bak Flashcards
the otto cycle contains what stages?
induction
compression
ignition
exhaust
what is the general layout for light aircraft engines
horizontally opposed
what position is the piston during the compression phase
top-dead centre
what position is the piston in during the ignition stage?
bottom dead centre
what two things is the crankshaft mainly responsible for?
pushing the pistons up and down
turning the propellor (they are directly connected)
what do the magnetos do
provide electric current to the spark plug
how many spark plugs are there dedicated to a single magneto
4
what is contained in the cylinder head
spark plugs and valves
what does the cylinder barrel house
the piston
what is the inlet valve responsible for
letting air into the combustion chamber
what is the exhaust valve responsible for
allows exhaust gas to escape the combustion chamber
how many spark plugs does the 172 have
8
if the battery went flat what would happen to the engine
nothing as they are independent of each other
what would indicate that the alternator has failed (in terms of instrument reading)
0 reading on the ammeter
a complete loss in brake fluid would be recognised by
no pressure felt in the brakes
during shutdown there is no drop in rpm when the left mag is selected, what would this indicate
a magneto is not being earthed
detonation may result if
the octane rating of fuel is not sufficient
the function of the trim tab is to
relieve control column forces in flight
detonation will cause what effects
vibration, reducedower, increased cht
why should prolonged use of the carburettor on the ground be avoided
the air is unfiltered which may bring dust and other bad particles into the engine
high power with a lean mixture may result in
pre-ignition
why is there a loss in rom when the carby is used
hotter air = less dense air
the asi operates off
pitot pressure and static pressure
should the compass be used if the fluid is discoloured
no
where does the carby inject fuel into
the venturi
under what conditions is the carby especially prone to icing
60% humidity
the three types of carby icing include
throttle ice
fuel vaporisation
impact ice
all fuel systems require
fuel tank vent drain selector valve fuel quantity gauge
gravity fed fuel systems will fail if
the vent is blocked
what are the pros of a fuel injection system
can be operated upside down
more efficient than a carby
no possibility of icing
what are the cons of a fuel injection system
harder to start in high temperatures
fuel lines are thin and prone to vapour locks
what can be used to get rid of vapour locks in a fuel injected system
fuel booster
what is detonation
when fuel that is too hot is entered into the cylinder and as a result, explodes prematurely rather than at a uniform rate (thus exerting massive amounts of pressure on the piston/crankshaft)
what does a high cht mean for detonation
it makes it worse
what are some of the symptoms of detonation
rising CHT rising oil temperature significant power loss engine vibration pinging noise from the engine
how is detonation resolved
mixture rich
reduced engine power
increased airspeed to cool engine
cowl flap
what is an octane rating
resistance to detonation
what is the colour of AVGAS 100/130
green
what is the colour of AVGAS 100LL
blue
what is the colour of AVTUR
yellow/clear
what is the colour of MOGAS
red
if a single magneto is chosen from both and there is no rpm drop, what could this mean
fault in switch or wiring and as a result both mags remain live
if there is excessive rpm drop when selecting alternate mags, what could this mean
spark plugs faulty/spark plugs fouled with oil
what is spark plug fouling
unburnt oil in cylinders mixing with electrodes on the spark plug
what is impulse coupling
a spring gear mechanism to help generate magneto spin at startup to give the spark plugs current
what is manifold pressure
pressure at the inlet manifold
what does a high/low manifold pressure indicate
high=high power setting
low=low power setting
what is the oil system responsible for
lubrication
cooling
cleaning
what is oil with high/low viscosity like
high=thick/sticky
low=thin/runny
what happens if the oil cooler is blocked
a bypass is opened for oil to bypass the cooler
what can high oil pressure indicate
cold oil (harder to push) or blockage
what can low oil pressure indicate
hot oil (easy to push) or low oil quantity
what is the casa minimum/max for oil
5 quarts
8 quarts
what is the CAE Oxford minimum for oil quantity
6 quarts
what colour smoke is produced if the mixture is too rich
blue/black
what is pre-ignition
when the fuel is too hot before the spark plugs initiate the combustion and the mixture explodes in the cylinder.
what is the alternator powered by
the engine
why is the battery kept in a well ventilated space
because the build up in hydrogen gas can cause an explosive reaction
what is the distribution hub of the electrical system
the BUSBAR
is excessive positive charge in the 172 okay?
no, and excessive negative or positive charge should indicate the alternator or the battery is faulty
what is the procedure to repair an alternator malfunction
master off
circuit breaker in
master on
how many times should you reset a circuit breaker
once only, and only after it has cooled down
what is the maximum amount of time the starter motor should be used in one turn
5 seconds
how does the altimeter get its reading
measures the difference in pressure between capsule air presser and ambient pressure
how does the vsi get its readings
measures difference between capsule and surrounding air.
