B787 check questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the battery?

A

Main BAT=FWD E/E APU BAT=AFT E/E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For what is the AFT EXT PWR used?

A

R ENG START

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does the large motor power supply electricity?

A

HYD Pump・CAC・Ram Fan・ENG & APU START・C TANK Fuel Pump・NGS・

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is improved climb ?

A

Improved climb is a technique to increase the takeoff speed by increasing the takeoff speed when the runway is long enough. From the viewpoint of rising ability, V2 is lower than the speed at which (T - D) becomes the maximum, that is, it is smaller than the maximum rising angular velocity (VX) as shown in the figure. That is, the rise gradient is larger when the speed is higher than normal V2. Therefore, if the take-off weight is limited by the rising ability of the 2nd segment, if there is a margin in the runway length, you can increase V2 to increase the rising slope of 2nd segment. That is, by increasing V2, climb limit weight can be increased. Also, if the obstacle is relatively far away, obstacle limit weight can also be increased. This is called improved climb performance. This method may be used when the runway length is long enough, when the runway elevation is high or the outside air temperature is high and the take-off weight is limited by climb limit. In improved climb performance, VR must also be larger than usual. In B787, we can use improved climb in principle because we can easily calculate the performance with OPT as optimum V1. In addition, the ANA Group has introduced improved climb to Narita → Mumbai B737-700.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can IMP CLB be used anytime?

A

This method may be used when the runway length is long enough, when the runway elevation is high or the outside air temperature is high and the take-off weight is limited by climb limit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what case is it an advantage to use IMP CLB?

A

When the runway elevation is high or the outside air temperature is high and the take-off weight is limited by climb limit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the company operational requirements for reduced thrust takeoff thrust?

A

AOR PR.10.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In what case is the use of reduced thrust not available?

A

AOM SP.16.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Whats is the Performace Allowance for a Reduced thrust take off? (Relationship between TEMP-WEIGHT-DISTANCE?)

A

AOR PR.10.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do (would) you input ASM TEMP -5 Degrees C into the EFB?

A

AOR 10.2.13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the default setting for the ATM?

A

MAX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the merit of using Alternate C of G?

A

Alternate forward CG is a technique for improving takeoff performance on short runways by setting the forward limit of CG backward.

It is possible to use data with good takeoff performance to shorten the required runway length for the same takeoff weight and to set the maximum allowable takeoff weight for the same runway length.

By limiting the forward limit from (A) forward CG limit to (B) alternate forward CG limit, it is possible to improve takeoff performance on short runways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can you do a manual engine start?

A

The engines can only be started using the Autostart system. (AOM)

Except MEL 80-11-01 Start Selector Holding/Cutout Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Auto Start Function?

A

Auto start allows the EEC to control fuel and ignition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which cases do not allow a second start?

A
  • Loss of both starters

- No N1 Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Are there any cases that you abort the engine start manually ?

A

Yes

  • EICAS message
  • ENG AUTOSTART L,R
  • FIRE ENG TAILPIPE L,R
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What Kind of engine start malfunctions can occur on the B787?

A
COMPRESSOR STALL 
HOT START 
HUNG START 
LOSS OF ONE STARTER  
NO EGT RISE 
START TIME EXCEEDS THE STARTER DUTY CYCLE TIME
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of Idle Thrust settings does the B787 have?

A
  • Minimum
  • Approach
  • Icing
  • Ice Crystal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the Unique limitations of the B787?

A

Please refer to AOM LIMITATIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do you do if ECL is inoperative?

A

A Normal checklist needs to be completed.

AOM 10.60.15 / QRH 10.16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the Cautions / Threats while using the ELC?

A

Please have a think after using it !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is on the front and back cover if the QRH?

A

Front – Quick Action Index

Back – EVACUATION CHECKLIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Q.What is the difference of electrical system between B8 and B6?

A

Electrical System: (AOM 6.20.1)
System powers engine start, pressurization, wing ice protection, stabilizer trim and wheel brakes.
2x Starter/Generator on each engine and APU giving total of 6.
B787 main buses are 235Vac.
3x independent PMG to power primary flight controls
2x independent PMA to power EEC
3x External Power Receptacles.
Batteries are Lithium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When does the Emergency landing should be considered?

AOM CI.2.3 QRH

A

the non-normal checklist contains the phrase “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”
smoke/fumes or fire started in the cabin or crew rest compartment and its elimination is unable to be confirmed.
there exists only 2 AC power source remaining. (2 main engine generator only,or 1 main engine generator + both APU generator)
Altimeter malfunction occurs, and the correct altitude cannot be confirmed by related procedures, standby altimeter, etc. (In this case contact ATC immediately and follow instructions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the effective range of IAN?

