Bacteriology lab Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by best-guess diagnosis

A

The initial diagnosis of infection is based on the principles of making an informed best-guess clinical diagnosis.

Present illness: date of onset, symptoms, signs (esp. rashes)

Past history: previous infections particularly with resistant organism e.g. MRSA, hospitalizations, travel, antimicrobial use.

Use these to inform what you want the lab to look for- important when taking samples from non-sterile sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

State some microbiological possibilities for Billy’s case

A
Infectious Diarrhoea
Endocarditis (SBE) -sub-acute bacteria 
Syphilis - STI causing skin rash
Toxoplasma- lymphadenopathy and reactivation in immunocompromised 
Tuberculosis
Brucellosis - unpasteurised milk 
Melliodosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

State the common diagnostic techniques used in microbiology

A

Culture i) Sterile sites (blood/CSF) ii) Non sterile sites

Serology

Molecular Techniques

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is culture still used over molecular methods

A

Culture still used – to analyse sensitivity

Molecular methods- need to know mechanism of resistance – but don’t need to know for cultures

Whole genome sequencing- to correlate with phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the difference between sterile and non-sterile sites

A

Sterile- should be no bacteria- bone- csf, blood

Non sterile- commensal bacteria
Non-sterile- only report what may be relevant from clinical details and travel history- look for your differential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe serology

A

Serology- look for anitbodies in immunitry

Evidence of infection- when organisms are difficult to grow or molecular tests not sensitive enough- i.e syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe how skin is not a sterile site

A

Rosebury estimates that 50 million individual bacteria live on the average square centimeter (5x107/cm2) of human skin
[5x107/cm2 x 20,000 cm2/person = 1011 bacteria]

He describes the skin surface of our bodies as akin to a “teeming population of people going Christmas shopping.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What bacteria is commensal in the nasopharynx

A

Streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s important to remember about microbial susceptibility testing

A
  1. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing – used to test AB resistance but takes a long time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the conditions that blood cultures are kept in.

A

Place into plastic bottles with growth medium

Machine agitates bottle (to ensure homogeneous spread of nutrients), warm it- 37 degrees- to increase growth

Rich broth and favourable conditions promote the growth of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe how a positive result is detected by the machine

A

Aerobic and anaerobic

Paediatric blood culture- small amounts of blood- strep

Indicator- bacteria produce toxic products- which will change colour- machine detects colour change
Beads to absorb antibiotics- to maxmise growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should be done once a positive blood result is flagged

A

Flag positive after 16-20 hours- then take from machine – sesntivity test

Agar plates- susceptibility testing

Antibotics can give false negatives- no growth- so place pus there – patient had no antibiotics- no growth

Send samples before you start patient on antibiotics

As you spred out- diluted antibiotic– so you get growth

You should then go gram-testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Summarise the key features of gram negative and gram positive bacteria

A

 Gram +ve = thick wall, purple stain, retains dye.
 Gram –ve = thin wall, pink stain, loses dye and outer LPS layer

 Many AB target the cell wall but may not be able to get past the outer membrane in gram- bacteria – e.g. vancomycin works only on +ve.

o Gram POSITIVE = skin and soft tissue.
o Gram NEGATIVE = abdomen and urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are two components of the bacterial cell wall

A

NAM=N-acetylglucosamine NAG=N-acetylmuramic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Summarise staphylococci

A

 Gram+ cocci are the most common bacterium.
 Staphylococci often form clumps and look like bunches of grapes as they bud divide.
 You can do a coagulase test to test between coagulase± staphylococci:
o Coagulase + = Staphylococci aureus.
o Coagulase - = Common skin microbes.
 Prosthetic materials are prone to biofilm formation by staph. Infections which can be very bad – e.g. in hip replacements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the morphology of gram + cocci

A

Gram positive- retain crystal violent niadine gets trapped- deep purple

Shape- identification
Clumps- staphylococci- grapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name two antibiotics that can be used to treat staphylococcus

