Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive cocci in clusters

A

Staph

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2
Q

Catalase positive gram positive cocci

A

Staph

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3
Q

What bugs cause impetigo

A

Staph aureus, strep pyogenes

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4
Q

What bug causes scalded skin syndrome

A

Staph aureus

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5
Q

What bug causes toxic shock syndrome

A

Staph aureus

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6
Q

Rapid onset of vomiting after eating meats or custards that have been out for a while

A

Staph aureus food poisoning

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7
Q

Treatment for staph aureus

A

Nafcillin

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8
Q

Patchy infiltrative pneumonia after a viral infection

A

Staph aureus

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9
Q

Yellow colonies on blood agar

A

Staph aureus

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10
Q

Is staph aureus gram positive or negative?

A

Positive

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11
Q

Is staph aureus catalase positive or negative

A

Positive

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12
Q

Is staph aureus coagulase positive or negative

A

Positive

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13
Q

Ferments mannitol

A

Staph aureus

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14
Q

Most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

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15
Q

Acute endocarditis in an IV drug user

A

Staph aureus

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16
Q

Which valve does staph endocarditis typically affect

A

Tricuspid

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17
Q

This bug often infects artificial joints and hardware

A

Staph epidermidis

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18
Q

Most common cause of endocarditis affecting artificial heart valves

A

Staph epidermidis

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19
Q

Treatment for staph epidermidis

A

Vancomycin

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20
Q

Common cause of UTIs in sexually active females

A

Staph saprophyticus

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21
Q

Novobiocin sensitive, catalase positive, coagulase negative staph

A

Staph epidermidis

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22
Q

Novobiocin resistant, catalase positive, coagulase negative staph

A

Staph saprophyticus

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23
Q

Does strep pyogenes have a capsule? If so, what kind?

A

yes, hyaluronic acid

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24
Q

Gram postive cocci in chains

A

Strep

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25
Q

Positive ASO titers

A

Strep pyogenes

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26
Q

Bacitracin sensitive strep

A

Strep pyogenes

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27
Q

Honey crusted skin infection

A

Impetigo

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28
Q

Most common cause of erysipelas

A

Strep pyogenes

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29
Q

Causes rheumatic fever

A

Strep pyogenes

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30
Q

Virulence factor of strep pyogenes responsible for rheumatic fever

A

M protein

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31
Q

Which valve is most commonly affected in rheumatic fever

A

Mitral

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32
Q

JONES criteria

A

Joints, valvular damage, nodules, erythema marginatum, sydenham’s chorea

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33
Q

What type of immune reaction is PSGN

A

Type III

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34
Q

Coca Cola urine after strep A infection

A

PSGN

35
Q

Strawberry tongue, pharyngitis, widespread rash that spreads the face

A

Scarlet fever

36
Q

Which bug causes scarlet fever

A

Strep pyogenes

37
Q

Which toxins cause scarlet fever

A

SpeC and SpeA

38
Q

Toxin diseases associated with strep pyogenes

A

Scarlet fever, toxin shock like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis

39
Q

Which toxin causes toxin shock like syndrome

A

SpeC and SpeA

40
Q

Which toxin causes necrotizing fasciitis

A

SpeB

41
Q

Toxin diseases associated with staph aureus

A

Scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome, staph food poisoning

42
Q

What toxin causes toxin shock syndrome

A

toxic shock syndrome toxin

43
Q

Is staph epidermidis novobiocin sensitive or resistant

A

Sensitive

44
Q

Is staph epidermidis catalase positive or negative

A

Positive

45
Q

Is staph epidermidis coagulase positive or negative

A

Negative

46
Q

Is staph saprophyticus novobiocin sensitive or resistant

A

Resistant

47
Q

Is staph saprophyticus catalase positive or negative

A

Positive

48
Q

Is staph saprophyticus coagulase positive or negative

A

Negative

49
Q

Manifestations of strep agalactiae in newborns

A

Meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia

50
Q

Group A strep

A

Strep pyogenes

51
Q

Group B strep

A

Strep agalactiae

52
Q

Hippurate positive

A

Strep agalactiae

53
Q

Beta hemolytic strep

A

Strep pyogenes and agalactiae

54
Q

Bacitracin sensitive, beta hemolytic strep

A

Strep pyogenes

55
Q

Bacitracin resistant, beta hemolytic strep

A

Strep agalactiae

56
Q

When does a pregnant woman need to be tested for group B strep

A

35 weeks

57
Q

Treatment for group A strep

A

penicillin

58
Q

Treatment for group B strep

A

penicillin

59
Q

Alpha hemolytic strep

A

strep pneumonia and strep viridans

60
Q

Optochin sensitive strep

A

Strep pneumoniae

61
Q

Lancet shaped diplococci

A

Strep pneumoniae

62
Q

Strep pneumoniae is the most common cause of these things

A

Meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis

63
Q

Treatment for strep pneumoniae

A

Azithromycin or ceftriaxone

64
Q

Which strep pneumoniae vaccine do children get? Which antibodies does it result in

A

7 valent conjugated, IgG

65
Q

Which strep pneumoniae vaccine do adults get? Which antibodies does it result in

A

23 valent, IgM

66
Q

Does strep pneumoniae have a capsule? If so, what kind?

A

yes, Polysaccharide

67
Q

Does strep viridians have a capsule? If so, what kind?

A

None

68
Q

Does strep agalactiae have a capsule? If so, what kind?

A

yes, polysaccharide

69
Q

Do staph species have capsules?

A

No

70
Q

Optochin resistant strep

A

Strep viridans

71
Q

Infection commonly associated with dental carries

A

Strep viridans

72
Q

Subacute endocarditis in a previously damaged heart

A

Strep sanguineous

73
Q

Is staph gram positive or negative

A

Positive

74
Q

Is strep gram positive or negative

A

Positive

75
Q

Is clostridium gram positive or negative

A

Positive

76
Q

Tetanus toxin cleaves what protein and inhibits the release of which neurotransmitters

A

SNARE, GABA and glycine

77
Q

Risus sardonicus

A

Clostridium tetani

78
Q

Opisthotonus

A

Clostridium tetani

79
Q

The toxin of this organism is found in improperly canned foods

A

Clostridium botulinum

80
Q

The spores of this organism are found in honey

A

Clostridium botulinum

81
Q

Botulism toxin cleaves what protein and inhibits the release of what neurotransmitter

A

SNARE, ACh

82
Q

Floppy baby syndrome

A

Clostridium botulinum

83
Q

Descending paralysis

A

Clostridium botulinum