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Anatomy Spine Extremities > Back Layers, vertebral, spinal > Flashcards

Back Layers, vertebral, spinal Flashcards

1
Q

how long does it take for nerves to fully myelinate so we can walk?

A

12-18 months

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2
Q

what are the planes of the body?

A

coronal (front) transverse (top bottom) sagittal (left right)

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3
Q

_______ is a natural state when ligaments are not stretched, and therefore a natural position.

A

flexion

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4
Q

skull bones

A

22 skull bones

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5
Q

lower limbs bones

A

62 lower limbs

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6
Q

vertebrae

A

33 spine bones; 26 if sacrum/coccyx is one each

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7
Q

upper limb bones

A

24 upper limb bones

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8
Q

ribs total

A

26 ribs

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9
Q

bones in axial skeleton

A

80 bones in axial skeleton

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10
Q

bones in appendicular skeleton

A

126 bones in appendicular skeleton

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11
Q

how many bones do we have that do not articulate with other bones and name?

A

1, hyoid bone does not articulate with any other bones

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12
Q

define viscera

A

viscera are organs within a body cavity

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13
Q

periosteum provides blood and __________ to bones

A

stem cells

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14
Q

list bones with no periosteum and significance

A

patella have no periosteum and why they do not heal quickly due to no stem cells.

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15
Q

what constricts blood vessels, increases MAP heart rate increasing blood to brain for quicker decisions; increased blood to muscles for action; sweats

A

sympathetic nervous system

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16
Q

why do we get dry mouth when we panic or are frightened?

A

parasympathetic nervous system is suppressed during fight or flight, which controls all glands except sweat glands

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17
Q

how can stress negatively affect hormone production?

A

stress affects hypothalamus, which controls glands, due to proximity to limbic center in brain

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18
Q

of spinal nerves total and by region of spine

A

31 total spinal nerves, 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccyx

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19
Q

of nerve roots that make up sciatic nerve and name

A

5 nerve roots that make up sciatic nerve L4 L5 S1 S2 S3

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20
Q

split spinous process of cervical spine allow for ______

A

hyperextension

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21
Q

vertebra prominens on what bone

A

vertebra prominens on C7

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22
Q

vertebral artery goes through transvers foramen of ____ and supplies what?

A

C6 - C1 artery supplies occipital lobe (vision), cerebellum (balance), and brain stem (keeps us alive)

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23
Q

when atherosclerosis of one vertebral artery occurs, turning to the opposite side causes _______, but not looking forward or turning to same side.

A

diplopia (double vision)

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24
Q

why does injury to spinal cord superior to C3 result in suffocation?

A

phrenic nerve is from C3-4-5 and supplies diaphragm, so injury above = suffocation

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25
Q

this fracture is caused by blow to top of head yielding compression down from cranium. name and bone

A

Jefferson fracture of atlas C1

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26
Q

what patient positioning is required for an x-ray of C1 & C2

A

open mouth

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27
Q

what is the significance of checking to see if pupils react to light?

A

negative response means brain stem death

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28
Q

in reference to C1 and C2, which is yes and no?

A

C1 “yes” movement, C2 “no” movement

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29
Q

these bones have “heart shaped” bodies, look like giraffes laterally and have long downward spinous processes that prevent what?.

A

thoracic vertebrae, hyperextension

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30
Q

the head of every rib articulates with how many bones where?

A

2 bones, the superior costal facet of corresponding vertebra, and inferior costal facet of vertebra above

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31
Q

movement of ribs up down is referred to as this kind of movement.

A

bucket handle movement.

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32
Q

these bones have kidney shaped bodies with what unique structure? what attached to said structure?

A

lumbar vertebrae, mammillary process, multifidus muscle

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33
Q

on what day of embryonic development does the heart beat?

A

heart beats day 21

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34
Q

folic acid deficiency causes this failure of closure of the caudal neural fold at week 4 of embryonic development?

