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BACTERIOLOGY > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Bacteria are prokaryote and binary fussion

A

T

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2
Q

Bacteria

  1. Size
  2. Smallest
  3. Largest
  4. Longest
A
  1. .4-2 um
  2. Mycoplasma
  3. B. anthracis
  4. Borrelia
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3
Q

1.Spore contains
2. Spore forming org.
3. Terminal swollen spores
4. Central
5. Sagged terminal
6. Dye for spore
7. Color of spore

A
  1. Dipicolinic acid
  2. Bacillus, clostridium
  3. T. tetani
  4. B. athracis
  5. C. botulinum
  6. Scaheffer and fulton
  7. Greef - malachite green (red bg - safranin)
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4
Q
  1. Pili aka (usually gram neg)
  2. VF pili - attaches to host - 1st step infectiom
  3. Gene conjugation
A
  1. Fimbriae
  2. Common pili (n. gonorrhea)
  3. Sex pili (e.coli)
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5
Q

Prevents phagocytosis - present in s. pyogenes and mycobacterium

A

Cell wall
1. M protein - s. pyo
2. Mycolic - mycob

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6
Q

Capsule

  1. Capsular swelling test
  2. Polysaccharide capsule
  3. Hyaloronic acip capsule
  4. Polyribosyl ribitiol phosphate
  5. Alginate capsule
A
  1. Neufeld quellung
  2. S. pneumoniae, K. pneumoniae, N. meningitis
  3. Pastuerella multocada
  4. H. influenza
  5. P. argeuginosa

Capsule - responsible for mucoid colonies

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7
Q
  1. Presumptive test for listeria (tumbling)
  2. Flagella stain
  3. C. Media
    • result
A
  1. Hanging drop
  2. Grays, leifson
  3. SIM
  4. Growth outside the line

Spiral org -axial/periplasmic flagella
Other tumbling - p. multocada

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8
Q

Movement of non motile

A

Brownian

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9
Q

2 mtds can kill spores

responsible for resistance

A
  1. Incineration
  2. Glutaraldehyde (3-10hrs)
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10
Q

Biological Indicator

  1. Chemical mtd
  2. Ionizing radiation
  3. Oven
  4. Autoclaving
A
  1. B. subtilis var globijii
  2. B. pumilus
  3. B. subtilis
  4. B. stearothermophilus
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11
Q
  1. Twitching motility
  2. Gliding/sliding motility
  3. Darting motility
  4. Shooting star motility
  5. Corkscrew motility

twitch/glinde - due to pilose not flagella

A
  1. k. kingae
  2. Campylobacter spp.
  3. C. gingivalis
  4. V. cholera
  5. L. monocytogenes

  1. C. mesnili in para
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12
Q
  1. Inclusion bodies function
  2. IB in c. diptheriae
  3. M. tuberculosis
  4. C. trachomatis
  5. Amoeba
A
  1. Nutrient/food storage
  2. Babes ernst bodies volutin
  3. Granules
  4. Halberstaedter prowazek glycogen
  5. Chromatoidal bodies
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13
Q

cause neurological dse, mad cow dse, creutzfeld jacob syndrome, bovine spongiform encephalopathy

A

prions

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14
Q

DETECT THE PRESENCE OF ENDOTOXIN IN BODY FLUIDS

use aqueous extract of horseshoe crabs
+ clumping

A

Limulus lysate test

exo - protein
endo - lipopolysaccharide

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15
Q
  1. uptake of naked/free dna
  2. acquire dna from bacteriophage (virus infects bacteria)
  3. miniature chromosome, vf, R - antibiotics
A
  1. transformation
  2. transduction
  3. plasmid
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16
Q

Category for each bioterrorism:

