Back of book questions Flashcards

1
Q

What would cause a PACK INOP light to illuminate?

A

Any of the following:

1) High pack outlet temp
2) Pack controller malfunction
3) High compressor outlet temperature

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2
Q

TO conditions require that the packs be turned off. Is there any way to get air moving though the cabin?

A

Yes, the recirculation fans will move the air in the cabin.

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3
Q

The Right pack outlet temperature is too high. What happens?

A

The R pack INOP light illuminates and it is set to produce maximum cooling

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4
Q

What temperature will the pack produce if it is set to STBY N?

A

The pack will produce a constant moderate temp.

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5
Q

What happens if the Master Trim Air Switch is placed to off?

A

The packs will try to maintain a constant temp of 24C or 75F in the cabin

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6
Q

A zone temperature INOP light is illuminated. What could cause this?

A
Any of the following;
1- excessive air temp
2- cabin temp controller fault
3- trim air switch off
4- Zone switch off
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7
Q

What can cause a Recirc fan INOP light to illuminate?

A

Any of the following;
1- The fan fails when the switch is ON
2- The fan switch is OFF
3- A utility bus load shed for the right fan
4- Pushing a cargo fire arm switch
5- Smoke is detected in the forward electronic equipment area

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8
Q

How many air temp control zones are there on the b757?

A

three

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9
Q

The left recirc fan INOP light is illuminated. What can the ALTN switch do?

A

It can open the overboard exhaust valve if it did not already do so when the left recirc fan turned off

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10
Q

What is the source of head for the aft cargo compartment? What about the fwd cargo compartment?

A

Any of the following;
1- and electric heater
2- passenger compartment discharge air

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11
Q

What are the control settings required for automatic control of the pressurization system?

A

AUTO 1 or AUTO 2 is selected. Set the desired AUTO RATE. Set the LDG altitude

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12
Q

When does the cabin Alt light illuminate?

A

At 10,000ft MSL

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13
Q

What is the Auto Rate limit for climb and descent when the auto rate knob is set at the index mark?

A

Climb- 500ft per minute

Descent- 300ft per minute

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14
Q

What is the maximum normal differential pressure?

A

8.6psi

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15
Q

When is the the outflow valve automatically closed?

A

When the cabin altitude reaches 11,000ft.

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16
Q

What would cause the AUTO INOP light to illuminate?

A

When both AUTO 1 and AUTO are inop or the pressurization controller selector is in MANUAL

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17
Q

During a climb, what determines what the cabin altitude rate of change should be?

A

The rate is proportional to the AC’s vertical speed

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18
Q

Does the outflow valve actuator use AC or DC power?

A

AC power for automatic, and DC power for manual operation

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19
Q

Is the alternate auto controller ever tested?

A

Yes, it goes through a self-test after landing

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20
Q

Your destination is Denver. The landing altitude has been set above the scheduled cabin altitude. What happens?

A

The cabin altitude climbs at one half of the auto rate setting to the landing elevation, since it is higher than the cabin altitude.

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21
Q

During TO, when does the THR hold mode engage?

A

80kts

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22
Q

What is the pitch mode when you engage the first autopilot with neither flight director on?

A

vertical speed

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23
Q

When does the go-around mode arm for the AFDS and autothrottle system?

A

Either at glide slope capture or when the flaps are out of UP

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24
Q

You are executing a missed approach. What verticle speed is held by the autopilot?

A

2,000ft/minute minimum

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25
Q

The AC is below 400ft. The go-around mode is engaged. What do you have to do to deactivate the go-around mode?

A

Disengage the autopilot, the autothrottle, and turn off both flight directors.

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26
Q

Does the bank limit selector affects all modes?

A

No, only affects HDG SEL mode

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27
Q

The flight director is on. However, the command bars are out of view. What does this indicate?

A

The flight director is not supplying valid commands

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28
Q

What is the significance of an ‘EPR’ display on both ADIs?

A

The autothrottle system has entered the EPR mode

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29
Q

During TO, the autothrottle is engaged. The a/t stops moving the throttle and one of them is below the takeoff value. Will the autothrottle system adjust that throttle?

A

No, you have to manually set that throttle

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30
Q

The left autopilot is in CMD. What modes will the fligh director use?

A

Same mode as the engaged autopilot

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31
Q

How do you verify the operation of the oxygen mask microphone?

A

Listen for the sound of oxygen flow in the flight interphone system

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32
Q

What does the VHF TFR switch do?

A

Use it to select the VHR communications frequency.

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33
Q

What station can be connected through the service interphone system?

A

All ground crew, the cockpit, and all cabin crew locations.

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34
Q

What stations can be connected through the flight interphone system?

A

All flight crew and ground personnel at the nose gear station

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35
Q

What is required in order to erase the cockpit voice recorder?

A

The following conditions must be met:
1- Aircraft on ground
2- parking break set
3- hold the erase button for at least 10secs

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36
Q

What activates the flight recorder?

A

Either engine running, or in flight if electrical power is available

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37
Q

What causes the standby power bus OFF light to illuminate?

A

loss of power to either the standby AC or DC bus

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38
Q

What causes the the Generator Drive Light to illuminate?

A

Either high oil temperature or low oil pressure

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39
Q

What normally powers the batter bus in cruise?

A

the left DC bus

40
Q

What has priority in supplying the ground handling bus?

A

External power

41
Q

The APU is supplying both electrical and pneumatics. What happens when the first engine is started?

A

both utility buses trip off

42
Q

Does the bus tie system parallel the engine generators?

A

no

43
Q

What has the highest priority on the left main AC bus?

A

the left engine driven generator

44
Q

What happens when a single fault is detected during a test of the engine fire detection system?

A

The system configures the affected engine for single loop operation.

45
Q

How is a loop fault indicated?