A

spina bifida

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35
Q

in this type of spina bifida, the dural sac is exposed

A

menigocele

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36
Q

in this type of spina bifida, the dural sac is exposed and CNS tissue resides superficially in the sac

A

menigomyelocele

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37
Q

in this type of spina bifida, the spinal cord is exposed

A

rachischisis

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38
Q

in this type of spina bifida, the bones are unfused with no neurological symptoms

A

occult

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39
Q

intervertebral discs are made of ______ and these structures prevents herniation of discs posteriomedial, hence they usually herniate posteriolateral

A

fibrous cartilage, posterior longitudinal ligament

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40
Q

a herniated disc patient presents with?

A

later postural tilted to the normal side

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41
Q

what are the most commonly compressed nerves in disc herniation?

A

L5 S1

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42
Q

what are the venous plexuses of the vertebral column? what is their significance?

A

anterior and posterior internal plexuses and anterior and posterior external plexuses (4 plexuses), Most internal organs connect to these plexuses; Cancer can travel through bidirectionally (no values) and can travel anywhere.

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43
Q

the term metamedicine applies to what part of the body?

A

intercostal spaces since they contain all tissues types

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44
Q

our liver can grow back portions and is the largest gland in the body (t or f)

A

True, liver is the largest gland and can grow donated portions partially back

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45
Q

where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1/L2

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46
Q

99.9% of neurons are ______

A

99.9% of neurons are multipolar

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47
Q

dorsal horn of the spinal cord controls what

A

sensory function

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48
Q

ventral horn of the spinal cord controls what

A

motor function

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49
Q

what sections of the spinal cord are larger in diameter and why? which region of the cord is enlarged?

A

cervical and lumbar. upper and lower extremities, respectively, require greater degrees of fine motor control; therefore the ventral region is enlarged as it controls motor fuction

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50
Q

what are the 3 layers of meninges

A

dura mater, aracnoid mater, and pia maters

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51
Q

define motor unit

A

number of muscle fibers controlled by one neuron

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52
Q

what space contains contains CSF and arteries of brain/spinal cord

A

subarachnoid space

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53
Q

what meninges is pain sensitive?

A

dura mater

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54
Q

what are pachy and lepto meninges?

A

pachy is dura mater, and lepto is a collective term for aracnoid and pia maters

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55
Q

what is the end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris is the tapering end of spinal cord

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56
Q

what is created by the pia mater that starts at conus medullaris, pierces the dural sac terminating at coccyx. name it’s sections’ locations

A

filum terminale; interna extends from conus medullaris to dural sac, and externa extends from dural sac to coccyx

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57
Q

dural sac terminates where, inferiorly?

A

S2

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58
Q

what function dies the filum terminale serve?

A

filum terminale anchors the spinal cord vertically

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59
Q

this modifications of pia mater and prevent side to side movement of spinal cord and is at what levels?

A

denticulate ligaments, T1-L2

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60
Q

what is tethered cord syndrome

A

filum terminale is too short, resulting in pain and/or neurological damage during flexion of the vertebral column

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61
Q

these are any collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS and are either sensory or autonomic.

A

ganglia

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62
Q

why are the ventral rami of spinal nerves larger than the dorsal rami?

A

ventral rami are larger due to all their innervation of all muscles, except muscles of layer 4-6 of the back, which are the only muscles supplied by the dorsal rami

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63
Q

the sympathetic chain ganglion run from where to where

A

T1 to L2

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64
Q

what is the condition caused by damage to the sympathetic chain ganglion?

A

Horner’s syndrom (redness in face due to vasodilation, pupil dilation and lack of sweat)

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65
Q

of the types of bones, what is a vertebra?

A

irregular

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66
Q

what are functions of osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

A

osteoblast build bone tissue (b for build), osteoclast break down bone tissue

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67
Q

the proximal epiphysis is composed of?

A

spongy bone

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68
Q

the diaphysis of a bone is composed of?

