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0
Q

the otto cycle contains what stages?

A

induction
compression
ignition
exhaust

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1
Q

what is the general layout for light aircraft engines

A

horizontally opposed

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2
Q

what position is the piston during the compression phase

A

top-dead centre

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3
Q

what position is the piston in during the ignition stage?

A

bottom dead centre

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4
Q

what two things is the crankshaft mainly responsible for?

A

pushing the pistons up and down

turning the propellor (they are directly connected)

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5
Q

what do the magnetos do

A

provide electric current to the spark plug

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6
Q

how many spark plugs are there dedicated to a single magneto

A

4

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7
Q

what is contained in the cylinder head

A

spark plugs and valves

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8
Q

what does the cylinder barrel house

A

the piston

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9
Q

what is the inlet valve responsible for

A

letting air into the combustion chamber

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10
Q

what is the exhaust valve responsible for

A

allows exhaust gas to escape the combustion chamber

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11
Q

how many spark plugs does the 172 have

A

8

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12
Q

if the battery went flat what would happen to the engine

A

nothing as they are independent of each other

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13
Q

what would indicate that the alternator has failed (in terms of instrument reading)

A

0 reading on the ammeter

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14
Q

a complete loss in brake fluid would be recognised by

A

no pressure felt in the brakes

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15
Q

during shutdown there is no drop in rpm when the left mag is selected, what would this indicate

A

a magneto is not being earthed

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16
Q

detonation may result if

A

the octane rating of fuel is not sufficient

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17
Q

the function of the trim tab is to

A

relieve control column forces in flight

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18
Q

detonation will cause what effects

A

vibration, reducedower, increased cht

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19
Q

why should prolonged use of the carburettor on the ground be avoided

A

the air is unfiltered which may bring dust and other bad particles into the engine

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20
Q

high power with a lean mixture may result in

A

pre-ignition

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21
Q

why is there a loss in rom when the carby is used

A

hotter air = less dense air

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22
Q

the asi operates off

A

pitot pressure and static pressure

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23
Q

should the compass be used if the fluid is discoloured

A

no

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24
Q

where does the carby inject fuel into

A

the venturi

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25
Q

under what conditions is the carby especially prone to icing

A

60% humidity

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26
Q

the three types of carby icing include

A

throttle ice
fuel vaporisation
impact ice

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27
Q

all fuel systems require

A 
fuel tank
vent
drain
selector valve
fuel quantity gauge
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28
Q

gravity fed fuel systems will fail if

A

the vent is blocked

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29
Q

what are the pros of a fuel injection system

A

can be operated upside down
more efficient than a carby
no possibility of icing

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30
Q

what are the cons of a fuel injection system

A

harder to start in high temperatures

fuel lines are thin and prone to vapour locks

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31
Q

what can be used to get rid of vapour locks in a fuel injected system

A

fuel booster

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32
Q

what is detonation

A

when fuel that is too hot is entered into the cylinder and as a result, explodes prematurely rather than at a uniform rate (thus exerting massive amounts of pressure on the piston/crankshaft)

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33
Q

what does a high cht mean for detonation

A

it makes it worse

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34
Q

what are some of the symptoms of detonation

A 
rising CHT 
rising oil temperature 
significant power loss
engine vibration 
pinging noise from the engine
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35
Q

how is detonation resolved

A

mixture rich
reduced engine power
increased airspeed to cool engine
cowl flap

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36
Q

what is an octane rating

A

resistance to detonation

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37
Q

what is the colour of AVGAS 100/130

A

green

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38
Q

what is the colour of AVGAS 100LL

A

blue

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39
Q

what is the colour of AVTUR

A

yellow/clear

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40
Q

what is the colour of MOGAS

A

red

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41
Q

if a single magneto is chosen from both and there is no rpm drop, what could this mean

A

fault in switch or wiring and as a result both mags remain live

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42
Q

if there is excessive rpm drop when selecting alternate mags, what could this mean