A

Methicillin or vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the purpose of the coagulase test

A

Two groups- coagulase test (but other ways)

Shows ability to form a clot in horse plasma

Lots of coagulase negative in skin- so blood cultures- will see gram positive cocci which are coagulase negative- so test differentiates between virulent can commensal/contaminant staph cooci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Compare the virulence of coagulase positive and negative Staphylococci

A

Staphylococcus aureus (including Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus, MRSA)

Severe infections eg: skin/soft tissue, endocarditis, osteomyelitis

Coagulase Negative Staphylococci

Skin commensals of low pathogenic potential. Can infect prosthetic material causing line, pacemaker infections and endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can we kill coagulase negative staphylococci when takin blood sample

A

Let alcohol dry to kill commensal stapy cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Summarise streptococci

A

 Streptococci generally form chains in the gram stain.
 On blood agar, streptococci separate into two groups:
o Alpha haemolysis – incomplete haemolysis, turns green.
 E.G. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
o Beta haemolysis – complete haemolysis, clears agar.
 E.G. Group A – Streptococcus pyogenes – skin/soft tissue infection
 E.G. Group B – Streptococcus agalactiae – sepsis in the young

Strep – sensisitve to penicllins and cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are two likely causes of gram positive cocci in chains

A

Divide into chains- will be enterococci or streptococic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Summarise the different types of haemolytic streptococci

A

Beta haemolysis (alpha,beta and gamma)

Group A beta haemoltuc strep –step pyogenes –sore throats- can also cause necrotisisng fasciitis – rheumatic fever and glomerularnephritis

Group b beta– step agalactiae- neonatal sepsis

C and G- less virulent than group A- cellulitis.

Alpha haemollysis – pneumococcus, strep pneumoniae

24
Q

Summarise gram negative bacilli

A

Rods

More resistant than gram positive

Amoxiciloin resistan, gentamycin, aminoglycosides and quinolones

 Do not take up gram stain and thus appear pink.
 E.G. E. coli.

25
Q

Summarise the different causes of diarrhoea

A

Bacteria:
Salmonella (inc S. typhi ), Shigella, Campylobacter,
E coli O157, C difficile, Cholera

Parasites:
Amoeba, Giardia, Cryptosporidium

Viruses

26
Q

What is important to remember about diarrhoea

A

Camplyobacter- food poisoning – most common

C.diff- associated with antibotics

D and V in community- look for norovirus

No vomititng from bacteria in food poisoning

Look at report- they will rule out what hasn’t been isolated

27
Q

Summarise the different investigations available for stool samples

A

Bacteria
Culture on agar plates.
Only Salmonella, Shigella and Campylobacter
looked for routinely.
Different pathogens have different culture
requirements.
Clostridium difficile – toxin detection or PCR for
toxin gene

Parasites
Concentration, special stains
Don’t grow parasites- different stains for different parasites

28
Q

What is important to remember about stool samples

A

Food poisoning- self-limiting- so identifaction more important – use PCR to screen- if positive then do sensitivity

Selective agar plates- not a rich broth- trying to suppress growth- will have anbtibiotics and not all the nutrients- only want to grow pahtognes- grow at 42- campylobacter can grow- but kills everything else

Look for E.coli O157 too

Different pathogens- different culture environments
c.diff- difficult to growth- commensal in child gut — most labs don’t try and grow- so use toxin detection or molecular tests

29
Q

Describe the agar for salmonella

A

Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar

Salmonella- hydrogen sulfide on agar- black circles- doens;t ferment xyklose – turn red- whereas most other bacteria turn yellow

30
Q

Describe the agar for campylobacter

A

Specific growth requirements- grey watery colour
Don’t grow fast (48 hours)
Can tolerate high temps - so heat to 42 degrees to kill other bacteria

31
Q

Describe the agar for Vibrio Cholerae

A

TCBS: vibrio cholerae turn it green

32
Q

Summarise the other agar plates

A

Agar plates: non-selective can be used for blood, as should be sterile apart from bacteria from infection

