Bacteriophage Lambda Flashcards

1
Q

What are the minimal functions of a bacteriophage?

A
  • Protection of nucleic acid
  • Delivery of nucleic acid
  • Conversion of infected cell to produce phage
  • Release of phage
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2
Q

Briefly describe the steps of the lytic cycle.

A

1) Phage attaches to bacterium, with the tail recognising receptors on the cell surface
2) DNA injected into bacterium (nucleic acid may have to be unpackaged if filamentous)
3) Enzymes for DNA synthesis are made and replication begins (early development)
4) Genomes, heads and tails are made, and the DNA is packaged into the heads and the tails attached (late development)
5) Lysis occurs; the cell is broken to release progeny phages. Some filamentous phage ‘bud off’ instead of causing cell lysis.

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3
Q

Briefly describe the steps of the lysogenic growth cycle.

A

1) Similarly to the lytic cycle, the phage attaches to the bacterium and injects its DNA
2) Phage DNA is integrated into the bacterial genome

This is a slower process than the lytic cycle but less risky.

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4
Q

What is a virulent phage?

A

Always enters the lytic cycle (can not undergo lysogeny), and so these strains have often incurred mutations as entering the lysogenic cycle can be beneficial for phage survival.

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5
Q

What is a temperate phage?

A

Has the ability to enter both the lytic and lysogenic cycles.

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6
Q

What is a lysogen?

A

A bacterial cell containing DNA with incorporated phage DNA in it.

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7
Q

What is a prophage?

A

Refers to the phage DNA within the bacterial chromosome.

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8
Q

What is immunity in terms of the lysogenic cycle?

A

Immunity refers to a lysogen now being immune to infection of phage particles from the same species (second infection wont lead to lytic cycle). This is as repressor proteins have been translated that are specific to the operon on that species of phage DNA.

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9
Q

What is induction?

A

When the lytic cycle is induced from the lysogenic. This occurs due to the cleaving of the dimeric repressor protein, or by changing the concentration of the CII protein.

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10
Q

Describe how conditions affect whether the lytic or lysogenic cycle is entered.

A

Conditions favoured by lysogenic: low nutrient levels and high MOI (multiplicity of infection) i.e. greater number of phage than bacterial cells. This is as some phage will not be able to find cells to infect and thus will be exposed to the environment/nucleases. Low nutrient levels may cause the bacterial cell to go into a dormant state so lytic cycle cannot happen as can’t take over cellular machinery.
Conditions favoured by lytic: low MOI i.e. more bacterial cells than phage particles, as phage progeny will have lots of cells to infect.

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11
Q

How can you distinguish if a phage is virulent or temperate experimentally?

A

By growing phage on a bacterial lawn. If the phage is virulent then the lawn will be clear as it made ‘holes’ in the cells. If the phage is temperate then there will be an area that is clear (due to initial lytic cycle), but when the lysogenic cycle is induced the cells will grow over this clear area to make it turbid.

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12
Q

Why is it important that the bacteriophage lambda DNA forms a circle when in the bacterial cell?

A

It is needed as the promoter for the late genes (structural components) is before the S region where the circle is joined, and the late genes are after this region. If it was not made into a circle then the head and tail of the phage would not be made (would not be expressed as promoter in wrong position). The circularisation allows the formation of the operon, but this is not needed when the phage is not in the cell.

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13
Q

Describe the lytic cycle cascade in bacteriophage lambda.

A

1) Host RNA polymerase initially controls the lytic cycle and transcribes the early genes. From the first promoter to the first termination site, a set of genes are transcribed.
2) These genes are translated to regulatory proteins, and in bacteriophage lambda this protein is an antitermination factor which allows the RNA pol to carry on past the termination site (stops RNA pol from recognising terminator sequence).
3) The RNA pol is then able to transcribe the delayed early expression genes, and again regulatory proteins are subsequently translated. Also structural genes begin to be transcribed.
4) Transcription of the late genes is then allowed, and phage components can then be built.

Groups of genes are expressed in an ordered manner.

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14
Q

In bacteriophage lambda, the regulatory protein produced during lytic development is the antitermination factor. What other regulatory proteins are there in different phages and how do they allow transcription of the delayed early and late genes?

A
  • A new RNA polymerase may be produced (different from the initial host polymerase) that can recognise the 2nd promoter and transcribe this next section of the DNA sequence.
  • Sigma factor may be produced, which changes the conformation of the host RNA polymerase so it is able to recognise the next phage promoter sequence.
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15
Q

What is pN?

A

The N protein, the result of the transcription of the N gene (part of the immediate early genes transcribed in lytic development). It is an anti-termination factor and so allows the delayed early genes to be transcribed, as it interacts with RNA pol and stops it from recognising the first terminator sequence. Permits transcription past N and cro (early genes).

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16
Q

Where is the cI gene located and what does it encode?

A

It lies between the left and right promoters (lambda has left and right transcription units). It encodes for the repressor, and has 2 promoters (Prm and Pre).

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17
Q

What is pQ?

A

This is an antiterminator that allows the transcription of the late genes, by interacting with the RNA polymerase and preventing it from recognising the terminator sequence.

18
Q

What are nut sites?

A

Where the N protein binds to allow the first antitermination event.

19
Q

What are Prm and Pre?

A

They are both promoters for cI (the gene that encodes the repressor).
Prm = repressor maintenance
Pre = repressor establishment
Prm is a weak promoter and only works in the presence of the repressor protein, and thus Pre is needed initially when this is not present.
Prm is autoregulatory.

