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Spring 23: DVM 637 Bacteriology > Bacteriology Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Bacteriology Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Most bacteria of veterinary importance are about what size?

A

1 micrometer

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2
Q

What structures are NOT found in bacterial cells? (check all that apply)

A

mitochondria, nucleus, lysosomes

cell membrane and ribosomes are

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3
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria are

A

facultative anaerobes

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4
Q

Which bacteria have two cell membranes

A

gram negatives

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5
Q

Selective media are those that

A

allow the growth of only some bacteria

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6
Q

Which are the main molecular targets of antibiotics in the bacterial cell?

A

DNA synthesis, replication, ribosomes and cell wall

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7
Q

Match the antibiotics listed to their targets

  1. Beta lactam antibiotics
  2. Fluoroquinolones
  3. Tetracyclines
  4. chloramphenicol
A
  1. cell wall
  2. DNA synthesis
  3. Ribosomes
  4. Ribosomes
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8
Q

The minimally inhibitory concentration is defined as

A

the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that can prevent growth of a bacterium

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9
Q

T or F: In general when comparing antibiotics it is good starting point to compare the MICs when deciding which antibiotic to use.

A

FALSE

Do not compare the MIC directly but only the interpretation provided by the laboratory. The the same MIC for two different antibiotics can mean very different things.

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10
Q

Tor F: The characteristic of a bactericidal or bacteriostatic antibiotic varies by concentration.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

The members of the family Enterobacteriaceae are

A

gram negative bacilli

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12
Q

Shigatoxigenic E. coli are often associated with

A

edema disease in pigs

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13
Q

Which Salmonella Species causes most diseases in calfs

A

enterica

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14
Q

O antigen is associated with what structure?

A

LPS

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15
Q

T or F: Antibiotics are the first line treatment for severe salmonella diarrhea cases

A

False

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16
Q

Campylobacter in poultry is characterized by

A

little or no disease

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17
Q

T or F: Lawsonia culture is a standard diagnostic technique

A

FALSE

As an obligate intracellular pathogen culture is very difficult and not done in a diagnostic setting.

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18
Q

Campylobacter spp are best characterized as

A

Microaerophillic

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19
Q

Helicobacter is

A

especially adapted to grow at a low pH

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20
Q

The incubation period for Jone’s disease is

A

a couple of years

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21
Q

bacteria in the genus Clostridium are

A

gram possitive anaerobes

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22
Q

Detection of Clostridium spp. in feces of a dog is

A

very common in healthy animals

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23
Q

T or F: Infection with Cl. tetani is required for disease

A

TRUE

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24
Q

T or F: Infection with Cl. botulinum is required for disease

A

FALSE

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25
Q

Histotoxic Clostridium associated disease often follows

A

localized anaerobic condition

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26
Q

In dogs most UTIs are

A

complicated

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27
Q

T or F: when you perform midstream voided urine sampling in a dog you can expect less than 1000 bacteria in a ml of urine in healthy animals

A

FALSE

up to 10,000 CFU is considered contamination in midstream voided urine sampling in dogs.

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28
Q

When you detect high levels of antibodies against leptospira in an unvaccinated animal you can assume that

A

The animal could be shedding leptospira organism in the urine

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29
Q

T or F: leptospirosis is a zoonotic disease where close contact to infected animals is required

A

FALSE

Infections often occur through contaminated surface water.

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30
Q

Which are important defenses against UTIs

A

flushing, high osmolarity in urine, urea in urine

31
Q

Brucella abortus is (check all that apply)

A

found in greater yellowstone area, a possible zoonosis

32
Q

Characteristic of Campylobacter Jejuni

A

infections and diseas mainly in GI tract

33
Q

characteristic of Campylobacter fetus ssp fetus

A

infection through GI tract, mainly reproductive disease

34
Q

characterisitic of Campylobacter fetus ssp venerealis

A

infection and disease mainly in reproductive tract

35
Q

characterisitic of Campylobacter fetus ssp venerealis

A

infection and disease mainly in reproductive tract

36
Q

in chlamydia elementary bodies are

A

the infective form

37
Q

You detect antibodies agains Brucella in an unvaccinated animal. What can you assume?