greater difference=greater rate of climb/descent
in terms of the asi reading, what happens if our pitot tube is blocked
the reading will be the same as long as the altitude stays the same.
if the pitot tube is blocked, will the asi over or under read on descent
under read
if the pitot tube is blocked, will the asi over or under read while climbing
over read
if the static vent is blocked, how will it affect the altimeter
on climb it will under read
on descent it will over read
if the static vent is blocked how will it affect the vsi
over read on descent
under read while climbing
in relation to gyroscopes, what is rigidity
the tendency for the rotating mass to remain in the same plane of rotation in space
in relation to gyroscopes, what is precession
the tendency for a force applied to the rotating mass to be displaced by 90 degrees in the direction of rotation
does the plane rotate around the directional gyro card or the other way around
the plane rotates around the directional gyro (it uses the gyroscopic property of rigidity)
which gyroscopic tendency does the turn coordinator use
precession
what does imsafe stand for
illness medication stress alcohol fatigue emotioms/eating
how many hours must you wait to fly if you have had local anaesthetic
24 hrs
how many hours must you wait to fly if you have had general anaesthetic
72 hours
how long must you wait to fly if you have donated blood
24 hrs
what is considered a healthy blood pressure
120/80
what is the most common cause of illness to pilots and what causes it
gastroenteritis
caused by food or drink poisoning
if carbon monoxide is leaked into the cabin what measures should be taken
cabin heat valves shut
fresh air vents opened
use oxygen if available
land asap
what causes baratrauma and or pressure vertigo
when the eustachian tube becomes blocked and prevents altitude pressurisation
if you hold class 1 how long do you have to be sick for before you need to see a DAME
7 days
if you hold class 2 how long do you have to be sick for before you need to see a DAME
30 days
are you allowed to fly while using medication
it depends, but there are many common medicines that are incompatible with flying
besides beathing, what other factor is heavily influenced by smoking
night vision
how long is visual information stored in STM
.5-1 second
how long is audio information stored in STM
4-8 seconds
how long can our working memory keep items and in what form
10-20 seconds unless undergoing rehearsal
acoustic form
the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems are responsible for what
creating a stress response (sympathetic) and relaxing afterwards (parasympathetic)
both part of the autonomic nervous system
is arousal good or bad for completing tasks
there is a level of optimal arousal
between what temperatures humidity does the brain operate best
21-27 degrees celcius
50%humidity
at what temperature does hypothermia become a big concern
10 degrees celcius
how long can alcohol remain in the bloodstream after drinking
14 hours
how long can alcohol remain in brain cells after consumption
24 hrs
ehat are the two types of fatigue
acute (caused by short term events such as 1 night bad sleep) and chronic (caused by long term factors such as lifestyle)
what are some of the symptoms of fatigue
inability to think clearly
reduced physical stamina
monotonous and complex tasks affected before sensory perceptions and motor programs
what is hypoxia
the reduction of oxygen intake as an increased altitude causes a decrease in air pressure
why is hypoxia so dangerous
the oxygen percentage remains the same (and so the brain doesnt detect any issues)
in order to avoid hypoxia, at what altitude must oxygen be supplied at
10,000 feet
as we reach higher altitudes, the effects of hypoxia reduce our time of useful consciousness. at 18,000 ft, 28,000 ft and 40,000 ft, what are the times.
20 min moderate activity and 30 min minimal activity
1 min moderate activity and 90 sec minimal activity
12 sec moderate activity and 15 sec minimal activity
what is barotrauma
pain caused by pressure changes
if scuba diving and did not require a decompression stop, how long must you wait before flying
4 hrs
if scuba diving and did require a decompression stop was less than 4 hours, how long must you wait before flying
12 hours
if scuba diving and did require a decompression stop was more than 4 hours, how long must you wait before flying
48 hrs
at what db level will excessive exposure damage the ears
80db
what is the organ responsible for our sense of balance
otolith organ
what are the semicircular canals responsible for
detecting angular acceleration
how is our orientation in space managed in terms of body part percentage
80% eyes
10% skeletal muscles and joints
10% vestibular organs (inner ear)
what are rods for
movement and peripheral vision
what are cones for
colour and fine detail (not very effective at night)
why is looking off centre better for your vision at night time
because the rods are more effective than the cones at night time and are responsible for peripheral vision
why is a plane at your 45 that remains in that position bad
because it means you are on a collision course
what is decompression sickness caused by
nitrogen gas coming out of solution
a change in the acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels is likely a result of….
hyperventilation
at what g level will you usually grey out
3.5
what are the priorities of survival
protection, location, water and food
barotrauma is most likely to occur during….
