Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

The cellular immune response plays a role in whether a person exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis will develop tuberculosis disease (TB). Which of the following factors will make a person most at-risk of progressing from infect to active disease

a) Amount of exposure
b) Malnutrition
c) Allergies
d) Age of patient

A

B - Malnutrition

TB is spread by airborne particles called droplet nuclei. After initial infection, the disease usually goes to an asymptomatic and non-infectious phase called latent TB. The risk of a patient with a positive TB screening test progressing to active disease ranges from about 3% to 15% throughout their lifetime. Malnutrition can have a significant impact on whether or not an exposed patient will progress from latent TB to active disease

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2
Q

All of the following organisms stain with an acid-fast stain, or one of its variants, EXCEPT

a) Mycobacterium spp.
b) Cryptosporidium spp.
c) Actinomyces spp.
d) Nocardia spp.

A

C - Actinomyces spp.

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3
Q

What is the best method for the detection of Chlamydia trachomatis in cases of sexually transmitted disease

a) Non-culture EIA methods
b) Cervical tissue culture
c) Culture of Thayer-Martin agar
d) DNA amplification techniques

A

D - DNA amplification techniques

DNA amplification probes for the DNA of C. trachomatis and are the most sensitive tests available. PCR is one of the most common forms of this method

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4
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is often used as a bacterial species for the quality control of KIA (Kligler iron agar). What is the expected reaction

a) Acid slant/acid deep
b) Alkaline slant/acid deep
c) Alkaline slant/acid deep/H2S
d) Alkaline slant/alkaline deep

A

D - Alkaline slant/alkaline deep

P. aeruginosa is a non-fermenter, so it cannot produce acid from glucose in a fermentative medium. There is no change in the KIA tube, and both slant and deep remain alkaline (red/red)

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5
Q

A tech is testing a sorbitol negative isolate for possible E. coli O157:H7 from a MACSORB plate. The biochemical identification proves the organism is E. coli. Serological testing for the O157 somatic antigen is positive. Serological testing for the H7 flagellar antigen is negative. Quality control for all serological testing passed. What should the tech do next

a) Report out the organism as E. coli O157:H7
b) Repeat biochemical testing
c) Repeat O157 serological testing
d) Subculture the organism to motility medium for repeat H7 serological testing

A

D - Subculture the organism to motility medium for repeat H7 serological testing

The flagellar antigen (H7) can be initially negative for serotyping when taken directly off the MACSORB plate. Subculturing to a motility medium can increase the production of the flagella and allow repeat testing for the H7 antigen to show agglutination

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6
Q

A technologist subcultures a positive blood culture and notes the follow characteristics on the isolated colonies
* Growth of non-hemolytic colonies with ground-glass appearance, displaying a “medusa head”
* Gram stain reveals a large, gram-positive rod with central and subterminal spores that do not swell the cells
* Catalase positive
* Non-motile
What is the most likely conclusion and action

a) The organism is NOT Bacillus anthracis, continue identification per laboratory procedures
b) Cannot rule out Bacillus anthracis, refer isolate to your Laboratory Response Network (LRN) reference lab
c) The organism is likely Bacillus anthracis, continue identification per laboratory procedures
d) The organism is likely Bacillus anthracis, continue identification testing for confirmation

A

B - Cannot rule out Bacillus anthracis, refer isolate to your Laboratory Response Network (LRN) reference lab

Any isolate with the following features should be immediately referred to your LRN reference lab for definitive identification of the organism
* Gram stain shows large, gram positive rods with sub-terminal or central spores
* Gray colonies with ground-glass appearance
* Non-hemolytic on BAP
* Tenacious or “sticky” colonies like petroleum jelly
* Catalase positive
* Non-motile

Most commonly, an organism with these characteristics is B. anthracis; however B. cereus variant mycoides and B. megaterium may also fit this description

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7
Q

If septic arthritis is suspected, specimens from which of the following normally sterile sites should be collected to detect the microorganism causing the condition

a) Serous fluid
b) Synovial fluid
c) CSF
d) Blood

A

B - Synovial fluid

Synovial fluid is the fluid that gives lubrication to the joint and provides nourishment for articular cartilage. It would likely grow the microorganism causing the septic joint