A

spark plugs faulty/spark plugs fouled with oil

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43
Q

what is spark plug fouling

A

unburnt oil in cylinders mixing with electrodes on the spark plug

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44
Q

what is impulse coupling

A

a spring gear mechanism to help generate magneto spin at startup to give the spark plugs current

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45
Q

what is manifold pressure

A

pressure at the inlet manifold

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46
Q

what does a high/low manifold pressure indicate

A

high=high power setting

low=low power setting

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47
Q

what is the oil system responsible for

A

lubrication
cooling
cleaning

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48
Q

what is oil with high/low viscosity like

A

high=thick/sticky

low=thin/runny

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49
Q

what happens if the oil cooler is blocked

A

a bypass is opened for oil to bypass the cooler

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50
Q

what can high oil pressure indicate

A

cold oil (harder to push) or blockage

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51
Q

what can low oil pressure indicate

A

hot oil (easy to push) or low oil quantity

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52
Q

what is the casa minimum/max for oil

A

5 quarts

8 quarts

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53
Q

what is the CAE Oxford minimum for oil quantity

A

6 quarts

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54
Q

what colour smoke is produced if the mixture is too rich

A

blue/black

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55
Q

what is pre-ignition

A

when the fuel is too hot before the spark plugs initiate the combustion and the mixture explodes in the cylinder.

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56
Q

what is the alternator powered by

A

the engine

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57
Q

why is the battery kept in a well ventilated space

A

because the build up in hydrogen gas can cause an explosive reaction

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58
Q

what is the distribution hub of the electrical system

A

the BUSBAR

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59
Q

is excessive positive charge in the 172 okay?

A

no, and excessive negative or positive charge should indicate the alternator or the battery is faulty

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60
Q

what is the procedure to repair an alternator malfunction

A

master off
circuit breaker in
master on

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61
Q

how many times should you reset a circuit breaker

A

once only, and only after it has cooled down

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62
Q

what is the maximum amount of time the starter motor should be used in one turn

A

5 seconds

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63
Q

how does the altimeter get its reading

A

measures the difference in pressure between capsule air presser and ambient pressure

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64
Q

how does the vsi get its readings

A

measures difference between capsule and surrounding air.

greater difference=greater rate of climb/descent

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65
Q

in terms of the asi reading, what happens if our pitot tube is blocked

A

the reading will be the same as long as the altitude stays the same.

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66
Q

if the pitot tube is blocked, will the asi over or under read on descent

A

under read

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67
Q

if the pitot tube is blocked, will the asi over or under read while climbing

A

over read

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68
Q

if the static vent is blocked, how will it affect the altimeter

A

on climb it will under read

on descent it will over read

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69
Q

if the static vent is blocked how will it affect the vsi

A

over read on descent

under read while climbing

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70
Q

in relation to gyroscopes, what is rigidity

A

the tendency for the rotating mass to remain in the same plane of rotation in space

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71
Q

in relation to gyroscopes, what is precession

A

the tendency for a force applied to the rotating mass to be displaced by 90 degrees in the direction of rotation

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72
Q

does the plane rotate around the directional gyro card or the other way around

A

the plane rotates around the directional gyro (it uses the gyroscopic property of rigidity)

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73
Q

which gyroscopic tendency does the turn coordinator use

A

precession

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74
Q

what does imsafe stand for

A 
illness
medication
stress
alcohol
fatigue 
emotioms/eating
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75
Q

how many hours must you wait to fly if you have had local anaesthetic

A

24 hrs

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76
Q

how many hours must you wait to fly if you have had general anaesthetic

A

72 hours

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77
Q

how long must you wait to fly if you have donated blood

A

24 hrs

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78
Q

what is considered a healthy blood pressure

A

120/80

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79
Q

what is the most common cause of illness to pilots and what causes it

A

gastroenteritis

caused by food or drink poisoning

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80
Q

if carbon monoxide is leaked into the cabin what measures should be taken

A

cabin heat valves shut
fresh air vents opened
use oxygen if available
land asap

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81
Q

what causes baratrauma and or pressure vertigo

A

when the eustachian tube becomes blocked and prevents altitude pressurisation

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82
Q

if you hold class 1 how long do you have to be sick for before you need to see a DAME