Chocolate agar: cooked blood - releases nutrients to allow certain bacteria grow e.g. H. Influenzae

Macconkey agar: grows gram negative organisms

Blood agar: streptococci can be distinguished depending on whether perform alpha or beta haemolysis
Alpha: incomplete - turn agar green; includes Strep. Pneumoniae (pneumonia/meningitis)
Beta: complete - clears the agar; includes Strep. Pyogenes (skin and soft tissue infection) and Strep. Agalactiae (neonatal sepsis)

33
Q

Summarise PPV

A

High rate of c.diff- PHE will investigate quality of hiospital

Pre-test probability – specificity and sensitivity

Only send tests with reasonable possibility
If result is positive- what does this mean for patient –PPV- depends on pre test possibility (prevalence)

Why we don’t send tests

Lower pre-test possibility- greater rate of false positivr– PPV will be reduced

34
Q

Describe what is meant by PPV

A

PPV: if patient is unlikely to have a disease, and you test for it, you lower the PPV; equally, if highly likely then the more likely a positive test represents true positive

So as prevalence increases, sensitivity increases (greater percentage of true positives)

NPV (specificity) will decrease as prevalence increases- more likely to be a false negative

35
Q

Describe the guidelines for sensitivity testing

A

British Society for Antimicrobial Chemotherapy method.

EUCAST in Europe

 MIC (Minimum Inhibitory Concentration) = the lowest amount of AB required to inhibit growth of bacteria in vitro.
 MIC isn’t very useful on its own so we set breakpoints which correlate MIC with clinical success as an AB.
o A bacterium with an MIC below the breakpoint means there is a good chance of success with that AB.
o A bacterium with an MIC above the breakpoint is RESISTANT.
Breakpoint = a chosen concentration of AB- based on clinical outcome- depends on pharmacodynamics, pharmacokinetics etc

36
Q

Describe disc diffusion

A

 Use a set concentration of AB in each disc and incubate for 24 hours.
 The zone size is interpreted using he breakpoints in a AB table.
o Measure zone diameter to determine whether a bacterium is resistant to a AB or not.

Good, as you can test resistance to multiple antibiotics at the same time

37
Q

Describe gradient MICs

A

Grow bacteria with antibiotic- place gradient strip

where clear zone ends on strip -determines the MIC

38
Q

Summarise the potential causes of billy’s diarrhoea

A

Infectious diarrhoea does not usually persist
for 4 months

Don’t usually get systemic disease (but can
with typhoid, amoebic abscess)

Intestinal helminths don’t cause significant
diarrhoea (but could cause rashes, fever,
eosinophilia)

Long-Lasting diarrhoea- think of Chron’s

39
Q

Describe the nature of the bacteraemia in SBE

A

SBE- multiple blood cultures- pulse of bacteraemia- before febrile- take blood
SBE- continues bacteriaema – endovascular source- to capture evidence of consistent bacteraemia

40
Q

What are the key features of SBE

A

Rash
Fever
maybe weight loss
blood culture- consistent bacteraemia

41
Q

What are the features of syphillis and toxoplasma

A

Rash
Fever
Lymph node involvement
Serum for antibodies- hard to grow

42
Q

Describe the key features of TB

A

Fever
Weight Loss
Culture IFN-y - host response

43
Q

Describe Brucellosis

A

Maybe rash
Lymph nodes
Fever
Serum for antibodies and blood culture

44
Q

What is the effect of culture on sensitivity

A

Cultutere- enrichment so more sensitive

45
Q

What is important to remember about sepsis

A

Don’t delay antibiotics whilst you wait for test results

46
Q

Describe seroconversion

A

Convalescent sample 10-14 days later- negative acute- positive conalaescent sample- due to seroconversion- shows acute disease- makes it less clinically useful- because of time lag- need to treat patient.

Acute phase -IgM
Secondary exposure - IgG
So, if you see negative IgG on first sample, but positive on convalescent sample- had and acquired immunity to infection.

