She undergoes a left salpingectomy. Which of the following is most likely to be seen on microscopic examination of the excised fallopian tube?

A

Liquefactive necrosis

73
Q

A 68-year-old man has had worsening shortness of breath for the past week. Upon physical examination, his temperature was 38.3° C. On percussion, there is dullness over the left lung fields. Thoracentesis on the left pleural cavity yields 800 mL of cloudy yellow fluid with a WBC count of 2500/mm3 with 98% neutrophils and 2% lymphocytes. A Gram stain of the fluid shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following terms best describes the process occurring in his left pleural cavity?

A

Purulent exudate

74
Q

One month after an appendectomy, a 25-year-old woman palpates a small nodule beneath the skin at the site of the healed right lower quadrant sutured incision. Microscopic examination of the excised microscope shows macrophages, collagen deposition, small lymphocytes, and multinucleated giant cells. In addition, polarizable, refractile material is present in the nodule. Which of the following complications of the surgery best accounts for these findings?

A

Foreign Body Granuloma formation

75
Q

An 18-year-old man lacerated his left upper arm and required sutures. The sutures were removed one week later. Wound healing continued, but the site became disfigured over the next two months by the figure’s process. Which of the following terms best describes the resulting in the healing process?

A

Keloid resulting from excess collagen deposition

76
Q

The inflammatory process represented in this figure is?

A

Fibrinous Inflammation

77
Q

On day 28 of her menstrual cycle, a 23-year-old woman experiences an onset of menstrual bleeding that lasts for six days. She has had regular cycles since menarche. Which processes most likely occur in her endometrial cells to initiate menstrual bleeding?

A

Apoptosis

78
Q

A 9-year-old boy has had a chronic cough and fever for the past month. A chest radiograph shows enlargement of hilar lymph nodes and bilateral pulmonary nodular interstitial infiltrates. A sputum sample contains acid-fast bacilli. A transbronchial biopsy specimen shows granulomatous inflammation with epithelioid macrophages and Langhans giant cells. Which of the following mediators most likely contribute to giant cell formation?

A

interferon-y

79
Q
  1. A 32-year-old woman has had a chronic cough with fever for the past month. Upon physical examination, her temperature was 37.5° C. A chest radiograph shows many small, ill-defined nodular opacities in all lung fields. A transbronchial biopsy specimen shows caseating granulomas, interstitial infiltrates with lymphocytes, plasma cells, and epithelioid macrophages. An acid-fast Bacillus (AFB)stain is positive. Which of the following infectious agents is the most likely cause of this appearance?
A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

80
Q

One month after an appendectomy, a 25-year-old woman palpates a small nodule beneath the skin at the site of the healed right lower quadrant sutured incision. The microscopic examination of the excised nodule shows macrophages, collagen deposition, small lymphocytes, and multinucleated giant cells. Polarizable, refractile materials are present in the nodule. Which of the following complications of the surgery best accounts for these findings?

A

granuloma formation

81
Q

An 8-year-old girl has had difficulty swallowing for the past day. On examination, her pharynx is swollen and erythematous with an overlying yellow exudate. Laboratory studies show neutrophilia. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus) is cultured from her pharynx. Which of the following substances is most likely to increase in response to pyrogens released by this organism?

A

Interleukin-12 or prostaglandin

82
Q

A 41-year-old man has had a severe headache for the past 2 days. Upon examination, his temperature was 39.2° C. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid obtained has a WBC count of 910/mm3 with 94% neutrophils and 6% lymphocytes. Which of the following substances is the most likely mediator for the fever observed in this man?

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

83
Q

The primary mediator for Increased vascular permeability (vascular leakage) in the acute inflammatory process is?

A

Phagocytes: neutrophils and macrophages

84
Q

In an experiment, a group of test animals are infected with viral hepatitis. Two months later, the control group’s liver showed normal architecture microscopically. The test group infected with the viral organisms showed fibrous scars from resolving hepatic abscesses, seen microscopically after the same period. Which of the following factors best explains the different outcomes for the two test groups?

A

Injury to the connective tissue framework

85
Q

A 43-year-old man has had a cough and fever for the past two months. A chest CT scan shows the findings in the figure (A). A transbronchial lung biopsy yields a specimen with the microscopic appearance shown in Figure (B). Which of the following chemical mediators is most important in the Pathogenesis of this lesion?

A

Interferon-y

86
Q

A 77-year-old woman has chronic renal failure. Her serum urea nitrogen is 40 mg/dL. She is given a diuretic medication and loses 2 kg (4.4 lb). She reduces the protein in her diet, and her serum urea nitrogen decreases to 30 mg/dL. Which terms best describe this woman’s cellular responses to disease and treatment?

A

adaptation

87
Q

A 23-year-old woman is receiving corticosteroid therapy for an autoimmune disease. She has an abscess on her upper outer right arm. She undergoes minor surgery to incise and drain the abscess, but the wound heals poorly over the next month. Which of the following aspects of wound healing is most likely deficient in this patient?

A

Glucocorticoids inhibit wound healing by impairing collagen synthesis.

88
Q

The unit of biological life is the cell, and the human body is made up of billions of cells. Which of the following demarcates the outer boundary of the cell and the environment?

A

cell membrane

89
Q

The bilayer amphipathic molecules that constitute the cell membrane are found in two layers in which of the following?

A

Plasma membrane/ Plasmalemma

90
Q

The cell membrane is composed of a bilayer of amphipathic phospholipid molecules. What is the best description of the head portion of the molecule?

A

Polar - hydrophilic (water loving) head

91
Q

The cell is described as the simple unit of a living organism. It has different compartments that allow for different specialized functions; some have their own cell membranes while others do not. Which of these organelles has a very low pH?

A

Lysosomes

92
Q

Organelle have different spaces for efficient metabolic processes. Identify the organelle whose function is to carry out oxidative reactions and produce hydrogen peroxide and convert hydrogen peroxide (H202) to water (H2O). Which of the of these structures?

A

Peroxisomes (Microbodies)

93
Q

A high school student in a summer research program at Meharry School of Dentistry wanted to know the origin of vesicles transporting protein materials formed within the cell cytoplasm. Which is the best answer among these options?

A

Golgi Apparatus

94
Q

The skin found in the human body is described as a stratified squamous epithelium. What consideration is used to classify the skin as this type of epithelium?

A

Stratified - multiple layers
Squamous - flat shape

95
Q

The cell is the simple biological unit of living organisms. It has different compartments that allow for different specialized functions. Which of these organelles is associated with the responsibility for protein synthesis?

A

Ribosomes

96
Q

Organelle allows for different biological environments in the cell. Sugar molecules tag the processing of newly produced protein to signal the direction in which the product has to be deposited. Which of the following organelles accomplish this function?

A

Golgi apparatus

97
Q

The cell maintains its shape and, at times, allows its mobility by which of the following structures?

A

Cytoskeleton

98
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes dividing a gonadal cell into four daughter cells, spermatozoa or ova?
A

Meiosis

99
Q

Many glands in the body are formed by modification and transformation of which of the following primary tissue?

A

Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

biology of disease (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions