Bacteria Classification Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

What is the purpose of the Gram stain?

A

The Gram stain differentiates bacteria into Gram-positive (purple) and Gram-negative (pink) based on their cell wall structure.

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3
Q

What are the steps of the Gram stain procedure?

A

1) Apply crystal violet (purple dye), 2) Apply iodine (mordant), 3) Alcohol wash (decolorization), 4) Apply safranin (counterstain).

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4
Q

What is the key difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

A

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.

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5
Q

What organisms do not stain with the Gram stain?

A

Organisms without a cell wall (e.g., Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma, Chlamydia), acid-fast bacteria, and viruses.

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6
Q

What is the clinical significance of direct examination of a specimen?

A

It allows for presumptive identification of organisms, guides empiric therapy, and provides evidence of infection even if cultures are negative.

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7
Q

What are the common biochemical tests used to identify bacteria?

A

Catalase, coagulase, PYR test, oxidase, and indole tests.

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8
Q

What is the catalase test used for?

A

The catalase test differentiates Staphylococcus (catalase-positive) from Streptococcus (catalase-negative).

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9
Q

What is the coagulase test used for?

A

The coagulase test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus (coagulase-positive) from other staphylococci (coagulase-negative).

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10
Q

What are the three types of hemolysis seen on blood agar plates?

A

1) Alpha-hemolysis (partial hemolysis), 2) Beta-hemolysis (complete hemolysis), 3) Gamma-hemolysis (no hemolysis).

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11
Q

What is the natural habitat of Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Skin, mucous membranes, respiratory tract, and the anterior nares of patients and medical staff.

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12
Q

What are the common infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Skin and soft tissue infections (e.g., boils, abscesses), osteomyelitis, sepsis, endocarditis, and toxin-mediated diseases (e.g., toxic shock syndrome).

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13
Q

What is MRSA, and how does it differ from MSSA?

A

MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is resistant to methicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics, while MSSA (Methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus) is susceptible.

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14
Q

What are the virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Catalase, coagulase, hyaluronidase, hemolysins, Panton-Valentine leukocidin, exfoliative toxins, TSST-1, and enterotoxins.

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15
Q

What is scalded skin syndrome, and what causes it?

A

Scalded skin syndrome is a condition caused by exfoliative toxins from Staphylococcus aureus, leading to blistering and loss of the superficial skin layer, mostly in infants.

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16
Q

What are coagulase-negative staphylococci (CNS), and what infections do they cause?

A

CNS (e.g., Staphylococcus epidermidis) are less virulent than S. aureus and typically cause prosthetic material infections, IV catheter infections, and urinary tract infections.

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17
Q

What is the difference between Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis in terms of colony appearance?

A

S. aureus forms gold colonies, while S. epidermidis forms white colonies.

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18
Q

What is the PYR test used for?

A

The PYR test is used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus) and Enterococcus species, which are PYR-positive.

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19
Q

What are the common infections caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Pharyngitis, skin infections (e.g., impetigo, cellulitis), necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever, and immune-mediated diseases (e.g., rheumatic fever).

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20
Q

What is necrotizing fasciitis, and what organism commonly causes it?

A

Necrotizing fasciitis is a severe infection of deep tissues caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, leading to destruction of muscle fascia and subcutaneous fat.

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21
Q

What is scarlet fever, and what causes it?

A

Scarlet fever is a toxin-mediated disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, characterized by a red rash, sandpaper texture, and ‘strawberry tongue.’

22
Q

What is the natural habitat of Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus)?

A

Vagina, cervix, and gastrointestinal tract.

23
Q

What infections are caused by Streptococcus agalactiae?

A

Neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, meningitis, and postpartum sepsis.

24
Q

What is the natural habitat of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Upper respiratory tract, with asymptomatic carriage common in young children.

25
Q

What infections are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, sepsis, and meningitis.

26
Q

What are the two vaccines available for Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

23-valent polysaccharide vaccine and 13-valent conjugate vaccine.

27
Q

What are viridans group streptococci, and what infections do they cause?

A

Viridans group streptococci are alpha-hemolytic and cause dental caries, abscesses, sepsis, and endocarditis.

28
Q

What are the main species of Enterococcus, and what infections do they cause?

A

Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium cause post-surgical wound infections, intra-abdominal infections, sepsis, and endocarditis.

29
Q

What is VRE, and why is it significant?

A

VRE (Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus) is significant because it is resistant to vancomycin, a last-resort antibiotic, making infections difficult to treat.

30
Q

What is the natural habitat of Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Gastrointestinal tract and environment, with the ability to grow at 4°C.

31
Q

What populations are most at risk for Listeria monocytogenes infections?

A

Pregnant women, infants, the elderly, and immunocompromised individuals.

32
Q

What infections are caused by Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Gastroenteritis, sepsis, meningitis, and spontaneous abortion or stillbirth in pregnant women.

33
Q

What is the appearance of Listeria monocytogenes on blood agar?

A

Small zones of beta-hemolysis.

34
Q

What is the natural habitat of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Nasopharynx, skin, and environment.

35
Q

What is the primary disease caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A

Respiratory diphtheria, characterized by pseudomembrane formation and systemic toxicity.

36
Q

What is the appearance of Corynebacterium diphtheriae on Gram stain?

A

Gram-positive bacilli with a club-like appearance.

37
Q

What is the natural habitat of Bacillus anthracis?

A

Infected animals, spores in soil, water, and vegetation, and it can be used in bioterrorism.

38
Q

What are the clinical forms of anthrax?

A

Cutaneous anthrax, inhalation anthrax, gastrointestinal anthrax, and injection anthrax.

39
Q

What is the most common form of anthrax, and what are its symptoms?

A

Cutaneous anthrax (95% of cases) presents as a painless ulcer with a black eschar.

40
Q

What is inhalation anthrax, and why is it dangerous?

A

Inhalation anthrax occurs when spores are inhaled, causing fever, respiratory failure, pleural effusions, and mediastinal widening, with a high mortality rate.

41
Q

Why is Bacillus anthracis considered a potential bioterrorism agent?

A

Its spores are easily found, can be produced in labs, and can survive in the environment for long periods, making them ideal for silent release.

42
Q

What is the appearance of Bacillus anthracis on Gram stain?

A

Gram-positive bacilli with central spores, often forming chains.

43
Q

What is the role of the capsule in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

The capsule is a virulence factor that helps the bacteria evade phagocytosis by the host immune system.

44
Q

What is the significance of the M protein in Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

The M protein is a virulence factor that helps the bacteria evade phagocytosis and is the basis for the different serotypes of Group A Streptococcus.

45
Q

What is the difference between alpha-hemolytic and beta-hemolytic streptococci?

A

Alpha-hemolytic streptococci cause partial hemolysis (greenish discoloration), while beta-hemolytic streptococci cause complete hemolysis (clear zones).

46
Q

What is the significance of the bile esculin test for Enterococcus?

A

Enterococcus species hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile, which helps differentiate them from other streptococci.

47
Q

What is the significance of the oxidase test?

A

The oxidase test is used to identify bacteria that produce cytochrome c oxidase, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

48
Q

What is the significance of the indole test?

A

The indole test is used to identify bacteria that can break down tryptophan into indole, such as Escherichia coli.

49
Q

What is the significance of the PYR test for Enterococcus?

A

Enterococcus species are PYR-positive, which helps differentiate them from other streptococci.

50
Q

What is the significance of the catalase test for Staphylococcus?

A

Staphylococcus species are catalase-positive, which helps differentiate them from Streptococcus (catalase-negative).

51
Q

What is the significance of the coagulase test for Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive, which helps differentiate it from other staphylococci (e.g., Staphylococcus epidermidis).