descent
what is the CAR
Civil Aviation Regulations
rules for air and ground regulations
what are CAOs
Civil Aviation Orders
specific information on day to day operation of aircraft
what is the AIP
Aeronautical Information Publication
australian airspace info
what is the CAAP
Civil Aviation Aeronautical Publication
gives specific advise on how to comply with CARs and CAO
E.G.how much fuel is considered sufficient
what is the ERSA
En-Route Supplement Australia
used during pre flight planning
what is a VTC
Visual Terminal Chart
scale 1:250,000
what is a VNC
Visual Navigation Chart
1:500,000
what does an SPL allow you to do
conduct an instructor authorised flight and operate the radio during flight
where may an SPL holder fly
circuit area
training area where 2 hrs prior PIC experience is necessary
along a route specified by the instructor
how many consecutive PIC hours can a SPL holder carry?
3 hrs without GFPT
15 hrs with GFPT
if a SPL pilot has passed the GFPT, how recently must they have flown to go solo
90 days dual or solo
if a SPL pilot hasnt passed the GFPT, how recently must they have flown to go solo
30 days dual or solo
can an instructor authorise a student to conduct activities requiring a rating
nope
what is the latest time you can land without a night rating (and oxford requirement)
10 min before end of daylight
oxford=30
when does daylight start
when the sun is 6 degrees below the celestial horizon
when does daylight end
sun reaches 6 degrees below the celestial horizon
if two planes are on a collision course (45 degrees), who has right of way
the pilot with the other to the right must give way
the other plane should maintain heading and speed
what is the vertical and horizontal recommended separation distance between aircraft
600m horizontal
500ft vertical
if two planes are heading straight towards each other head on, which way must they BOTH turn
right
when overtaking, who has right of way
the aircraft being overtaken
where must the overtake take place
to the right of the other aircraft at the same level
describe class A airspace
controlled
IFR
VFR flights NOT permitted
24000 to 60000 ft
describe class C airspace
radar controlled
clearance required
transponder required
what is special VFR?
when the weather is incredibly bad, and you can see only >1600m and can fly clear of cloud.
requires clearance.
what airspace is special VFR permitted in
C & D
describe class D airspace
requires clearance same as class C BUT DOES NOT HAVE RADAR
what is the minimum clear of cloud distance in class C and E airspace
150m horizontal, 1000 ft vertical
what is the visibility requirements above and below 10000 ft in class C and E airspace
8km above
5km below
in class D airspace, what is the minimum cloud separation distance
600 metres horizontal
500ft above
1000ft below
what is the visibility requirements for class D airspace
5km
describe class E airspace
VFR flights may operate without approval (but must follow VFR rules)
transponder code 1200 on alt
18000ft to base of class A
how is the transponder set around the circuit
3000
stby
describe class G airspace
uncontrolled runs on see and avoid principle 1000ft AGL (unless weather affects it)
what is the minimum cloud separation above 10000ft in class G
1500m horizontal
1000ft vertical
what is the minimum cloud separation above 3000ft in class G
1000ft vertical
1500 metres horizontal
what is the minimum cloud separation above 1000ft in class G
clear of cloud
what are the requirements of visibility for the different levels of class G
> 10000ft=8km
3000ft=5km
1000ft=5km
what are the minimum heights you may fly over terrain
500ft non populated area
1000ft populated area
(600m) around an object
no fuel tank filling points can be within
5m of a sealed building
6m of other stationary aircraft
15m of any exposed public area
15m of any unsealed building for aircraft with MTOW >5700kg
9m of any unsealed building for aircraft with MTOW <5700kg
when refuelling and aircraft, fire extinguishers must be kept within
> 5 but <15 m
when must the fuel be checked
1st flight of each day
after each refuelling
an aircraft shall not be started or operated within
5m of any sealed building
8m of other aircraft
15m of any exposed public area
8m of any unsealed building (<5700kg MTOW)
what do you do when your radio fails in terms of calls
keeping making your normal calls, but begin with “transmitting blind”
what code do you squawk if your radio fails
7600
what does a steady green light to aircraft on the ground and air
ground= authorised to takeoff if satisfied
air=authorised to land
what does a flashing green light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
ground= authorised to taxi
air=return for landing
what does a steady red light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
ground= stop air= continue circling and give way
what does a flashing red light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
ground=taxi clear of landing area
air= do not land
what does a steady white light mean to aircraft on the ground and in the air
ground=return to starting point on aerodro
air=nothing
if taking off and turning in the opposite direction to the circuit, what distance is required
1500ft AAL and 3nm from the aerodrome reference point
what separation from other aircraft is required for takeoff at a non-controlled aerodrome
the preceding aircraft must have finished the upwind leg or commenced a turn
for cross runways, landing aircraft must have passed or stopped at the intersection
in terms of landing, who has right of way
lower aircraft have right of way to higher aircraft AND AIRCRAFT ON THE GROUND
when joining a circuit at a non-controlled aerodrome what measures must be taken
min 3 legs of circuit must be flown including downwind
overfly at 1500ft AGL and observe wind and traffic direction
descend to 1000ft on the dead side
fly parallel and join on crosswind
when must seatbelts be worn
takeoff and landing
instrument approach
less than 1000ft above terrain
turbulence
parasite drag can be split into tree parts including
form drag (results from airflow separation) interference drag (caused by air mixing at various surfaces) skin friction drag (friction between air and object is it passing over)
eddies and vortices are a product of
induced drag
when airspeed increases,what type of drag increases and what type decreases
parasite drag increases
induced drag decreases
what is the critical angle for most GA aircraft
16 degrees
dihedral wings make the aircraft more….