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8
Q

A wound specimen was received into the laboratory and a large gram positive rod was isolated. The microbiologist suspected the isolate was a probable anthracis and had to rule in/out before reporting. All of the following tests must be performed before calling the species B. anthracis except

a) Catalase
b) Motility
c) Presence of hemolysis
d) Oxidase

A

D - Oxidase

Oxidase is most often performed on non-fermentative gram NEGATIVE rods
However, the bioterrorist agent Brucella can be tested with oxidase to help rule in this species. Brucella stains as tiny gram negative coccobacilli and is oxidase positive

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9
Q

A new tech has a presumptive Shigella species via biochemical identification on a stool culture. To confirm, serological testing is performed. The serological testing is negative and the quality control which was run simultaneously passed. What should the tech do next

a) Repeat biochemical testing or use an alternate method
b) Repeat serological testing
c) Heat a suspension of the organism and then repeat the serological testing
d) Report out the organism as E. coli

A

C - Heat a suspension of the organism and then repeat the serological testing

Serotyping of Shigella species is used to determine the serogroup (A, B, C, or D) and species of the organisms. This testing looks for the O (somatic) antigen that is located in the outer membrane of the cell wall. This antigen is heat-stable, so if the organism is heated, the O antigen will remain. Some species of Shigella contain the K (capsular) antigen located in the polysaccharide capsule of the organism. The K can “cover” the O since the capsule is external to the cell wall, and can be removed with heat while preserving the O antigen. After heating, repeat serological testing should provide a result for the Shigella serotype

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10
Q

What bacteria is responsible for the bubonic plague

a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

B - Yersinia pestis

Y. pestis causes bubonic plague and is transmitted from infected rats and other rodents to humans by the bite of rat fleas

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11
Q

A tech receives a request for VRE colonization testing on a patient in the hospital. Which of the following is an appropriate are of the body for culture for screening

a) Anterior nares
b) Rectal area
c) Groin
d) Urine

A

B - Rectal area

Stool specimens or rectal swabs are used to screen for colonization of patients with VRE. Enterococcus spp. are normal flora organisms in the gastrointestinal system and thus any VRE isolated would be carried in the gastrointestinal system. Screening helps to reduce the spread of the infection within the hospital

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12
Q

All of the following statements are associated with MALDI-TOF mass spectrophotometry used in clinical microbiology except

a) Bacteria is amplified using a laser
b) Molecules are measured based on a mass-to-charge ratio
c) A matrix absorbs energy from the laser and converts it into heat
d) A spectrum is created

A

A - Bacteria is amplified using a laser

The bacteria is not amplified

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13
Q

A CSF was collected from a lumbar puncture to evaluate for possible meningitis. Four tubes were collected and sent to the microbiology laboratory for analysis. Which of the four tubes is preferred for microbiology studies

a) Tube 1
b) Tube 2
c) Tube 3
d) Tube 4

A

B - Tube 2

This tube will be more concentrated and allow for the recovery of low numbers of bacterial organisms causing meningitis. In addition, this specimen will most often be free of bloods cells or bacteria introduced by the spinal tap procedure

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14
Q

A patient came into the emergency department with symptoms of meningitis. The patient was suspected of having a blocked cerebral shunt, which can cause meningitis. The shunt was drained and sent to the microbiology department for culture. All of the follow organisms are associated with shunt infections except

a) CONS
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) E. coli
d) Neisseria meningitidis

A

D - Neisseria meningitidis

This organism is typically not seen in cerebral shunt infections even though it is a cause of meningitis. The following organisms are most often seen in shunt infections: CONS, S. aureus, Cutibacterium acnes (P. acnes), viridans group strep, P. aeruginosa, K. pneumoniae, E. coli, and Serratia marcescens