20
Q

Why is the repressor needed and how does it work?

A

The repressor is needed to inhibit the lytic cycle when there are low nutrient levels and a high MOI. It acts on the operators Or and Ol to block the transcription of the immediate early genes (effectively turns off Pl and Pr), which inhibits the whole lytic cycle as it is a cascade and the antitermination factor required will not be produced.

21
Q

How does the repressor protein allow immunity?

A

Free repressor dimer will bind to any newly inserted DNA in the cell if the same species of phage infects again, as it will recognise the operator sequences Or and O, and this prevents the lytic cycle from occurring. If a different species infects, the repressor present will not recognise the operator sequences.

22
Q

What are the 2 distinct domains in the repressor and what happens if the dimers are cleaved?

A

N-terminal domain is involved in binding and C-terminal domain involved in dimerisation. The dimer allows it to effectively bind to the operator, and when it is cleaved (e.g. by nucleases or UV light), there is a reduction in binding affinity and some of the operator sequence is exposed, allowing RNA to still bind to the promoter and thus allowing transcription and inducing the lytic cycle.

23
Q

How does the CII protein make Pre a stronger promoter?

A

Pre is a poor match to the consensus sequence and so is not recognised by most RNA polymerases. CII binds to the host polymerase and changes its conformation, allowing RNA pol to recognise the Pre. Therefore, the cI gene encoding the repressor is expressed and the lytic cycle inhibited.

24
Q

What is HFLA and why does its presence mean that the lytic cycle is likely to be induced?

A

HFLA is a bacterial protease that can degrade CII, meaning that it cannot bind to RNA pol. This means that the expression of cI is reduced (as Pre continues to be a weak promoter), so less repressor is translated and the lytic cycle will probably be induced.

25
Q

What is the function of the CIII protein?

A

To protect CII from proteases such as HFLA so that the lytic cycle is not induced (so lysogeny can be established).

26
Q

What are the 4 main stages of lysogeny and what is transcribed at each stage?

A

1) Immediate early- N and cro are transcribed
2) Delayed early- N antiterminates and cII and cIII are transcribed
3) Lysogenic establishment- cII acts at Pre and as a result cI is transcribed
4) Lysogenic maintenance- repressor binds at Ol and Or and cI is transcribed from Prm

27
Q

What is the intersome?

A

A large structure that holds the phage DNA and bacterial DNA in position to allow integrase to cut and to allow insertion by site-specific recombination. This generally occurs at the attachment sites attP (on phage) and attB (on bacteria). It holds everything in the correct orientation.

28
Q

How is the phage DNA inserted into the bacterial DNA/

A

Integrase makes a single stranded cut on both DNAs at the attachment sites (also requires IHF), and cross over occurs between them. This creates new attachment sequences.

29
Q

Why does excision of the incorporated DNA need a different mechanism to the insertion?

A

As new attachment sequences were created by the cross over, as the attachment sites had the same sequence in the centre but different flanking sequences (different recognition sequences for the enzyme).

30
Q

What 2 things are required for the integration of phage DNA?

A

Int and IHF

31
Q

What 3 things are required for the excision of phage DNA?

A

Int, IHF, and Xis

32
Q

What roles does integration host factor (IHF) have? How does it assist in phage DNA integration?

A

Maintains DNA architecture and has roles in DNA supercoiling and duplex destabilisation.
In phage integration, bacterial DNA wraps around IHF to expose the right sequence to allow the integrase enzyme to cut.

33
Q

Describe the operator regions Or and Ol in bacteriophage lambda DNA.

A

Each operator region (left and right transcription units) has 3 sites, with each site composed of 2 half sites and made up of inverted repeats.

34
Q

What operator site does the repressor have the highest affinity for?

A

The 1st site (Or1 and Ol1). When the concentration of the repressor increases it can then bind to the 2nd and 3rd operator sites.

35
Q

The protein Cro also binds to the operator region. What operator site does Cro have the highest affinity for?

A

The 3rd site (Or3 and Ol3). When the concentration of cro increases it is then able to bind to the 1st and 2nd sites.

36
Q

What happens when the repressor is at a high concentration and binds to the 2nd and 3rd operator sites?

A

It means that the RNA polymerase cannot bind to the Pr and Pl promoters, so cro is not expressed, and the lytic cycle is not induced.

37
Q

What happens when Cro binds to the 3rd operator site?

A

RNA polymerase cannot bind to Prm (repressor maintenance), so expression of the repressor is not maintained and the lysogenic cycle is not induced (lytic cycle occurs).

38
Q

What is the concentration of Cro regulated by? Describe this protein.

A

The cII protein -> this binds to the promoter antisense Q and has a positive effect on the lysogenic pathway -> increases the expression of integrase that allows DNA to be inserted. If cII is degraded then lysis is much more likely.

39
Q

What happens when Cro binds to the 1st or 2nd operator sites?

A

It prevents RNA polymerase from using Pr/Pl, and so stops the production of the early functions. This halts the production of cro itself, and also the CII and CIII proteins and thus repressor synthesis via Pre is prevented and the lytic cycle induced.

40
Q

The critical influence on the switch between lysogeny and lysis is…?

A

CII. If CII is active then the synthesis of the repressor via Pre is effective and the repressor gains occupancy of operators and lysogeny is maintained. If CII is inactive then Cro gains occupancy of the operator sites and lysis is stimulated.