1.C
2.A

A
  1. hanta and nipah virus - emerging, can be engineered for mass spread
  2. b. anthracis, c. botulinum, y. pestis, f. tularensis - easily transmitted, high mortality
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17
Q

moist heat - fractional sterilization

  1. 100 c - 30mins, 3 days, arnold sterilizer, flowing steam
  2. 75-80 c - 2 hrs, 3 days, inc. protein - lowenstein jensen, evaporation

dry heat - incineration (870-980c), oven (160-180c), cremation, flaming

A
  1. tyndallization
  2. inspissation
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18
Q
  1. chemical sterilants aka
  2. most used chemical sterilant for materials that cannot be autoclaved
  3. for surgical instruments, cold sterilization
  4. sterilize hepa filters
A
  1. biocides
  2. ethylene oxide
  3. peracetic acid
  4. formaldehyde vapor, vapor hydrogen peroxide
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19
Q

Antiseptics - skin only

  1. most commons
  2. best antiseptic
  3. for wounds
  4. iodine form
A
  1. 70% ethyl alcohol
  2. iodophor
  3. 10% hydrogen peroxide
  4. iodine tincture (alcohol), iodophor (detergent)
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20
Q

disinfectants - surfaces only

  1. for blood spillage
  2. contact for hbv
  3. for hiv
  4. standard disinfectants (high conc) - hospital use
A
  1. 1:10 sodium hypochlorite
  2. 10 mins
  3. 2 mins
  4. phenols - lysol, carbolic acid
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21
Q

blood bag contaminant
1. rt
2. y. enterolitica, serratia, p. fluorescence at what temp.

A
  1. s. epidermidis, b. cereus, c. acnes
  2. 4c

ace
self

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22
Q

blood pathogens

A
  • e.coli
  • p. aeruginosa
  • s. aureus - most common (sepsis)

cleanse - 70-95% alcohol - iodine scrub - alcohol rinse (chlorhexidine - subs)

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23
Q

preferred blood vol. for blood culture

  1. adult
  2. pedia
  3. infants
  4. emerg. - antibiotics asap
A
  1. > 20ml
  2. 1-20ml
  3. 1-5ml
  4. 40ml once

thiol broth/ard (mg sulfate) - if px is on antimicrobial

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24
Q

isolates for csf

A
  • s. pneumoniae
  • n. meningitides
  • h. influenzae
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25
Q

urine sample

  1. cause of uti in young female
  2. uti in older/ w/ catheter
  3. uti in pedia
  4. uti w/ recent sexual intercourse
  5. colony ct = uti
A
  1. e.coli
  2. klebsiella, e. faecalis
  3. s. epidermidis
  4. s. saprophyticus
  5. > 100,000
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26
Q

bartlett’s classification - <10 sec, >25pmn = true sputum

A

t

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27
Q
  1. gold std for digestion and decontamination - m. tb
  2. for p. aeruginosa, proteus
A
  1. n-acetyl-l-cysteine (dige) w/ 5% sodium hydroxide - naoh (decon)
  2. 5% oxalic acid
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28
Q

throat swab/nasophargyngeal swab

  1. major throat pathogen
  2. normal throat flora
  3. naso detects - ; identify -
  4. swab for bacterial
  5. swab for viral
A
  1. s. pyogenes
  2. viridans strep
  3. detect - n. meningitidis ; identigy - h. influenzae, b. pertussis
  4. dacron, calcium alginate
  5. dacron, cotton, rayon fibers
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29
Q

stool

  1. git pathogens
  2. sample for bacterial inxn
  3. parasites infxn
  4. media for stool culture
A
  1. salmonella, shigella
  2. 3 samples - 3 days
  3. 3 samples - 10 days
  4. emb, ssa, mac
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30
Q

gastric aspirate - collect early in morning and before meal - neutralized w/

A

sodium bicarbonate w/in 1hr

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31
Q

stain

  1. capsular stain
  2. spore stain
  3. flagella
  4. metachromatic granules
  5. polar bodies
  6. spirochetes (borrelia - hema)
A
  1. taylor, anthony, hiss, muir
  2. schaeffer and fulton
  3. grays, leifson
  4. meth. blue, albert, neisser, burke
  5. wayson, meth. blue
  6. levaditi

legionella, b. pertusis - immunofluorescence

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32
Q

gram stain control

  1. +
  2. -
A
  1. s. aureus
  2. e.coli

huckers modification = cv + ammonion oxalate - fungi +

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33
Q

modified afs - cryptosporidium - decolorizer

A

sulfuric acid

common- 3% acid alcohol (ziehl/kinyoun), 0.5% acid alcohol (auramine-rhodamine)