A

7 days

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83
Q

if you hold class 2 how long do you have to be sick for before you need to see a DAME

A

30 days

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84
Q

are you allowed to fly while using medication

A

it depends, but there are many common medicines that are incompatible with flying

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85
Q

besides beathing, what other factor is heavily influenced by smoking

A

night vision

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86
Q

how long is visual information stored in STM

A

.5-1 second

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87
Q

how long is audio information stored in STM

A

4-8 seconds

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88
Q

how long can our working memory keep items and in what form

A

10-20 seconds unless undergoing rehearsal

acoustic form

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89
Q

the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are responsible for what

A

creating a stress response (sympathetic) and relaxing afterwards (parasympathetic)
both part of the autonomic nervous system

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90
Q

is arousal good or bad for completing tasks

A

there is a level of optimal arousal

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91
Q

between what temperatures humidity does the brain operate best

A

21-27 degrees celcius

50%humidity

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92
Q

at what temperature does hypothermia become a big concern

A

10 degrees celcius

93
Q

how long can alcohol remain in the bloodstream after drinking

A

14 hours

94
Q

how long can alcohol remain in brain cells after consumption

A

24 hrs

95
Q

ehat are the two types of fatigue

A

acute (caused by short term events such as 1 night bad sleep) and chronic (caused by long term factors such as lifestyle)

96
Q

what are some of the symptoms of fatigue

A

inability to think clearly
reduced physical stamina
monotonous and complex tasks affected before sensory perceptions and motor programs

97
Q

what is hypoxia

A

the reduction of oxygen intake as an increased altitude causes a decrease in air pressure

98
Q

why is hypoxia so dangerous

A

the oxygen percentage remains the same (and so the brain doesnt detect any issues)

99
Q

in order to avoid hypoxia, at what altitude must oxygen be supplied at

A

10,000 feet

100
Q

as we reach higher altitudes, the effects of hypoxia reduce our time of useful consciousness. at 18,000 ft, 28,000 ft and 40,000 ft, what are the times.

A

20 min moderate activity and 30 min minimal activity
1 min moderate activity and 90 sec minimal activity
12 sec moderate activity and 15 sec minimal activity

101
Q

what is barotrauma

A

pain caused by pressure changes

102
Q

if scuba diving and did not require a decompression stop, how long must you wait before flying

A

4 hrs

103
Q

if scuba diving and did require a decompression stop was less than 4 hours, how long must you wait before flying

A

12 hours

104
Q

if scuba diving and did require a decompression stop was more than 4 hours, how long must you wait before flying

A

48 hrs

105
Q

at what db level will excessive exposure damage the ears

A

80db

106
Q

what is the organ responsible for our sense of balance

A

otolith organ

107
Q

what are the semicircular canals responsible for

A

detecting angular acceleration

108
Q

how is our orientation in space managed in terms of body part percentage

A

80% eyes
10% skeletal muscles and joints
10% vestibular organs (inner ear)

109
Q

what are rods for

A

movement and peripheral vision

110
Q

what are cones for

A

colour and fine detail (not very effective at night)

111
Q

why is looking off centre better for your vision at night time

A

because the rods are more effective than the cones at night time and are responsible for peripheral vision

112
Q

why is a plane at your 45 that remains in that position bad

A

because it means you are on a collision course

113
Q

what is decompression sickness caused by

A

nitrogen gas coming out of solution

114
Q

a change in the acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels is likely a result of….

A

hyperventilation

115
Q

at what g level will you usually grey out

A

3.5

116
Q

what are the priorities of survival

A

protection, location, water and food

117
Q

barotrauma is most likely to occur during….