47
Q

What is important to remember about microbiology

A

Always include clinical information including travel history on requests.

Contact Infectious Diseases or Microbiology early if you require advice.

Try and send samples for culture prior to starting antibiotics if possible.
48
Q

What was done next for Billy

A

What tests now?

GP does skin punch biopsy

49
Q

Summarise what we look for in non-sterile sites

A

Non-sterile sites: specific pathogens only
Diarrhoea: stool sample looking for Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, E. Coli, C. Diff., cholera rather than all bacteria

50
Q

Summarise the typical investigations in a microbiology lab

A

Most microbiology samples are cultured on agar plates, which takes time: For organisms to multiply sufficiently usually requires 24-48 hours (some need longer incubation: e.g. TB, brucella, actinomycetes)
To culture again for antibiotic sensitivities: another 24 hours
Microscopy direct under the microscope – urine various stains (Gram, Ziehl-Nielsen (ZN), etc.) – pus, tissue fluids fluorescence, with conjugated antibodies to specific antigens
Direct antigen detection (particle agglutination tests, ELISA)
Molecular probes and amplification (PCR, etc.)
Serology: looking for antibodies as evidence of infection/immunity

51
Q

Describe the optimal time for the collection of specimens

A

In the acute phase of illness and before staring antimicrobials
Collection from proper site, avoiding contamination by normal flora
Prompt transport to lab since micro-organisms multiply in transit
Adequate quantity and appropriate number of specimens
Acute sera and Convalescent sera (paired), for rising antibody titres

52
Q

Summarise the microbiological examination of urine

A

Bedside: Naked eye – clear, cloudy, haemorrhagic. note: although these are NOT microbiological investigations dipstick tests for nitrites, leucocytes, blood, protein, bilirubin, ketones may provide indication of there being an infection. Nitrites strongly suggest bacteriuria as many species of gramnegative bacteria convert nitrates to nitrites.
Microscopy: WBC (pyuria suggests infection), RBC (may also indicate tumour/microemboli/trauma), epithelial cells (suggest the specimen has been contaminated during collection), crystals, casts.
Culture on MacConkey agar (urine should be sterile so any microbial growth is potentially significant in an appropriately taken sample)
Quantitative colony count for “significant” bacteruria (>105 bacteria/ml)
Antibiotic sensitivity testing of bacteria that grow

53
Q

Summarise the microbiological examination of feaces

A

Naked eye, consistency, blood stained, colour, presence of worms
Microscopy: ova, cysts, parasites
Culture on inhibitory media – e.g. deoxycholatecitrate agar (DCA), selenite (Faeces contains 1012-14 bacteria per gram, so selective media are used to suppress background ‘flora’ organisms)
Certain organisms such as Vibrio cholerae are not looked for routinely therefore it is important adequate clinical information is provided on the request to allow the appropriate laboratory investigations to be carried out.
Toxin detection (Clostridium difficile)
Special stains, e.g. for cryptosporidia

54
Q

Describe some useful stains

A

Gram stain of CSF, joint fluid, purulent exudates
ZN/auramine stain of e.g. sputum, for TB
FTA (fluorescent treponemal antibody) for antibodies to T. pallidum

55
Q

Describe direct antigen detection

A

Meningococcal antigen in CSF
C. difficile toxin in faeces
Legionella and Pneumococcal antigen in urine

56
Q

Describe PCR

A

Chlamydia in genital specimens

Rapid PCR for MRSA

57
Q

Summarise the results for Billy

A

Microscopy of stool for parasites, especially giardia, amoeba (which cause diarrhoea but not rashes) and for higher parasites (may cause rashes but rarely diarrhoea). Stool culture for the common bacterial pathogens – salmonella, campylobacter, shigella. Stool result often negative.
Rash/skin lumps. Often viral aetiology. Also, infected insect bites, syphilis, gonococcal infection, typhoid, endocarditis, systemic parasites. ? Take skin biopsy – prolonged cultures for TB, fungi.