Bacteria

Question 1

Patient with AIDS presenting with fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly elevated alkaline phosphatase. Positive on Warthin-Starry silver staining of biopsy specimens. What is the etiologic organism?

Answer 1

Bartonella henselae

Question 2

Gram negative slender rod or coccobacillus with a pattern described as “school of fish”

Answer 2

Haemophilus ducreyi

Question 3

Most commonly involved in tuberculous spondylitis?

Answer 3

Lower thoracic spine

(P. 3014, Mandell 9th edition)

Question 4

Most common source of sepsis in adults

Answer 4

Pneumonia

p. 992, Mandell 9th edition

Question 5

28/F with vulvovaginal erythema and purulent vaginal discharge, mucosa has a strawberry appearance. Vaginal wet preparation contains abundance of leukocytes and motile flagellated trichomonads

Drug of choice for the case

Answer 5

Metronidazole

Question 6

15/M presented with ulcerating wound secondary to rat bite with lymphadenopathy, rash and fever? What is the etiologic organism?

Answer 6

Spirillum minus

Question 7

Most common cause of lymphadenopathy following ART initiation?

Answer 7

Mycobacterium avium complex

Question 8

All bacteria have cells compose of peptidoglycan except

Answer 8

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Question 9

All bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharide except

Answer 9

Bacillus anthracis

Question 10

Culture media for Legionella pneumophilia

Answer 10

Charcoal yeast extract

Question 11

Culture media for Campylobacter jejuni

Answer 11

Skirrow

Question 12

Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon

Answer 12

Botryomycosis

Question 13

Most common resistance mechanism of S. aureus to Beta lactams

(Mandell page 2411)

Answer 13

Penicillinase

Question 14

Vancomycin MIC breakpoints for of Staphylococcus aureus (susceptible, intermediate and resistant)

(Mandell p. 2414)

Answer 14

Susceptible </= 2mg/mL
Intermediate 4 to 8mg/mL
High-level-resistant >/= 16mg/mL

Question 15

Main mechanism of methicillin resistance of Staphylococcus aureus

(Mandell p. 2410)

Answer 15

Penicillin-binding Protein 2A (PBPA) encoded by mecA gene

Question 16

Primary reservoir of Staphylococcus aureus

(Mandell p. 2420)

Answer 16

Anterior nares

Question 17

Surgical site infections that occur at or near the incision sites within how many days postoperatively?

(Mandell 2423)

Answer 17

30 days

Question 18

Most prevalent pathogen that causes SSI for most types of surgery?

(Mandell 2423)

Answer 18

Staphylococcus aureus

Question 19

Most prevalent pathogens that cause SSI after abdominal surgery

Answer 19

Gram negative rods and Enterococci

Question 20

Strongest indicators of clinical complications for Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia

Answer 20

Positive result of follow-up blood culture after 48-96 hours and persistent fever at 72 hours

Question 21

Most common, yet not unique, pathogen in right-sided endocarditis in IV drug users

Answer 21

Staphylococcus aureus

Question 22

Leading cause of bone and joint infections in adults and children

Answer 22

Staphylococcus aureus

Question 23

Prominent cause of intravascular catheter-related infection and variety of medical devices

Answer 23

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Question 24

A common coagulase-negative staphylococcus in uncomplicated UTI in sexually active female

Answer 24

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Question 25

A virulent CONS that mimics infections due Staphylococcus aures

Answer 25

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

Question 26

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to only one first-line anti-TB drug

Answer 26

Mono-resistant Tuberculosis

Question 27

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to more than one first-line anti-TB drug but not to Isoniazid AND Rifampicin

Answer 27

Poly-resistant Tuberculosis

Question 28

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to Rifampicin

Answer 28

Rifampicin-resistant Tuberculosis

Question 29

Infection of MTB isolate resistant to Isoniazid AND Rifampicin

Answer 29

Multidrug-resistant Tuberculosis

Question 30

MTB isolate that is resistant to any Flouroquinolone in addition to Rifampicin

Answer 30

Pre-extensively Drug-resistant Tuberculosis

Question 31

MTB isolate resistant to any fluoroquinolone AND at least one Group A drug in addition to Rifampicin

Answer 31

Extensively drug-resistant Tuberculosis

Question 32

Specimens currently not accepted for Xpert MTB/Rif Testing

Answer 32

Blood, urine and stool

Question 33

Volume of respiratory specimen other than sputum for Xpert MTB/RIf testing

Answer 33

1-4 ml (For non-respiratory specimen - gastric aspirate 1-4ml, CSF 0.5-4ml)

