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PSMID Quiz bee 2024 > Bacteria > Flashcards

Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Patient with AIDS presenting with fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly elevated alkaline phosphatase. Positive on Warthin-Starry silver staining of biopsy specimens. What is the etiologic organism?

A

Bartonella henselae

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2
Q

Gram negative slender rod or coccobacillus with a pattern described as “school of fish”

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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3
Q

Most commonly involved in tuberculous spondylitis?

A

Lower thoracic spine

(P. 3014, Mandell 9th edition)

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4
Q

Most common source of sepsis in adults

A

Pneumonia

p. 992, Mandell 9th edition

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5
Q

28/F with vulvovaginal erythema and purulent vaginal discharge, mucosa has a strawberry appearance. Vaginal wet preparation contains abundance of leukocytes and motile flagellated trichomonads

Drug of choice for the case

A

Metronidazole

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6
Q

15/M presented with ulcerating wound secondary to rat bite with lymphadenopathy, rash and fever? What is the etiologic organism?

A

Spirillum minus

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7
Q

Most common cause of lymphadenopathy following ART initiation?

A

Mycobacterium avium complex

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8
Q

All bacteria have cells compose of peptidoglycan except

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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9
Q

All bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharide except

A

Bacillus anthracis

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10
Q

Culture media for Legionella pneumophilia

A

Charcoal yeast extract

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11
Q

Culture media for Campylobacter jejuni

A

Skirrow

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12
Q

Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon

A

Botryomycosis

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13
Q

Most common resistance mechanism of S. aureus to Beta lactams

(Mandell page 2411)

A

Penicillinase

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14
Q

Vancomycin MIC breakpoints for of Staphylococcus aureus (susceptible, intermediate and resistant)

(Mandell p. 2414)

A

Susceptible </= 2mg/mL
Intermediate 4 to 8mg/mL
High-level-resistant >/= 16mg/mL

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15
Q

Main mechanism of methicillin resistance of Staphylococcus aureus

(Mandell p. 2410)

A

Penicillin-binding Protein 2A (PBPA) encoded by mecA gene

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16
Q

Primary reservoir of Staphylococcus aureus

(Mandell p. 2420)

A

Anterior nares

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17
Q

Surgical site infections that occur at or near the incision sites within how many days postoperatively?

(Mandell 2423)

A

30 days

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18
Q

Most prevalent pathogen that causes SSI for most types of surgery?

(Mandell 2423)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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19
Q

Most prevalent pathogens that cause SSI after abdominal surgery

A

Gram negative rods and Enterococci

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20
Q

Strongest indicators of clinical complications for Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia

A

Positive result of follow-up blood culture after 48-96 hours and persistent fever at 72 hours

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21
Q

Most common, yet not unique, pathogen in right-sided endocarditis in IV drug users

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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22
Q

Leading cause of bone and joint infections in adults and children

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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23
Q

Prominent cause of intravascular catheter-related infection and variety of medical devices

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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24
Q

A common coagulase-negative staphylococcus in uncomplicated UTI in sexually active female

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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25
Q

A virulent CONS that mimics infections due Staphylococcus aures

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

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26
Q

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to only one first-line anti-TB drug

A

Mono-resistant Tuberculosis

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27
Q

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to more than one first-line anti-TB drug but not to Isoniazid AND Rifampicin

A

Poly-resistant Tuberculosis

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28
Q

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to Rifampicin

A

Rifampicin-resistant Tuberculosis

29
Q

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to Isoniazid AND Rifampicin

A

Multidrug-resistant Tuberculosis

30
Q

MTB isolate that is resistant to any Flouroquinolone in addition to Rifampicin

A

Pre-extensively Drug-resistant Tuberculosis

31
Q

MTB isolate resistant to any fluoroquinolone AND at least one Group A drug in addition to Rifampicin

A

Extensively drug-resistant Tuberculosis

32
Q

Specimens currently not accepted for Xpert MTB/Rif Testing

A

Blood, urine and stool

33
Q

Volume of respiratory specimen other than sputum for Xpert MTB/RIf testing

A

1-4 ml
(For non-respiratory specimen - gastric aspirate 1-4ml, CSF 0.5-4ml)