A

EICAS status message

46
Q

How many fire detectors are there in each cargo compartment?

A

two smoke detector in each.

47
Q

What happens when you pull the Engine Fire switch?

A

All of the following;
1- Engine and spar fuel valve close
2- thrust reverser is deactivated
3- The engine drive hydraulic pump is depressurized and the supply valve at the wing is closed.
4- the generator field is opened, which opens the breaker
5- Ignition is de-energized
6- the engine bleed valve is closed, and the APU bleed on the left Fire switch

48
Q

a fire is indicated in the left engine. You reach to pull out the left engine fire handle, but it will not move. What should you do?

A

Push the fire override switch and pull the handle

49
Q

What happens when you rotate the engine fire switch to the stop?

A

The selected fire extinguisher bottle is discharged

50
Q

what happens when the APU fire switch is pulled?

A

the APU will immediately shutdown if it is running

51
Q

What does pushing the forward cargo compartment extinguisher arming switch do?

A

All of the following;
1- arm the fire extinguisher squibs for the selected compartment
2- silences the fire warning bell
3- shuts off the right recirc fan, and right pack goes to high flow
4- shuts off the left recirc fan, the R pack goes to high flow, and the over board exhaust valve opens

52
Q

Why are there two switches for the aileron trim?

A

one switch arms the trim system, the other switch determines the direction

53
Q

which rudder actuator is automatically depressurized when the rudder ratio light illuminates?

A

the left rudder actuator

54
Q

what is the electric stabilizer trim rate when the stab trim light is illuminated?

A

half the full rate

55
Q

what is required for a successful yaw damper test?

A

hydraulic power and an IRS aligned

56
Q

what does an illuminated ‘UNSCHED STAB TRIM’ light indicate?

A

An uncommanded stabilizer movement, or the autopilot is moving opposite to which it was commanded.

57
Q

what is displayed in the main tank indicator during the fuel quantity test?

A

88.8

58
Q

the APU is powering the AC. Which pump is supplying fuel to the APU?

A

left forward fuel pump

59
Q

When does the DC fuel boost pump automatically start?

A

When the APU is started with battery power only.

60
Q

Where does the total fuel value comes from?

A

from the fuel quantity processor

61
Q

The APU is running on the ground. Can you turn off the left forward fuel pump?

A

No, there is an override circuit which keeps the pump operating

62
Q

Can the ram air turbine be retracted once it has been deployed?

A

no

63
Q

What happens to the hydraulic system when you pull an engine fire handle?

A

It closes the engine hydraulic pump supply valve at the top of the strut and it depressurizes the engine pump

64
Q

which hydraulic system flight controls are powered by the RAT?

A

the center

65
Q

lowest airspeed at which the RAT can provide adequate power to operate the flight controls?

A

130kts

66
Q

How can you tell the RAT is producing hydraulic pressure?

A

the RAT pressure light illuminates

67
Q

which hydraulic system has a volume of fluid dedicated to the reserve brake?

A

Right

68
Q

Can the RAT automatically deploy

A

yes, if both engines fail at above 80kts

69
Q

what will cause the PTU to operate?

A

left engine failure or low pressure from the left engine hydraulic pump

70
Q

what can the PTU power?

A

the flaps, the slats, the landing gear, and the nose wheel steering

71
Q

when does the probe heat operate?

A

automatically when any engine is running

72
Q

which windows are anti-fogged by conditioned air?

A

Captain and FO’s windows

73
Q

how are the engine anti-ice valve controlled?

A

electrically controlled and pneumatically actuated

74
Q

which instrument source select panel switch should be selected to alternate if an ADI and HSI lose their displays?

A

EFI switch

75
Q

How long does it take the IRS to align?

A

ten minutes

76
Q

What is the steering authority with the nose steering tiller?

A

65 degrees left or right of center

77
Q

the auto brakes are armed for landing. When do the auto brakes actuate?

A

When all of the following are met:
1- both levers are at idle
2- wheel spin up occurs
3- wheel until is sensed (?)

78
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the normal brake system?

A

right

79
Q

which hydraulic system pressurizes the landing gear?

A

left

80
Q

Is auto brake availible in the alternate brake system?

A

no

81
Q

what is the minimum width for a 180 degree turn?

A

120ft

82
Q

What is an indication that the auto brake system is armed and functional?

A

The selector latches at the deceleration you selected

83
Q

When does the pax o2 system automatically deply?

A

when the cabin altitude reaches 14,000ft

84
Q

What does an illuminated BLEED light mean?

A

An engine bleed air over temp

85
Q

The left DUCK LEAK light is illuminated. When will it extinguish?

A

when the temperature along the pneumatic duct cools

86
Q

What is the meaning of an illuminated left or right DUCK LEAK light?

A

a wing pneumatic leak

87
Q

What happens if low pressure air is insufficient for pneumatic system operation?

A

The high pressure bleed valve opens

88
Q

How many ground pneumatic carts are recommended for engine start?

A

two

89
Q

What does the APU fault light mean?

A

the APU valve is in transit or an APU fault

90
Q

What is the minimum req to start the APU

A

An APU battery and a main battery

91
Q

What happens if the APU fault light illuminates while the APU is running?

A

The APU shuts down immediately

92
Q

What happens when you close the fuel control switch?

A

it closes the engine and spar valve, and de-energizes the ignition

93
Q

When should the engine start selector automatically move to AUTO?

A

50% n2

94
Q

How does the standby engine indicator operate with the selector in AUTO?

A

Any of the following:

1) both EICAS computer must fail
2) loss of AC power
3) one EICAS screen availible on the ground and the STATUS button is pushed

95
Q

When are warnings inhibited during takeoff?

A

At rotation. it lasts for 20secs or 400ft radio altimeter whichever comes first