Question 34

The only acceptable specimen from Xpert MTB/XDR testing

Answer 34

Sputum

Question 35

A manual molecular assay to detect MTB that can be read by naked eye under ultraviolet light

Answer 35

Loop Mediated Isothermal Amplification (TB-LAMP)

Question 36

Solid medium for TB culture

Answer 36

Ogawa or Lowenstein Jensen

Question 37

Interpret the following Xpert MTB/Rif result : TI

Answer 37

MTB Detected, Rifampicin Resistance inderteminate Others: T - MTB detected, RR not detected RR- MTB detected, RR detected N - MTB not detected I - Invalid/no result/error

Question 38

What is the next step if Xpert MTB/Rif Ultra assay result is TT (MTB detected Trace)?

Answer 38

Repeat Ultra assay using fresh specimens

Question 39

Next best step in a patient with low risk for MDR TB but Xpert MTB/Rif showed RR?

Answer 39

Recollect/Repeat Xpert MTB/Rif test and follow 2nd test results

Question 40

TB disease classification for patients with serious adverse drug reaction to Rifampicin

Answer 40

Other DR-TB (to include Monoresistant TB and Polydrug-resistant TB)

Question 41

TB disease registration group for previously treated but lost to follow-up for at least 2 months.

Answer 41

Treatment after lost to follow-up

Question 42

TB disease registration group for a patient who has taken anti-TB drugs for 28 days

Answer 42

New (never had tb treatment or took treatment for less than 1 month - 29 days and below) (Retreatment - has been treated before or took treatment at least 1 month (30 days))

Question 43

In DRTB treatment requiring Imipenem/CIlastatin what additional antibiotic is needed for the DRTB drug (Ipm) to work?

Answer 43

Co-amoxiclav

Question 44

Duration of treatment for ITR regimen

Answer 44

18-20 months (BPAL-M 26 weeks, BPAL 6 mos OR 9 mos, SSOR 9-11 months)

Question 45

Most common cause of infection in prosthetic orthopedic devices

Answer 45

CONS (Staphylococcus epidermidis)

Question 46

Most frequent cause of of peritonitis in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis

Answer 46

CONS (S. Epidermidis)

Question 47

Major somatic virulence factor of Group A Streptococci

Answer 47

M protein

Question 48

Aside from fever, what is the other first clinical manifestation of Necrotizing fasciitis

Answer 48

Severe pain (crescendo pain)

Question 49

A gram positive, beta hemolytic, catalase negative cocci, occurs in pairs or in chains, facultatively anaerobic

Answer 49

Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 50

A gram positive, alpha hemolytic, lancet-shaped diplococcus

Answer 50

Streptococcus pneumonia

Question 51

What is a good quality sputum?

Answer 51

PMNS >10/LPF Epithelial cells < 25/LPF *LOW POWER FIELD*

Question 52

Most common cause of preventable blindness in the world

Answer 52

Trachoma

Question 53

Most frequent cause of hyperacute bacterial conjuctivitis

Answer 53

Neiserria gonorrhea

Question 54

Most common cause of keratitis post LASIK

Answer 54

Mycobacterium chenolae

Question 55

Most common cause of post traumatic endophthalmitis

Answer 55

Bacillus cereus

Question 56

Most common infectious cause of panuveitis

Answer 56

Syphilis

Question 57

Empiric self treatment of travelers diarrhea

Answer 57

Fluoroquinolone

Question 58

Chronic self limited idiopathic diarrhea lasting > 4 weeks

Answer 58

Brainerd diarrhea

Question 59

Arthritidis syndrome after inflammatory colitis

Answer 59

Y. Enterocolitica, salmonella enteritidis, C. Diff

Question 60

Major reservoir of STEC

Answer 60

Cattle

Question 61

Drugs of choice for c. Diff infection

Answer 61

Vancomycin and fidaxomicin

Question 62

Treatment for yersinia infection

Answer 62

Tetracycline, chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin

Question 63

Treatment for yersinia infection

Answer 63

Tetracycline, chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin

Question 64

Vitamin A decreases severity and mortality from what cause of enteritis?

Answer 64

Shigellosis

Question 65

EPEC serotype associated with NEC

Answer 65

0111: B4

Question 66

Cause of Lady Windermere Syndrome

Answer 66

Mycobacterium avium intracellular complex

Question 67

Cause of Buruli ulcer

Answer 67

Mycobacterium ulcerans

Question 68

Salmonella stain with overlap between typhi and non typhi

Answer 68

st313

Question 69

Most common cause of parathyroid fever

Answer 69

Salmonella paratyphi A