A

compact bone

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69
Q

what is the phrase to remember the direction of blood nutrients to bones?

A

to the elbow I go, from the knew I flee

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70
Q

what are the 4 stages of healing a bone fracture?

A

hematoma formation, fribrocartilage callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling

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71
Q

what are the primary curves of the spine what what kind of curve are they?

A

thoracic and sacral kyphosis

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72
Q

what spinal curves form as a result of gravity and movement?

A

cervical and lumbar lordosis

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73
Q

what is the condition presented by lateral curvature and rotation of the vertebrae?

A

scoliosis – lateral curvature + rotation of the vertebrae

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74
Q

the 2 main structures of a vertebra are?

A

the body and the vertebral arch

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75
Q

what is formed by the inferior vertebral notch of a vertebra and the superior vertebral notch of the vertebra below it?

A

intervertebral foramen

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76
Q

uncus aka unicinate process does what?

A

uncus prevents dislocation of cervical vertebrae during flexion/extension

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77
Q

what is the strongest cervical vertebra?

A

axis C2

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78
Q

what prevents odontoid process from injuring the spinal cord during cervical movement?

A

transverse ligament of atlas

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79
Q

what is a bilateral fracture of the pedicles or lamina of the 2nd cervical vertebra

A

hangman fracture

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80
Q

dislocation of cervical vertebrae occurs at ?

A

the facet joints.

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81
Q

the head of each rib articulates with how many bones?

A

2; the superior costal facet of corresponding vertebra, and inferior costal facet of vertebra above

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82
Q

what bone could this be? superior 1⁄2 is thoracic in character and inferior 1⁄2 is lumbar in character

A

T12

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83
Q

presence of a cervical rib may result in?

A

thoracic outlet syndrome: costal element of C7 becomes abnormally enlarged yielding compression the brachial plexus and compression of blood vessels

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84
Q

mammilary process resides below and between what 2 structures?

A

transverse and spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae

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85
Q

what is narrowing of the vertebral foramen with spinal cord and/or spinal nerve roots compression in lumbar vertebrae?

A

spinal stenosis

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86
Q

what is a kyphoplasty procedure?

A

a process injecting an “internal cast” into vertebral bodies in osteoporosis patients with compression fractures

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87
Q

what is the inferior aperture of the sacral canal?

A

sacral hiatus

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88
Q

in what region is the gross movement of rotation greatest?

A

thoracic

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89
Q

forward movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebra below it, or upon the sacrum.

A

SPONDYLOLISTHESIS

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90
Q

unilateral or bilateral defect in the lamina of L.V. 5 between the superior and inferior articular processes, with no slippage between vertebrae.

A

SPONDYLOLYSIS

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91
Q

layer 1 of the back consist of what muscles?

A

trapezius, latissimus dorsi

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92
Q

layer 2 of the back consist of what muscles?

A

romboidius major, romboidius minor, levator scapulae

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93
Q

layer 3 of the back consist of what muscles?

A

serratus posterior superior, serratus posterior inferior

94
Q

layer 4 of the back consist of what muscles?

A

splenius capitis, splenius cervicis

95
Q

layer 5 of the back consist of what muscles?

A

erector spinae group: iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis

96
Q

layer 6 of the back consist of what muscles?

A

transverospinalis group: semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores

97
Q

name the muscle regions of the erector spinae group

A

iliocostalis: lumborum, thoracis, cervicis; longissimus: thoracis cervicis capitus; spinalis: thoracis cervicis capitus

98
Q

name the muscle regions of the transverospinalis group

A

semispinalis: thoracis, cervicis, capitis; multifidus: lumborum, thoracis, cervicis; rotatores: lumborum, thoracis, cervicis

99
Q

name the suboccipital muscles

A

rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, obliquus capitis inferior, obliquus capitis superior

100
Q

suboccipital triangle boundaries:

A

medially – rectus capitis posterior major and minor
superolaterally – obliquus capitis superior
inferolaterally – obliquus capitis inferior

101
Q

suboccipital triangle contains? clinical use?

A

dorsal ramus of C1, vertebral artery, suboccipital venous plexus. clinically cisternal puncture

102
Q

Trapezius action

A

upper- unilaterally flex neck bilaterally elevates scapula; middle- retracts scapula; lower depresses scapula

103
Q

Trapezius O&I

A

O: occipital protuberance, medial 1/3 superior nuchal line, nuchal ligament, spinous processes C7-T12
I: spine of scapula, acromion, lateral 1/3 clavicle

104
Q

Trapezius nerve

A

motor= spinal accessory cranial nerve (no root due to cranial nerve) (also SCM); proprioception=C3/C4

105
Q

Latissimus Dorsi action

A

extension, adduction, medial rotation of humerus, raises body to arm climbing, forced expiration/deep inspiration

106
Q

Latissimus Dorsi O&I

A

O: spinous processes T7-T12, thoracolumbar fascia, lumbar spinous processes, posterior medial 1/3 iliac crest, inferior 3 or 4 ribs
I: floor of bicepital (intertubercular sulcus) of humerus

107
Q

Latissimus Dorsi nerve

A

thoracodorsal nerve (root C6 C7 C8)

108
Q

Romboidius Major action

A

retracts scapula

109
Q

Romboidius Major O&I

A

O: spinous processes T2-T5
I: medial border of scapula inferior to spine of scapula to the inferior angle of scapula

110
Q

Romboidius Major nerve

A

dorsal scapular nerve aka nerve to romboids (root C5)

111
Q

this is formed formed by “intersection” of trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and romboidius major= stethoscope for breath sounds.

A

triangle of auscultation

112
Q

Romboidus Minor action

A

retracts scapula

113
Q

Romboidus Minor O&I

A

O: lower nuchal ligament, spinous processes C7 T1
I: medial scapula at spine of scapula

114
Q

Romboidus Minor nerve

A

dorsal scapular nerve (root C5)

115
Q

Levator Scapulae action

A

elevate scapula, unilaterally rotation of head

116
Q

Levator Scapulae O&I

A

O: transverse processes C1-C4
I: medial boarder of scapula superior to spine of scapula and inferior to superior angle of scapula

117
Q

Levator Scapulae nerve

A

dorsal scapular nerve (C5), ventral primary rami of C3 and C4

118
Q

Serratus Posterior Superior action

A

inspiration proprioception

119
Q

Serratus Posterior Superior O&I

A

O: nuchal ligament, spinous processes C7-T3
I: ribs 2-4/5

120
Q

Serratus Posterior Superior nerve

A

2nd-5th intercostal (root T2 – T5)

121
Q

Serratus Posterior Inferior action

A

expiration proprioception

122
Q

Serratus Posterior Inferior O&I

A

O: spinous processes T11-L2
I: ribs 9-12

123
Q

Serratus Posterior Inferior nerve

A

anterior rami to T9 to T12 thoracic spinal nerves

124
Q

Splenius Capitis action

A

unilateral lateral flexion and rotation to same side, bilaterally extension of neck

125
Q

Splenius Capitis nerve

A

dorsal rami of spinal nerves C2-6

126
Q

Splenius Cervicis action

A

unilateral lateral flexion and rotation to same side, bilaterally extension of neck