A

descent

118
Q

what is the CAR

A

Civil Aviation Regulations

rules for air and ground regulations

119
Q

what are CAOs

A

Civil Aviation Orders

specific information on day to day operation of aircraft

120
Q

what is the AIP

A

Aeronautical Information Publication

australian airspace info

121
Q

what is the CAAP

A

Civil Aviation Aeronautical Publication
gives specific advise on how to comply with CARs and CAO

E.G.how much fuel is considered sufficient

122
Q

what is the ERSA

A

En-Route Supplement Australia

used during pre flight planning

123
Q

what is a VTC

A

Visual Terminal Chart

scale 1:250,000

124
Q

what is a VNC

A

Visual Navigation Chart

1:500,000

125
Q

what does an SPL allow you to do

A

conduct an instructor authorised flight and operate the radio during flight

126
Q

where may an SPL holder fly

A

circuit area
training area where 2 hrs prior PIC experience is necessary
along a route specified by the instructor

127
Q

how many consecutive PIC hours can a SPL holder carry?

A

3 hrs without GFPT

15 hrs with GFPT

128
Q

if a SPL pilot has passed the GFPT, how recently must they have flown to go solo

A

90 days dual or solo

129
Q

if a SPL pilot hasnt passed the GFPT, how recently must they have flown to go solo

A

30 days dual or solo

130
Q

can an instructor authorise a student to conduct activities requiring a rating

A

nope

131
Q

what is the latest time you can land without a night rating (and oxford requirement)

A

10 min before end of daylight

oxford=30

132
Q

when does daylight start

A

when the sun is 6 degrees below the celestial horizon

133
Q

when does daylight end

A

sun reaches 6 degrees below the celestial horizon

134
Q

if two planes are on a collision course (45 degrees), who has right of way

A

the pilot with the other to the right must give way

the other plane should maintain heading and speed

135
Q

what is the vertical and horizontal recommended separation distance between aircraft

A

600m horizontal

500ft vertical

136
Q

if two planes are heading straight towards each other head on, which way must they BOTH turn

A

right

137
Q

when overtaking, who has right of way

A

the aircraft being overtaken

138
Q

where must the overtake take place

A

to the right of the other aircraft at the same level

139
Q

describe class A airspace

A

controlled
IFR
VFR flights NOT permitted
24000 to 60000 ft

140
Q

describe class C airspace

A

radar controlled
clearance required
transponder required

141
Q

what is special VFR?

A

when the weather is incredibly bad, and you can see only >1600m and can fly clear of cloud.
requires clearance.

142
Q

what airspace is special VFR permitted in

A

C & D

143
Q

describe class D airspace

A 
requires clearance
same as class C BUT DOES NOT HAVE RADAR
144
Q

what is the minimum clear of cloud distance in class C and E airspace

A

150m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical

145
Q

what is the visibility requirements above and below 10000 ft in class C and E airspace

A

8km above

5km below

146
Q

in class D airspace, what is the minimum cloud separation distance

A

600 metres horizontal
500ft above
1000ft below

147
Q

what is the visibility requirements for class D airspace

A

5km

148
Q

describe class E airspace

A

VFR flights may operate without approval (but must follow VFR rules)
transponder code 1200 on alt
18000ft to base of class A

149
Q

how is the transponder set around the circuit

A

3000

stby

150
Q

describe class G airspace

A 
uncontrolled
runs on see and avoid principle
1000ft AGL (unless weather affects it)
151
Q

what is the minimum cloud separation above 10000ft in class G

A

1500m horizontal

1000ft vertical

152
Q

what is the minimum cloud separation above 3000ft in class G

A

1000ft vertical

1500 metres horizontal

153
Q

what is the minimum cloud separation above 1000ft in class G

A

clear of cloud

154
Q

what are the requirements of visibility for the different levels of class G

A

> 10000ft=8km
3000ft=5km
1000ft=5km

155
Q

what are the minimum heights you may fly over terrain

A

500ft non populated area
1000ft populated area
(600m) around an object

156
Q

no fuel tank filling points can be within

A

5m of a sealed building
6m of other stationary aircraft
15m of any exposed public area
15m of any unsealed building for aircraft with MTOW >5700kg
9m of any unsealed building for aircraft with MTOW <5700kg