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15
Q

MRSA is a serious health concern in the hospital environment and also in the community for patients who have had no contact with the healthcare setting. In order to control the spread of MRSA and prevent infection with the organism, it is recommended to screen patients for MRSA prior to being admitted to a healthcare setting. Which of the follow antimicrobials is best to use when testing for methicillin resistance

a) Methicillin
b) Cefoxitin
c) Penicillin
d) Oxacillin

A

B - Cefoxitin

Cefoxitin is the recommended antimicrobial to use for the detection of methicillin resistance in S. aureus isolates. Since methicillin is no longer used in the United States, resistance has routinely be tested using oxacillin. However, it is now known that cefoxitin is a better inducer of resistance mediated by the mecA gene - the gene responsible for methicillin resistance in S. aureus

FOX POS and Oxacillin resistant means MRSA

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16
Q

What color would the agar be around a colony of Staphylococcus epidermidis growing on Mannitol Salt agar (MSA)

a) Yellow
b) Red
c) Brown
d) Clear

A

B - Red

Mannitol salt agar is commonly used for selective differentiation of staphylococci. It contains peptone base, mannitol, and a phenol red indicator. At a 7.5% salt concentration, it also inhibits most bacterial growth
No change in the color of the original agar (red) indicates that the mannitol was not fermented, which S. epidermidis would show

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17
Q

Irregular-size, gray white colonies, with irregular margins are recovered by a stool specimen in a case of antibiotic-associated colitis. The colonies are flat, gray white, and spreading with irregular margins. Some patients with this infection develop pseudomembranous colitis that can be life-threatening. Growth is enhanced when cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used. Gram staining shows elongated, gram positive bacilli with distinctive subterminal and central spores that provide the presumptive identification. Additional key identifying reactions are the absence of lipase and lecithinase and a chartreuse pigment under fluorescent light. With these observations, select the presumptive identification of this isolate

a) Cutibacterium acnes (P. acnes)
b) Clostridioides difficile
c) Actinomyces israeli
d) Bacteroides fragilis

A

B - Clostridioides difficile

Although the flat, gray white spreading colonies with irregular outer margins growing on anaerobic blood agar may be non-specific, the enhanced growth on CCFA provides for presumptive identification of C. difficile. C. diff will produce a yellow color due to fructose fermentation. Presumptive identification is further supported by the observation of longer, slender, gram positive rods with subterminal spores

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18
Q

A physician suspected that a young, sexually active woman had bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which of the following specimen sources is the correct specimen of choice to support a bacterial vaginosis infection

a) Urethral
b) Endocervical
c) Vaginal
d) Cervical

A

C - Vaginal

BV causes vaginitis, or inflammation/infection of the vaginal mucosa. Commonly associated with Gardnerella vaginalis and is characterized by a foul smelling, gray discharge. The discharge is made up of sloughed epithelial cells that care covered with tiny, gram variable rods. These cells are referred to as Clue cells.
To provide a clinical diagnosis of BV, three or more of the following must be present
1. Gray discharge
2. Clue cells should be seen wet mount
3. pH >4.5
4. Fishy odor after the addition of 10% KOH to the discharge on a slide

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19
Q

All of the following are Lancefield carbohydrate antigens found on Beta hemolytic Streptococcus species. Which of them is not found on Streptococcus anginosus group

a) A
b) B
c) F
d) G

A

B - B

Group B Lancefield antigen is found on S. agalactiae (Group B strep)

20
Q

MALDI-TOF is used for the identification of aerobic bacterial isolated on a urine culture bench. Upon placing the target into the MALDI-TOF instrument, no peaks were found on any target spots, including the quality control. What caused this issue

a) Quality control organism was not added to the target wells
b) Matrix solution was not added to the target wells
c) The target was not cleaned properly
d) Quality control organism has deteriorated

A

B - Matrix solution was not added to the target wells

Matrix solution is required to properly identify the organisms, by extracting proteins from the organisms on the target. Once the proteins are extracted with matrix, they each generate a distinct signal (peak) and then spectrum. This spectrum is compared to known spectra in a database to identify these organisms
Since there were no peaks found on the target, this points to the fact that no proteins were extracted to make those peaks. Also, since all the target spots did not work, including the quality control, this points to a procedural error that occurred with all the target wells

21
Q

All of the following are characteristics of Burkholderia pseudomallei except

a) Has been reported as the cause of laboratory-acquired infection
b) Oxidase positive
c) Non-motile
d) Catalase positive