127
Q

Splenius Cervicis nerve

A

dorsal rami of spinal nerves C5-C7

128
Q

Iliocostalus action

A

bilaterally extend vertebral column and head; unilaterally flex vertebral column

129
Q

Iliocostalus nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

130
Q

Longissimus action

A

bilaterally extend vertebral column and head; unilaterally flex vertebral column

131
Q

Longissimus nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

132
Q

Spinalis action

A

bilaterally extend vertebral column and head; unilaterally flex vertebral column

133
Q

Spinalis nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

134
Q

Semispinalis action

A

unilateral rotation, bilateral extension

135
Q

Semispinalis nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

136
Q

Multifidus action

A

unilateral rotation, bilateral extension

137
Q

Multifidus nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

138
Q

Rotatores action

A

unilateral rotation, bilateral extension

139
Q

Rotatores nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

140
Q

Levator Costae Longus and Brevis action

A

Elevate ribs, may help laterally flex and rotate trunk to same side

141
Q

Levator Costae Longus and Brevis nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

142
Q

Intertransversalis action

A

Lateral flexion of vertebra

143
Q

Intertransversalis nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

144
Q

Interspinalis action

A

Extend spine (approximate spinous processes)

145
Q

Interspinalis nerve

A

posterior rami of spinal nerves at that level

146
Q

Rectus capitis posterior major action

A

Bilaterally: extend head Unilaterally: rotate face toward same side

147
Q

Rectus capitis posterior major nerve

A

Suboccipital (dorsal ramus of C1)

148
Q

Rectus capitis posterior minor action

A

Extend neck

149
Q

Rectus capitis posterior minor nerve

A

Suboccipital (dorsal ramus of C1)

150
Q

Obliquus capitis inferior action

A

Rotate face toward same side

151
Q

Obliquus capitis inferior nerve

A

Suboccipital (dorsal ramus of C1)

152
Q

Obliquus capitis superior action

A

Bilaterally: extend head Unilaterally: lateral flex head to same side

153
Q

Obliquus capitis superior nerve

A

Suboccipital (dorsal ramus of C1)

154
Q

why do the subocippitals become stiff in meningitis?

A

the meningies of posterior cranial fossa are innervated by C1, which innervates the suboccippitals

155
Q

Rectus capitis posterior major O&I

A

O: Spinous process of C2
I: Lateral portion of inferior nuchal line

156
Q

Rectus capitis posterior minor O&I

A

O: Posterior tubercle of C1
I: Medial portion of inferior nuchal line

157
Q

Obliquus capitis inferior O&I

A

O: Spinous process of C2
I: Transverse process of C1

158
Q

Obliquus capitis superior O&I

A

O: Transverse process of C1
I: Occiput between lateral portions of superior and inferior nuchal lines

159
Q

of the suboccipital, there’s rectus and obliquus pairs. one does yes, the other does no movements. which?

A

rectus small yes movement, obliquus small no movement

160
Q

Roof of the Suboccipital Triangle

A

Skin
Superficial and deep fascia
Trapezius
Splenius capitis Semispinalis capitis

161
Q

floor of the Suboccipital Triangle

A

Posterior arch of atlas Atlanto occipital membrane

162
Q

Vertebral artery supplies?

A

occipital cortex (visual), brain stem, and cerebellum (motor coordination/muscle memory).

163
Q

SPONDYLOLYSIS fracture “scotty dog neck” is what part of lumbar vertebrae?

A

pars interarticularis

164
Q

on what day does the embryonic heart beat?

A

day 21

165
Q

what ligament inhibits “over extension” of the vertebral column? What venous plexus of the vertebral column resides anterior to this ligament?

A

anterior longitudinal ligament; anterior external venous plexus

166
Q

what ligaments inhibits “over flexion” of the vertebral column and in the the vicinity of the posterior external venous plexus? (lumbar & thoracic, and what additional ligaments only in the thoracic)

A

ligamentum flavum, intraspinous ligament, intertransverse ligament; additional thoracic are radiant ligament of head of rib, interarticular ligament of head of rib, superior costotransverse ligament and lateral costotransverse ligament

167
Q

what ligament(s) is (are) in the vicinity of the anterior internal venous plexus of the cervical vertebral column?

A

posterior longitudinal ligament and tectorial membrane

I’m unsure of the alar and transverse ligaments of atlas, as appears tectorial is between them and the plexus

168
Q

what ligament resides in the area of the posterior internal venus plexus?