157
Q

when refuelling and aircraft, fire extinguishers must be kept within

A

> 5 but <15 m

158
Q

when must the fuel be checked

A

1st flight of each day

after each refuelling

159
Q

an aircraft shall not be started or operated within

A

5m of any sealed building
8m of other aircraft
15m of any exposed public area
8m of any unsealed building (<5700kg MTOW)

160
Q

what do you do when your radio fails in terms of calls

A

keeping making your normal calls, but begin with “transmitting blind”

161
Q

what code do you squawk if your radio fails

A

7600

162
Q

what does a steady green light to aircraft on the ground and air

A

ground= authorised to takeoff if satisfied

air=authorised to land

163
Q

what does a flashing green light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air

A

ground= authorised to taxi

air=return for landing

164
Q

what does a steady red light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air

A 
ground= stop
air= continue circling and give way
165
Q

what does a flashing red light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air

A

ground=taxi clear of landing area

air= do not land

166
Q

what does a steady white light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air

A

ground=return to starting point on aerodro

air=nothing

167
Q

if taking off and turning in the opposite direction to the circuit, what distance is required

A

1500ft AAL and 3nm from the aerodrome reference point

168
Q

what separation from other aircraft is required for takeoff at a non-controlled aerodrome

A

the preceding aircraft must have finished the upwind leg or commenced a turn
for cross runways, landing aircraft must have passed or stopped at the intersection

169
Q

in terms of landing, who has right of way

A

lower aircraft have right of way to higher aircraft AND AIRCRAFT ON THE GROUND

170
Q

when joining a circuit at a non-controlled aerodrome what measures must be taken

A

min 3 legs of circuit must be flown including downwind
overfly at 1500ft AGL and observe wind and traffic direction
descend to 1000ft on the dead side
fly parallel and join on crosswind

171
Q

when must seatbelts be worn

A

takeoff and landing
instrument approach
less than 1000ft above terrain
turbulence

172
Q

parasite drag can be split into tree parts including

A 
form drag (results from airflow separation)
interference drag (caused by air mixing at various surfaces)
skin friction drag (friction between air and object is it passing over)
173
Q

eddies and vortices are a product of

A

induced drag

174
Q

when airspeed increases,what type of drag increases and what type decreases

A

parasite drag increases

induced drag decreases

175
Q

what is the critical angle for most GA aircraft

A

16 degrees

176
Q

dihedral wings make the aircraft more….

A

stable

177
Q

anhedral wings make the aircraft…..

A

less stable

178
Q

during a 30 degree turn, what lift should be generated

A
  1. 2 times more lift than weight

i. e. 1.2 gs will be felt

179
Q

at what speed can stg 1 flaps be deployed on the cessna 172

A

110 knots but no above

180
Q

what speed gives us best angle of climb

A

62 knots

181
Q

what speed gives us best rate of climb

A

74 kts

182
Q

what is the Vcrz speed for takeoff

A

90 kts

183
Q

what is the glide ratio and speed for the cessna 172

A

9:1

68kts

184
Q

what is the key identifying difference between a spin and a spiral dive

A

airspeed
spin: low airspeed (such as that of a stalled aircraft)
spiral dive: associated with high increasing airspeed and loud engine noise

185
Q

what is the standard temperature at sea level

A

15 degrees

186
Q

what is the Hpa drop rate

A

1 Hpa for every 30 ft

187
Q

what is the temperature drop rate

A

2 (1.98) degrees for every 1000 ft

188
Q

which has a greater effect on density, pressure or temperature

A

pressure

189
Q

what is the equation for pressure height

A

elevation + ( (1013-QNH) x 30)