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34
Q

acid fast org - difficult to stain and decolorize due to

A

mycolic acid/ hydroxymethoxy acid

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35
Q

afs

  1. diff. m. smegmatis - blue ; m. tuberculosis - red
  2. diff. m. leprae - red ; m. tb - blue
  3. det. m. leprae - red
A
  1. pappenheim - urine
  2. baumgartens - tissue
  3. fite faraco
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36
Q

transport media

  1. for neisseria
  2. stool pathogens
  3. respiratory
  4. viral transport media
  5. for s. agalactiae
A
  1. jember, transgrow
  2. cary blair
  3. amie
  4. stuart
  5. todd hewitt and lim broth w/ colistin nalidixic acid
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37
Q

antimicrobials - function of bactericidal (kills)

A
  • penicilin
  • vancomycyin
  • quinolones
  • aminoglycosides
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38
Q

antimicrobials - function of bacteriostatic (inhibit)

A
  • tetracyline
  • chloramphenicol
  • streptomycin
  • erythromycin

1st 2 are broad

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39
Q

cell wall inhibitors

  1. beta lactam
  2. glycopeptide

additional
* cycloserine
* bacitracin

A
  1. penicilin, cephalorsporin, carbapenems, monobactam
  2. teicoplanin, vancomycin (treat MRSA)
40
Q

TOC for entero. infection

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • sxt
  • cephalosporins
41
Q
  • target - bacterial enzyme
  • treat - uti
A

nitrofurantoin

42
Q
  • target - cell membrance function
  • for gram -
A
  • polymyxin
  • colistin
43
Q
  • target - folic acid synthesis
  • treat - diarrhea, uti
A

sxt

44
Q

target - nuleic acid synthesis

  1. fluoroquinolones
  2. rifampicin
A
  • ciproflaxacin (severe pneumonia)
  • ofloxacin
  • levofloxacin
45
Q

kirby bauer - disk diffusion (MHA)

  1. ph
  2. depth of agar

E. coli
* thymidine - minimal/absent
* inc - false (R)

P. aeruginosa
* calcium (25mg/dl), mg (12mg/dl)
* inc - dec. amino. (p. aeruginosa), tetra (all org)

A
  1. 7.2-7.4
  2. 3.5 mm

False (S)
* too thin
* very dry

False (R)
* too thick
* moist

46
Q

inoculum

  1. subculture
  2. incubate
  3. compare with ____ to stdized the inoculum
A
  1. 4-5 colonies tsb
  2. 37c - 3-5hrs
  3. 0.5 mcfarland

mcfarland - 99.5ml 1% h2so4 (sulfuric acid) + .5ml 1.175% bacl2 (barium chloride)

47
Q

antibiotic disk

  1. size
  2. storage for working supply
  3. storage for long term
  4. storage for solutions
A
  1. 6mm
  2. 2-8c -ref
  3. -20c - non frost
  4. -70c - dilution mtd
48
Q

agar plate

  1. size 150mm stock plates
  2. size 100mm stock plates
  3. distance of disk from center
  4. distance between 2 disk
  5. incubation
  6. zoi measurement
  7. if sxt (sulfonamides) create 2 concentric zones measure at
A
  1. 12 plates
  2. 5 plates
  3. 24mm
  4. 15mm
  5. 35-37c for 16-18hrs
  6. ruler/caliper
  7. outer zones
49
Q

agar used for each fastidious org.