34
Q

The only acceptable specimen from Xpert MTB/XDR testing

35
Q

A manual molecular assay to detect MTB that can be read by naked eye under ultraviolet light

A

Loop Mediated Isothermal Amplification (TB-LAMP)

36
Q

Solid medium for TB culture

A

Ogawa or Lowenstein Jensen

37
Q

Interpret the following Xpert MTB/Rif result :

TI

A

MTB Detected, Rifampicin Resistance inderteminate

Others:
T - MTB detected, RR not detected
RR- MTB detected, RR detected
N - MTB not detected
I - Invalid/no result/error

38
Q

What is the next step if Xpert MTB/Rif Ultra assay result is TT (MTB detected Trace)?

A

Repeat Ultra assay using fresh specimens

39
Q

Next best step in a patient with low risk for MDR TB but Xpert MTB/Rif showed RR?

A

Recollect/Repeat Xpert MTB/Rif test and follow 2nd test results

40
Q

TB disease classification for patients with serious adverse drug reaction to Rifampicin

A

Other DR-TB (to include Monoresistant TB and Polydrug-resistant TB)

41
Q

TB disease registration group for previously treated but lost to follow-up for at least 2 months.

A

Treatment after lost to follow-up

42
Q

TB disease registration group for a patient who has taken anti-TB drugs for 28 days

A

New (never had tb treatment or took treatment for less than 1 month - 29 days and below)

(Retreatment - has been treated before or took treatment at least 1 month (30 days))

43
Q

In DRTB treatment requiring Imipenem/CIlastatin what additional antibiotic is needed for the DRTB drug (Ipm) to work?

A

Co-amoxiclav

44
Q

Duration of treatment for ITR regimen

A

18-20 months

(BPAL-M 26 weeks, BPAL 6 mos OR 9 mos, SSOR 9-11 months)

45
Q

Most common cause of infection in prosthetic orthopedic devices

A

CONS (Staphylococcus epidermidis)

46
Q

Most frequent cause of of peritonitis in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis

A

CONS (S. Epidermidis)

47
Q

Major somatic virulence factor of Group A Streptococci

48
Q

Aside from fever, what is the other first clinical manifestation of Necrotizing fasciitis

A

Severe pain (crescendo pain)

49
Q

A gram positive, beta hemolytic, catalase negative cocci, occurs in pairs or in chains, facultatively anaerobic

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

50
Q

A gram positive, alpha hemolytic, lancet-shaped diplococcus

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

51
Q

What is a good quality sputum?

A

PMNS >10/LPF
Epithelial cells < 25/LPF

LOW POWER FIELD

52
Q

Most common cause of preventable blindness in the world

53
Q

Most frequent cause of hyperacute bacterial conjuctivitis

A

Neiserria gonorrhea

54
Q

Most common cause of keratitis post LASIK

A

Mycobacterium chenolae

55
Q

Most common cause of post traumatic endophthalmitis

A

Bacillus cereus

56
Q

Most common infectious cause of panuveitis

57
Q

Empiric self treatment of travelers diarrhea

A

Fluoroquinolone

58
Q

Chronic self limited idiopathic diarrhea lasting > 4 weeks

A

Brainerd diarrhea

59
Q

Arthritidis syndrome after inflammatory colitis

A

Y. Enterocolitica, salmonella enteritidis, C. Diff

60
Q

Major reservoir of STEC

61
Q

Drugs of choice for c. Diff infection

A

Vancomycin and fidaxomicin

62
Q

Treatment for yersinia infection

A

Tetracycline, chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin

63
Q

Treatment for yersinia infection

A

Tetracycline, chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin

64
Q

Vitamin A decreases severity and mortality from what cause of enteritis?

A

Shigellosis

65
Q

EPEC serotype associated with NEC

66
Q

Cause of Lady Windermere Syndrome

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex

67
Q

Cause of Buruli ulcer

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

68
Q

Salmonella stain with overlap between typhi and non typhi

69
Q

Most common cause of parathyroid fever

A

Salmonella paratyphi A

PSMID Quiz bee 2024 (11 decks)

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