190
Q

will a lower QNH make our performance better or worse

A

worse

191
Q

what does the take off distance (TODA) consist of

A

length of runway available + length of the clearway

192
Q

what is TODR

A

take off distance required

distance required to take off from a standing start to 50ft above the take off surface

193
Q

in terms of TODR, what safety factor is applied for aircraft with MTOW <2000 kg

A

1.15

194
Q

as humidity increases, what happens to performance

A

it decreases

195
Q

what does empty weight consist of

A 
airframe
engine
fixed equipment
unusable fuel
undrainable oil
196
Q

what does basic empty weight consist of

A 
airframe
engine
fixed equipment 
unusable fuel
FULL OIL
other items necessary for flight
197
Q

what is the zero fuel weight

A 
basic empty weight 
            \+
pilot
passengers
baggage
BUT USEABLE FUEL IS NOT INCLUDED
198
Q

at what height is the height assumed to be constant and what is the temeprature

A

36090

-56.5 degrees celsius

199
Q

what is a supercooled droplet

A

a droplet that is below freezing point but pressure prevents it from freezing

200
Q

the updrafts in developing thunderstorms can reach up to…

A

5000 ft/minute

201
Q

during the mature stage of a thunderstorm, what direction are the drafts

A

downwards

202
Q

how are hail stones formed

A

iceflakes that are sent upward through the cloud where they collide with supercooled droplets to form bigger hail stones

203
Q

where do encounters with hail usually occur

A

10000-20000 feet

204
Q

what distance can the effects of thunderstorms be felt

A

up to 10 miles away

205
Q

how are clouds described

A 
oktas (1 okta = 1/8 of sky)
few = 1–2 oktas
scattered = 3-4
broken =5-7
overcast = 8
206
Q

what does CAVOK mean

A

visibility is > 10km

207
Q

what cloud usually is associated with rain

A

nimbostratus

208
Q

why are cumulonimbus clouds bad

A

they are usually the lead up to a storm

209
Q

clouds which are larger vertically usually have…

A

more turbulence around them

210
Q

what defines fog in terms of visibilty

A

vis less than 1000 metres

211
Q

what defines mist

A

vis greater than 1000 m

212
Q

why do we get stratus clouds instead of fog

A

strong winds lift the cloud

213
Q

when will fog dissipate

A

when the fog temperature becomes greater than the dew point

214
Q

do danger areas require clearance to enter

A

dont require

215
Q

do restricted areas require a clearance

A

always

216
Q

what heading do maps use

A

degrees true

217
Q

what heading do runways and navigation use

A

degrees magnetic

218
Q

why do we calculate the true bearing

A

if east, subtract the variation

if west, add the variation

219
Q

1 nautical mile/hour =

A

1 knot

220
Q

ltr to gallon conversion is

A

3.75lt=1 us gallon

221
Q

how do we express christmas day at 10 in the morning in 6 figures

A

251000

222
Q

how do we express valentines day at 8:15 in the morning in 8 figures

A

02140815

note that the month goes first

223
Q

how many hours ahead is EST to UTC

A

10 hours

224
Q

runway lengths, widths and surfaces are usually given in which document

A

ERSA

225
Q

what are sky waves

A

those that are refracted back to the earth by the ionosphere

226
Q

in terms of radio eaves, what is attenuation

A

the gradual loss of radio wave strength through a medium

227
Q

what does acknowledge mean

A

let me know that you have received and understood the message

228
Q

what does break mean

A

i indicate the separation between portions of the message (used when there are no clear distinction between the text and other portions of the message)

229
Q

what does break break mean

A

i indicate the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft

230
Q

what does how do you read mean

A

how does my transmission read

reply with readability (1-5) where 1=unreadable 5=perfect

231
Q

what does wilco mean

A

understand your message and will comply with it

aviation bak (1 decks)

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