  1. streptococci
  2. mycobacterium
  3. mrsa
  4. n. gonorrhoeae
  5. n. meningitidis
  6. h. influenza
  7. anaerobes
A
  1. mha w/ 5% sheep’s rbc
  2. middlebrook (clear)
  3. mha w/ 2% nacl
  4. gc agar w/ supplements
  5. 2.5% horse blood
  6. htm
  7. brucella agar w/ hemin
50
Q

automated sys. - detect growth at

  1. uses rgt cards and chromogenic substrates - absorbance
  2. thru spectrophotometric/fluorometric
  3. fluorometric/colorimetric
A
  1. vitek
  2. walk away
  3. phoenix
51
Q

tests performed

  1. inducible clindamycin (2ug) resistance - means strong inducer to erythromycin (15ug)/methylase enzyme is present
  2. (+) result
  3. Activates (R) to clindamycin
  4. strip, single antibiotic w/ diff. conc. aka mic on test
  5. (+) result
  6. aka schlicther test - effective on treatment
  7. screening for entero but confirm w/ CarbaNP test and mCIM test
  8. (+) result
A
  1. d test
  2. d zoi - (+) is resistant
  3. erm gene
  4. e test
  5. ellipse zoi
  6. serum bactericidial test
  7. modified hodge test
  8. clover leaf zoi
52
Q

prc steps

  1. separates dna strands - 94-95c; 30-35secs
  2. attach primer to dna - 40-45c; 30-1min
  3. synthesis of new strands - 68-72c; 1-2min
A
  1. denaturation
  2. annealing
  3. extension

  1. use taq polymerase
    * mgcl - proper function
    * tris buffer - proper reaction
53
Q

ID of org

  1. semi-auto - uses strips, microtubes w/ biochemical substrates (pure)
  2. 2 automated, other is more rapid
A
  1. api 20e, api 20a (analytical profile index)
  2. vitek, maldi-tof (matrix assted laser desorption - time of light) - rapid
54
Q

gaspak jar -anaerobe

  1. envelope contains -responsible for co2, h2
  2. anaerobic indicator
  3. uses wat catalyst - common error - inactivation due to repeated use
A
  1. sodium bicarbonate (nacho3), sodium borohydride (nabh4)
  2. meth. blue, resazurin (pink)
  3. palladium catalyst

colorless if no o2

boiling thioglycolate - drive off o2 (anaero, aero, facul)

55
Q

gs (gram -)

  1. for b. pertussis
  2. for legionella
A
  1. 0.1% carbol fuchsin, 2mins
  2. 0.2% carbol fuchsin
56
Q

more susceptible to infections

A

warm moist skin

57
Q

most common mtd in treating infectious waste

A

incineration

58
Q
  1. specimen for naat/pcr
  2. traditional specimen for c. trichomatis
A
  1. first morning urine
  2. urethral swab

naat - screening for c. trichomatis and n. gonorrhea

59
Q

smooth, clay like

A

n. elongata

60
Q

brittle, crumbly, wrinkled

A

nocardia

60
Q

shiny half pearls on bap/ mercury droplet like

A

b. pertusis

60
Q

butter, cream yellow

A

s. aureus

61
Q

fried egg on bap

A

mycoplasma

62
Q

greenish metallic sheen
1. emb
2. bap

A
  1. e. coli
  2. p. aeruginosa (serrated confluent growth - cetrimide)
63
Q

blue pigmentation

A

kluyvera, proteus

64
Q

swarming

A
  • c. tenani
  • c. septicum
65
Q

gun metallic black

A

c. diptherae

66
Q

identifies hazardous task and promotes employee safety

A

exposure control plan

67
Q

wat memorandum that states - diagnosis of tb - 2 samples in 1 day

A

doh memo. no. 2023-0021

68
Q

myco. tb. complex

mtbc - unable to produce growth on media, croissant morphology

A

m. microti

MAC TB

M. tuberculosis,
M. bovis,
M. africanum,
M. microti,
M. caprae.

69
Q
  • resembles m. tb
  • from hot water taps/contaminated water
A

m. xenopi

70
Q

selective agar- gram (-) anaerobes

A

kvlb (kanamycin vancomycin laked blood agar)

71
Q
  1. m agar w/ arginine - phenol red for
  2. u agar w/ urea - phenol red for
A
  1. mycoplasma
  2. ureaplasma
72
Q

only NF produces h2s on kia/tsi

A

shewanella purefaciens

73
Q

produces esbl (Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase) - (R) to antibiotics

usually bowel org.