A

anterior aspect of ligamentum flavum (also posterior external venous plexus on posterior aspect)

169
Q

what venous plexus(es) reside in the epidural space?

A

posterior AND anterior internal venus plexuses

170
Q

the sympathetic chain runs what levels of the vertebral column, and is it on the posterior or anterior side?

A

T1 to L2, anterior

171
Q

what artery joins the descending anterior spinal artery and makes it bigger?

A

Great anterior radicular artery of Adamkiewicz

172
Q

how many spinal cord arteries and veins are there? do the veins connect to any vertebral venous plexuses?

A

3 spinal arteries (1 anterior/ 2 posterior) and 6 viens (3 anterior/ 3 posterior veins); no connection to venous plexuses

173
Q

Interturbercular or Supracristal plane of the posterior iliac crest is the level of what vertebra?

A

L4

174
Q

tracts of the spinal cord that end in “spinal” are?

A

descending and is motor

175
Q

tracts of the spinal cord that are ascending and sensory begin or end with what? (begin or end is part of answer)

A

begin with “spino”

176
Q

when injury affects upper motor, what spinal cord tract is usually affected?

A

corticospinal

177
Q

lateral spinothalamic spinal cord tracts carry?

A

carries pain and temperature from opposite side

178
Q

anterior spinothalmic spinal cord tracts carry?

A

carries touch and pressure from the opposite side

179
Q

Stereognosis (what is this?) is carried by this spinal cord tract that crosses in the medulla?

A

fasciculus cuneatus; stereognosis is ability to discern/identify shapes/objects via touch

180
Q

when a part of the brain is injured and another part takes over is called?

A

Neuronal placidity

181
Q

Brown sequard syndrome is damage to what?

A

either the entire left or entire right side of the spinal cord

182
Q

ALS affects what region of the spinal cord (grossly)?

A

cervical

183
Q

Polio virus destroys what? causes what?

A

destroys motorneurons in ventral horn in lower spinal cord (so not usually fatal due to lower); causes lower paralysis and muscle atrophy.

184
Q

what becomes the posterior longitudinal ligament at C2?

A

Techtorial membrane

185
Q

in what anatomical part of the body are all symphysis joints found? what bones have these?

A

the midline; vertebrae, mandible, pubis

186
Q

what is the precursor for vertebral column in development and became the nucleus pulposus?

A

Notochord

187
Q

ZYGAPOPHYSEAL is another name for these joints?

A

facet joints

188
Q

a poseriolateral disc prolapse affects nerve the above or below?

A

below

189
Q

what ligament is punctured in a lumbar puncture?

A

ligamentum flavum

190
Q

what connects spinous process to each other?

A

interspinous ligament

191
Q

the nuchal ligament becomes what inferior to C7?

A

Supura spinous ligament

192
Q

what ligament is responsible for protection of the spinal cord during a disc prolapse?

A

posterior longitudinal ligament

193
Q

what ligaments prevent dislocation of ribs?

A

Superior AND lateral costrotransverse ligaments

194
Q

intervertebral discs are named how? why?

A

named after the vertebra below the disc since there is no disc between C1/C2

195
Q

the measurement between these 2 points determines if the birth canal is big enough?

A

Sacral promontory and pubic symphasis

196
Q

why is nerve damage unlikely during a lumbar puncture?

A

cauda equina spreads when the dura mater is pierced due to pressure release.

197
Q

the spinal cord extends from what to what?

A

From foramen magnum in skull to L1/L2

198
Q

Cervical enlargement (C4 – T1) of the spinal cord gives rise to?

A

brachial plexus which supplies the upper limb

199
Q

Lumbosacral enlargement (L2 – S3) of the spinal cord gives rise to?

A

lumbar & sacral plexuses which supplies the lower limb

200
Q

what are the 2 primary functions of the spinal cord?