stable
anhedral wings make the aircraft…..
less stable
during a 30 degree turn, what lift should be generated
- 2 times more lift than weight
i. e. 1.2 gs will be felt
at what speed can stg 1 flaps be deployed on the cessna 172
110 knots but no above
what speed gives us best angle of climb
62 knots
what speed gives us best rate of climb
74 kts
what is the Vcrz speed for takeoff
90 kts
what is the glide ratio and speed for the cessna 172
9:1
68kts
what is the key identifying difference between a spin and a spiral dive
airspeed
spin: low airspeed (such as that of a stalled aircraft)
spiral dive: associated with high increasing airspeed and loud engine noise
what is the standard temperature at sea level
15 degrees
what is the Hpa drop rate
1 Hpa for every 30 ft
what is the temperature drop rate
2 (1.98) degrees for every 1000 ft
which has a greater effect on density, pressure or temperature
pressure
what is the equation for pressure height
elevation + ( (1013-QNH) x 30)
will a lower QNH make our performance better or worse
worse
what does the take off distance (TODA) consist of
length of runway available + length of the clearway
what is TODR
take off distance required
distance required to take off from a standing start to 50ft above the take off surface
in terms of TODR, what safety factor is applied for aircraft with MTOW <2000 kg
1.15
as humidity increases, what happens to performance
it decreases
what does empty weight consist of
airframe engine fixed equipment unusable fuel undrainable oil
what does basic empty weight consist of
airframe engine fixed equipment unusable fuel FULL OIL other items necessary for flight
what is the zero fuel weight
basic empty weight
\+
pilot
passengers
baggage
BUT USEABLE FUEL IS NOT INCLUDEDat what height is the height assumed to be constant and what is the temeprature
36090
-56.5 degrees celsius
what is a supercooled droplet
a droplet that is below freezing point but pressure prevents it from freezing
the updrafts in developing thunderstorms can reach up to…
5000 ft/minute
during the mature stage of a thunderstorm, what direction are the drafts
downwards
how are hail stones formed
iceflakes that are sent upward through the cloud where they collide with supercooled droplets to form bigger hail stones
where do encounters with hail usually occur
10000-20000 feet
what distance can the effects of thunderstorms be felt
up to 10 miles away
how are clouds described
oktas (1 okta = 1/8 of sky) few = 1–2 oktas scattered = 3-4 broken =5-7 overcast = 8
what does CAVOK mean
visibility is > 10km
what cloud usually is associated with rain
nimbostratus
why are cumulonimbus clouds bad
they are usually the lead up to a storm
clouds which are larger vertically usually have…
more turbulence around them
what defines fog in terms of visibilty
vis less than 1000 metres
what defines mist
vis greater than 1000 m
why do we get stratus clouds instead of fog
strong winds lift the cloud
when will fog dissipate
when the fog temperature becomes greater than the dew point
do danger areas require clearance to enter
dont require
do restricted areas require a clearance
always
what heading do maps use
degrees true
what heading do runways and navigation use
degrees magnetic
why do we calculate the true bearing
if east, subtract the variation
if west, add the variation
1 nautical mile/hour =
1 knot
ltr to gallon conversion is
3.75lt=1 us gallon
how do we express christmas day at 10 in the morning in 6 figures
251000
how do we express valentines day at 8:15 in the morning in 8 figures
02140815
note that the month goes first
how many hours ahead is EST to UTC
10 hours
runway lengths, widths and surfaces are usually given in which document
ERSA
what are sky waves
those that are refracted back to the earth by the ionosphere
in terms of radio eaves, what is attenuation
the gradual loss of radio wave strength through a medium
what does acknowledge mean
let me know that you have received and understood the message
what does break mean
i indicate the separation between portions of the message (used when there are no clear distinction between the text and other portions of the message)
what does break break mean
i indicate the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft
what does how do you read mean
how does my transmission read
reply with readability (1-5) where 1=unreadable 5=perfect
what does wilco mean
understand your message and will comply with it