A

the animal is currently infected

38
Q

You diagnose B. canis in a sire in a large scale commercial dog breeding operation. What is likely the best course of action?

A

euthanize

39
Q

Listeriosis is a disease that

A

is acquired through the G tract but largely manifests clinically outside the Gi tract

40
Q

Which is the most common source of infection of listeria in ruminants?

A

silage

41
Q

Contagious mastitis (choose all that apply)

A

is often caused by udder adapted pathogens

is often spread by milking equipment

is most often ascending through the teat canal.

Is often milder than environmental mastitis

42
Q

What is the most effective way to prevent contagious mastitis?

A

post milking dipping

43
Q

The california mastitis test detects

A

host cells in milk

44
Q

T or F: Most pathogenic Staphylococcus species are coagulase negative

A

FALSE

Most Staphylococcus species of veterinary importance are coagulase positive. Coagulase is a bacterial enzyme that leads to activation of the host coagulase cascade and leads to covering of the bacterium with host proteins and helps in avoiding immune responses.

45
Q

The most common agent involved in skin infection in dogs is

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

46
Q

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius is isolated from a dog. What does this mean? (pick the best answer).

A

S. pseudintermedius is often isolated form healthy dogs. The finding depends on the location of the sample and clinical picture

47
Q

Members of the genus Bacillus are

A

gram positive aerobes

48
Q

Disposal of carcasses from animals that died of anthrax is best done by

A

burning the carcass

49
Q

Which type of organism is classically associate with migrating fox tail

A

Actinomyces

50
Q

Farcy is caused by

A

Burgholderia mallei

51
Q

Which animal species is most associated with diamond skin disease

A

pigs

52
Q

Which agent causes melliodosis?

A

Burgholderia pseudomallei

53
Q

What is associated with liver accesses in cattle?

A

high grain diet

54
Q

The lower respiratory tract is

A

largely free of bacterial colonization

55
Q

Kennel cough is best described as

A

a multifactorial disease

56
Q

Strangles is caused by an organism in what species?

A

streptococus equi

57
Q

Classically which organisms are involved in atrophic rhinitis (check all that apply)

A

Bordetella bronchoseptica

Pasteurella multocida

58
Q

which heloysis pattern is most often observed in pathogenic streptococcus species

A

beta

59
Q

Mycobacterium do not stain well with the gram stain procedure because

A

they have a waxy cell wall

60
Q

Which of the following bacteria regularly causes disease in Alaska? Choose all that apply)

A

Francisella tularensis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

61
Q

in the laboratory plates are routinely incubated for how long to detect Mycobacterium bovid?

A

a couple of months

62
Q

In Europe, which insect is considered the main vector for tularemia?

A

mosquitoes

63
Q

What is the most important RESERVOIR for plague in Colorado

A

prairie dogs

64
Q

Hemoplasma infection most often lead to

A

subclinical infections

65
Q

Salmon poisoning disease is caused by

A

a bacterium transmitters by a fluke

66
Q

Cat scratch fever is caused by:

A

Bartonella henselae

67
Q

Possible differential diagnosis that present similar to cat scratch disease are:

A

plague

Francisella infections

68
Q

Lyme disease is transmitted

A

after about a day or so by ticks

69
Q

Fungi are most closely related to.

A

animals

70
Q

zoophilic fungi are characterized by

A

growing on animals

71
Q

most clinical issues caused by fungi are associated with

A

reduced host defenses

72
Q

teleomporph stages are

A

sexual stages

73
Q

in dimorphic fungi disease is most often caused by

A

yeast

Spring 23: DVM 637 Bacteriology (1 decks)

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