A

C - Non-motile

B. pseudomallei is motile, a characteristic that differentiates it from the non-motile B. mallei

22
Q

A tech receives a call from the floor regarding antimicrobial therapy. The patient culture yielded an aerobic gram negative rod and the physician would like to use an antibiotic that inhibits DNA synthesis. Which of the following antibiotics would be the best choice

a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Cefazolin
c) Tetracycline
d) Gentamycin

A

A - Ciprofloxacin

Cipro is part of the fluoroquinolones
These are effective against aerobic gram positive and gram negative species
The target for the antibiotic is inhibition of DNA replication in the cell, with a primary target of topoisomerase II

23
Q

_______ is predominantly associated with skin and soft tissue infections, such as abscesses, cellulitis, folliculitis, and impetigo

a) Healthcare-associated MRSA
b) Community-acquired MRSA
c) E. coli
d) Neisseria meningitidis

A

B - Community-acquired MRSA

Community-acquired MRSA infections are predominantly skin and soft tissue infections. Outbreaks can occur that are typically seen in communities such as prisons, daycare centers, and military recruits. The incidence of infection in pediatric patients is increasing due to these outbreaks. The strain responsible for the infections is called USA300 MRSA and is now being associated with significant bacteremia as well

24
Q

A patient presents to the emergency room with hemorrhagic diarrhea. A stool specimen was sent to the microbiology department for culture. The specimen was plated on BAP, MAC, and MACSORB. Gram negative, oxidase negative rods grew as lactose fermenters on MAC and clear on MACSORB. Biochemical testing revealed the organism was lysine decarboxylase positive and did not produce H2S. Which organism is suspected

a) Citrobacter freundii
b) E. coli O157:H7
c) Shigella sonnei
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

B - E. coli O157:H7

Clear colonies on MACSORB presumptively identify E. coli serogroup O157:H7. All strains of E. coli, being lactose fermenters, will produce red colonies on conventional MAC. However, unlike most E. coli strains, E. coli O157:H7 does not produce acid from sorbitol. Therefore, colonies of E. coli O157:H7 are non-pigmented when grown on modified MAC in which sorbitol has been substituted for lactose

25
Q

Which of the following serological tests would be used for the diagnosis of Q fever

a) Weil-Felix test
b) Quellung test
c) EIA or indirect immunofluorescence
d) Cold agglutinin test

A

C - EIA or indirect immunofluorescence

Serology testing utilizing indirect immunofluorescence or EIA is the most commonly used methodology. IFA is considered the reference method due to its high specificity and sensitivity in both acute and chronic infections. It is also reliable, cost effective, and easy to perform

26
Q

Illustrated in the photograph is a bile esculin agar plate inoculated with a bacterial isolate from a urinary tract infection. The most likely identification is

a) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Bacteroides fragilis

A

C - Enterococcus faecalis

A bacterial isolate recovered from the urinary tract that hydrolyzes esculin and grows in the presence of bile is most likely to be an Enterococcus species

27
Q

Small intracellular gram negative cocci were observed in a centrifuged spinal fluid sediment. A clinical diagnosis of meningitis was suspected. Yellow-gray colonies after 24 hour incubation had been observed on BAP. The organism was able to utilize glucose and maltose. What is the presumptive identification of the isolate

a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) Neisseria meningitidis
c) Aeromonas spp.
d) Kingella kingae

A

B - Neisseria meningitidis

Intracellular gram negative cocci provides the presumptive identification of Neisseria spp. The observation of the organism within spinal fluid would further suggest N. meningitidis. The presumptive identification can be confirmed by demonstrating selective carbohydrate utilization of both glucose and maltose.