A
  • e.coli
  • k. pneumoniae
74
Q
  1. mistaken as yersinia
  2. routine stool culture for yersinia
  3. best media for yersinia
A
  1. proteus
  2. mac
  3. cin (Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin) - selective for yersinia
75
Q

diagnosis for lyme dse

A

sero (if or eia)

76
Q
  1. detects lipase lecinthinase production
  2. (+) result
A
  1. egg yolk/ mod. mc clung/ neomycin agar
  2. opaque precipitate/ iridiscent sheen/ pearly layer
77
Q

after id and ast for m. tb it is held for how many months

A

6 months

78
Q

mycobacterium spp
* (+) sub. skin - grow 30c

A
  • m. ulcerans
  • m. marinum
  • m. haemophilum
79
Q

differential

Xylose Lysine Deoxycholate agar (xld)
* yellow colonies (fermenter)
* red colonies w/ black centers
* colorless colonies

A
  • e. coli
  • salmonella
  • shigella

xld - salmonella and shigella

80
Q

water bacteriology exam

mutiple tube fermentation test (gold std)
1. presumptive test
2. confirmatory test
3. completed test

A
  1. lauryl sulfate broth
  2. brilliant green blue lactose broth
  3. emb, na
81
Q

catalase - false (+) if use colony from this media

A

bap

82
Q

prosthetic heart valve infection due to slim or biofilm prod. of this org.

A

s. epidermidis

83
Q

pyelonephritis and cystitis in indwelling catheters due to wat org

A

s. saprophyticus

84
Q

VF in s. aureus

  1. skin infection
  2. skin desquamation/scalded skin syndrome/ritters dse/pemphigus neonatorum
  3. invade tissues
  4. resistance to penicilin
  5. marker of vilurence
  6. fibrinolysis - dissolution of clot
  7. descreases viscosity - assst. mobility
  8. beta hemolysis
  9. prevent phagocytosis
  10. food poisoning
  11. tsst 1 (tampons))
  12. desctruction of wbc
A
  1. lipase
  2. exfoliatin
  3. hyaluronidase/duran raynal factor
  4. beta-lactamase
  5. coagulase
  6. staphylokinase
  7. dnase
  8. beta hemolysin/ sphingomyelinase c/ hot cold lysin
  9. protein a
  10. enterotoxins a,b
  11. tsst 1/pyrogenic exotoxin c
  12. panton valentine leukocidin -pvl
85
Q
  1. (R) to penicilin of s. aureus is due to ________ encoded by
  2. treatment for s. aureus
A
  1. pbp2a (penicilin binding protein 2a), mec a gene
  2. moc - methicilin, oxacillin, cloxacillin

vancomycin - mrsa

86
Q
  • old sock odor on msa
  • butyrous colonies
  • yellow color colonies
A

s. aureus

87
Q

selective medium for gram (+)

A

pea agar (white colonies)

88
Q
  • lancet/bullet shaed diplococci
  • done shape - umbonate (young)
  • flat/nail-head/crater-like/umblicate/coin w/ raised rim/ checker appearance/ doughnut - umbilicated

otitis media
lobar pneumonia (rusty sputum)

A

s. pneumoniae

89
Q

meningitis

  1. newborn - 1month
  2. 1month - 5 yrs old
  3. 5 yrs old - 29 yrs old
  4. > 29 yrs. old - geriatrics
  5. immunocompromised px
A
  1. s. agalactiae
  2. h. influenzae
  3. n. meningitidis
  4. s. pneumoniae
  5. l. monocytogenes
90
Q

for the attachment of viridans strep to tooth surfaces

A

glucans
dextrans

91
Q
  • not lancefield that produces glucans and dxtrans

under this org.
1. causes sub. acute endocartitis
2. dental carries
3. found oral cavity

A

viridans

  1. s. mitis
  2. s. mutans
  3. s. mitis

lancefield - extraction of c carbohydrate from cell wall

92
Q
A
93
Q
A

BACTERIOLOGY (1 decks)

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