A

Major reflex center & pathway between body & brain

201
Q

the spinal cord ends as what? where?

A

conus medullaris at L1/L2

202
Q

what is a filamentous continuation of the piamater of the spinal cord?

A

Filum terminale- is about 20cm in length and begins from the tip of the conus meduallaris to coccyx

203
Q

what structure is present within the dural sheath and extends to S2

A

Filum terminale interna

204
Q

Filum terminale externa is located where?

A

S2 to coccyx

205
Q

the spinal nerves (lumbar, sacral and coccygeal) extend downward as a bundle in the subarachnoid space known as?

A

Cauda equina

206
Q

gray matter of the spinal cord contains?

A

neural cell bodies

207
Q

white matter of the spinal cord contains?

A

axons

208
Q

number of spinal cord segments & number of pairs of spinal nerves?

A

31 spinal cord segments & 31 pairs of spinal nerves

209
Q

how many spinal cord segments & pairs of spinal nerves reside in the cervical spine?

A

8 segments and 8 pairs of spinal nerves

210
Q

spinal nerves C1-C8 are broken into these plexuses?

A

cervical AND brachial plexuses

211
Q

cauda equana nerves are broken into these plexuses?l

A

lumbar AND sacral plexuses

212
Q

what resides in the subarachnoid space?

A

CSF and spinal cord arteries and veins

213
Q

outermost covering for the spinal cord & brain is?

A

duramater

214
Q

the space between the periosteum of the

vertebral canal and duramater is?

A

Epidural space

215
Q

Internal venous plexus is embedded in what?

A

epidural fat

216
Q

of the 3 coverings of the spinal cord & brain, which is sensitive to pain?

A

duramater

217
Q

what is adherent to the spinal cord

surface?

A

piamater

218
Q

what anchor the lateral surfaces of piamater to the dural sac?

A

Denticulate ligaments (21 pairs, T12 – L1)

219
Q

in a lumbar puncture, a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space between arches of? why is there no risk of spinal cord injury?

A

L3 & L4; spinal cord ends at L1/L2

220
Q

the size of what area of the spinal cord depends on the area innervated?

A

ventral horn

221
Q

what are the possible directions of the sympathetic chain?

A

Go up the chain
Go down the chain
Go through the chain to different ganglia
Go through to organ

222
Q

semispinalis capitis has what nerve going through it, responsible for severe tension headaches?

A

Great occipital nerve

223
Q

Atlanto-Occipital Joint is what type of joint?

A

SYNOVIAL, CONDYLOID

224
Q

ligamentum flavum extends from lamina to lamina of vertebrae except C1/C2. what is the comparable ligament from C1 to skull and C2 to C1? what artery goes through this structure at what level?

A

posterior atlantooccipital membrane; vertebral artery between C1 and skll

225
Q

what ligaments connect C2 to the skull? (on what aspect of what structure of C2)

A

apical ligament of dens connects the superior aspect of dens to skull, alar ligament connects lateral aspects of dens to skull

226
Q

what ligament prevents the odontoid process from moving posteriorly into the spinal cord? what is the name of this joint?

A

transverse ligament of atlas; atlantoaxial joint

227
Q

what structure is contiguous with the transverse ligament of atlas and connects that ligament to C2 body?

A

inferior longitudinal band of cruciate ligament of atlas

228
Q

what is the space called where spinal nerves exit the vertebral column created by what?

A

intervertebral foramen; the inferior vertebral notch of the superior vertebra, and the superior notch of the inferior vertebra

229
Q

what is the space between the transverse process and body of a vertebra?

A

pedicle

230
Q

what is the depression between the spinous process and the transverse process of a vertebra?

A

lamina

231
Q

what are the regions of an intervertebral disc?

A

anulus figrosus, nucleus pulposus

232
Q

what is the characteristic posture of an person with a lumbar disc contralateral prolapse?

A

lateral flexion to the unaffected side

Anatomy Spine Extremities (1 decks)

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