Children and adults may carry N. meningitidis bacteria in the oropharynx, that can potentially spread to the meninges and the brain from the dissemination of oropharyngeal infections

28
Q

If you receive a transudate fluid for a gram stain and bacterial culture, what is the ideal specimen preparation method for the bacterial culture

a) Use the centrifuge to concentrate the sample; then using the pellet to inoculate the media
b) Use centrifugation to concentrate the sample; then using the supernatant to inoculate the media
c) Dip a swab in the original sample and use this swab to inoculate the media
d) Use a sterile pipette to draw up the original sample and use this fluid to inoculate the media

A

A - Use the centrifuge to concentrate the sample; then using the pellet to inoculate the media

“Thin” specimens such as CSF and transudate fluid should be centrifuged to concentrate the sample. Using the pellet of the concentrated sample, inoculate the media by placing a single drop on each plate

29
Q

All of the following are collected from sterile sites except

a) Urine
b) Pleural fluid
c) Abscess fluid
d) CSF

A

C - Abscess fluid

An abscess is the accumulation of pus exuding from a sinus tract or from a mucocutaneous surface. This is indicative of a suppurative infection, meaning that the body is mounting a response to something foreign, likely a microorganism. Essentially, an abscess is not a sterile site

30
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM) lung disease

a) Mycobacterium ulcerans
b) Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
c) Mycobacterium kansasii
d) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

A

D - Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

31
Q

What is the probable identity of an organism isolated from a wound culture that demonstrates the following test results

Phenylalanine deaminase - negative
TSI - A/A gas
Citrate - positive
Lysine - positive
SIM - negative/negative/negative
Urea - weakly positive

a) E. coli
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Klebsiella aerogenes
d) Proteus vulgaris

A

B - Klebsiella pneumoniae

32
Q

A tech is working with a large, spore-forming, gram positive rod they believe is Bacillus spp. Which of the following tests could the tech use to ensure this organism is not B. anthracis

a) Motility positive
b) Susceptibility to Penicillin
c) Non-hemolytic on BAP
d) No growth on PEA

A

A - Motility positive

Laboratories must use testing to ensure that Bacillus spp. (which can mostly be contaminants) are differentiated from B. anthracis, which is the cause of anthrax
One key difference between B. anthracis and other Bacillus spp. is that B. anthracis is non-motile. This can be determined by used a wet mount method or using a motility medium. If the tech found the organism to be motility positive, they could rule out B. anthracis as an identification for the organism

33
Q

A vascular catheter tip is received in the laboratory for aerobic culture. How should the tech proceed in processing this specimen for culture

a) Touch each agar plate with the end of the catheter tip
b) Roll the catheter tip across the surface of the agar 4 times
c) Add 1.0 mL of saline to the catheter tip and vortex
d) Inoculate the catheter tip in a thio broth

A

B - Roll the catheter tip across the surface of the agar 4 times

Vascular catheter cultures should be processed using the Maki roll technique. A 5- to 7- cm segment of the catheter is rolled across the agar surface 4 times, using sterile forceps. After incubation, any organism that produces 15 or more colonies would be considered clinically significant for a catheter-related infection

34
Q

The risk of exposure of a person to an infection of TB disease may be related to which of the following

a) Born in the United States
b) High social status
c) Socially disadvantaged
d) Person in non-high-risk groups

A

C - Socially disadvantaged

Persons born in areas with high rates of TB and frequent travelers to these areas have a greater risk of infection. Health care workers and employees of high-risk congregate settings are also at greater risk for infection. Infants, children, and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories are at a higher risk for infection. Socially disadvantaged patients have a higher incidence of tuberculosis in the United States

35
Q

Which of the following is the primary virulence factor in Streptococcus pneumoniae

a) Lipoteichoic acids
b) Capsular polysaccharide
c) M protein
d) Protein A

A

B - Capsular polysaccharide

A polysaccharide capsule prevents ingestion by phagocytic cells

36
Q

All of the following are commercial methodologies that Chlamydia and Neisseria identification have been based on except

a) Ligase chain reaction
b) Hybrid capture
c) Branched chain DNA technology
d) Strand displacement amplification

A

C - Branched chain DNA technology

Branched chain DNA technology was utilized by Bayer Versant for the HIV, HBV, and HCV viral load assays
The assay is a signal amplification technique used for viruses
Target probes attach to preamplifier probes and target nucleic acids

37
Q

Gram negative diplococci that grow on MTM can be further confirmed as Neisseria gonorrhoeae if they are

a) oxidase positive, glucose positive, and maltose positive
b) oxidase positive and glucose positive, maltose negative
c) oxidase positive, maltose positive, and glucose negative
d) glucose positive, oxidase negative and maltose negative

A

B - oxidase positive and glucose positive, maltose negative

38
Q

The best method to process specimens for mycobacterial culture contaminated with Pseudomonas is

a) N-acetyl-L-cystine and NaOH (NALC)
b) NaOH
c) zephiran-trisodium phosphate
d) oxacilic acid

A

D - oxacilic acid

The oxacilic acid method is superior to alkali methods for processing specimens contaminated with Pseudomonas

39
Q

A gram stain performed on a sinus aspirate reveals gram negative diplococci and PMNs. Oxidase testing is positive and carbohydrate degradation tests are inert. The organism most likely is

a) Neisseria lactamica
b) Moraxella catarrhalis
c) Neisseria meningitidis
d) Neisseria sica

A

B - Moraxella catarrhalis

The Neisseria species lists all ferment several carbohydrates
Moraxella catarrhalis is biochemically inert and does not ferment carbohydrates

40
Q

The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of deamination activity are

a) E. coli - K. pneumoniae
b) S. typhimurium - E. coli
c) E. coli - P. aeruginosa
d) P. mirabilis - E. coli

A

D - P. mirabilis - E. coli

Of the organisms listed, only Proteus mirabilis is phenylalanine-deaminase positive

41
Q

“Nutritionally variant” streptococci are

a) enterococci
b) group D enterococci
c) beta hemolytic streptococci
d) in the genera Granulicatella and Abiotrophia

A

D - In the genera Granulicatella and Abiotrophia

Organisms that used to be categorized as nutritionally variant or deficient streptococci have been reclassified into the genera Abiotrophia and Granulicatella

42
Q

Which of the following specimen requests in acceptable

a) feces submitted for anaerobic culture
b) foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture
c) rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci
d) urine for culture of AFB

A

D - Urine for culture of AFB

Urine is an appropriate specimen for the detection of renal TB
Since feces contain anaerobic organisms as part of the indigenous flora, it is an unacceptable specimen for anaerobic culture
Foley catheter tips are also not acceptable for culture because they are contaminated with colonizing organisms
Gram stain smears of rectal swabs for gonococci should not be performed since the presence of organisms with similar morphologies may lead to overinterpretation of smears

43
Q

During the previous month, Staphylococcus epidermidis has been isolated from blood cultures at 2-3 times the rate from the previous year. What is the most logical explanation for the increase in these isolates

a) the blood culture media are contaminated with this organism
b) hospital ventilation system is contaminated with S. epidermidis
c) there has been a break in proper skin preparation before drawing blood for culture
d) a relatively virulent isolate is being spread from patient to patient

A

C - There has been a break in proper skin preparation before drawing blood for culture

Appropriate skin antisepsis is the most important factor in preventing contaminated blood cultures
S. epidermidis is a common blood culture contaminant because it is a common inhabitant of the skin

44
Q

An antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis is

a) chloramphenicol
b) colistin
c) penicillin
d) sulfamethoxazole

A

C - Penicillin

Penicillin inhibits penicillin binding proteins that are essential to peptidoglycan (cell wall) synthesis
Penicillin is a beta lactam antibiotic, all beta lactams inhibit cell wall synthesis

Chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis
Colistin increases cell membrane permeability
Sulfamethoxazole inhibits folate metabolism

45
Q

The observation of darkly pigmented colonies on agar is somewhat of a surprise. The colonies of each of the following bacterial species may have an appearance similar except what

a) Prevotella melaningenica
b) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
c) Chromobacterium violaceum
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

B) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

Darkly pigmented colonies are typically seen with bacterial species that produce pigments. Stenotrophomonas does not produce any pigments, but can sometimes appear bluish on MAC

Prevotella produces protoporphyrin, causing colonies to turn brown to black with age
Chromobacterium produced violacein that produces a violet pigment that can appear dark in older cultures
Pseudomonas typically produces pyoverdin and pyocyanin, but can also produce pyomelanin