AOR 4.1.1

A

Lateral: Radius of 25 NM form the MAP, 60 degrees on each side from the center line of FAC.
Vertical: From the runway to 6000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does the APP switch should be pushed (IAN)?

AOR 4.1.3

A

push after the “GLIDEPATH ALIVED” callout!
When IAN is in use, the 2 dots for the vertical deviation scale of the NPS are 125 ft regardless of the altitude. Be aware that the time for G/P mode to engage and start descending will be shorter than that for the ILS Approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the deviation calls for IAN?

AOM PT.9.11

A

Standard callouts for speed, v/s, mins, etc.)

“GLIDEPATH” PM (The deviation from VNAV path exceeds specified value)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between using VNAV and IAN?

AOR 4.1.1

A

The path angle of IAN is the same as for when using VNAV, and will become the Glide Path Angle (GPA) registered in the NAV database.
Only the segment GPA registered is quarantined for constraint altitude clearance, and the segment GPA unregistered are not guaranteed for clearance in regards to the constraint altitude.
In IAN, use one segment before the segment GPA registered.
Constraint altitudes are confirmed by waypoint, chart, and VSD that the G/P of IAN clears the constraint altitude of the segment GPA unregistered, then the previous segment can be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How to turn off the G/P mode below 1500ft?

AOM 4.20.2

A
  • Disengage autopilot
  • Flight Directors - OFF
  • TOGA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When continuing the use IAN below DA, what takes place?

AOR 4.1.4

A

100 ft RA: “NO AUTOLAND” is displayed in the PFD
50 ft RA: The FAC and G/P Mode in the PFD Fail Indications (Amber Bar)
Before Touchdown: Flare is started to prevent hard landing
After touchdown: The autopilot is disconnected (OK this is copied out of the AOR and its my understanding we are hand flying below our mins, not sure what this is about???)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Explain about the outline of the battery system?

AOM6.20.4

A
1 MAIN battery 
1 APU battery 
*8 cells each, 4V output for each cell = 32 V all 8 cells 
MAIN battery provides power for: 
airplane power-up 
APU start (assists APU battery) 
Refueling ops 
Towing ops 
Electric braking (back up source) 
Captains flight instruments (power failure, energizes essential instruments until RAT deploys) (with no RAT 10 minutes battery power available) 
APU provides power for: 
APU start 
Navigation lights (when towing power mode is active)
32
Q

What are the changes after battery accident?

INFORMATION 067A 14 NOV 2013

A

Elimination of the possibility of short circuits and overheating.
Improved thermal insulation between cells.
Improved heat resistance.
Elimination of the possibility of damage attributable to moisture.
Improved manufacturing process and quality.
Seal closures that have venting disks in case of excessive high temps and gases.

33
Q

Where is the battery?

A

INFORMATION no. 067A issue: NOV 14, 2013

MAIN battery: Fwd E/E compartment
APU battery: Aft E/E compartment

34
Q

If the main battery fail in the air, will it affect any system?

A

INFORMATION no. 067A issue: NOV 14, 2013

-Since design changes all vapor from a main or APU battery fail are vented outside the aircraft. There are no smoke detector to detect these vapors.
-The batteries are physically isolated from the surrounding equipment and cabin
air system.
-There will be no oxygen within the enclosure and combustion will not occur.

35
Q

Explain about the outline of the electrical?

AOM 6.20.1

A

115VAC primary
28 Vdc primary
235 Vac - limited systems

4 Engine starter/generators 
2 APU starter/generators 
3 external AC receptacles 
1 RAT 
1 MAIN battery 
1 APU battery 
3 Flight Control PMG’s (Permanent Magnet Generators) 
2 EEC PMA’s (Permanent Magnet Alternators)
36
Q

What systems operate by electrical power, previously hydraulic power?

A
  • wheel brakes
37
Q

1-WHEN DO YOU USE THE PFC DISCONNECT SWITCH?

A

QRH 9.14 and 9.29

When prompted by the NNC checklists;
FLIGHT CONTROL MODE
PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS

38
Q

2-WHAT SOURCE MOVES FLIGHT CONTROL SURFACES?

A

AOM 9.20.5

L+C+R Hyd powered spoilers, ailerons, flaperons, stabilizer, rudder and elevator.
Electrically powered spoilers 4,5,10,11 and stabilizer

39
Q

3-WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE OF STABILIZER SYSTEM BETWEEN ON THE GROUND AND IN THE AIR?

A

AOM 9.20.12

Ground 
-Pitch trim moves stabilizer directly 
In Air 
-Normal Mode 
-Pitch trim changes trim reference speed 
-Secondary and Direct Mode 
-Pitch trim moves stabilizer directly
40
Q

4-EXPLAIN ABOUT LAM

AOM 9.20.22

A

Landing Attitude Modifier
An auto function to increase pitch attitude to prevent nose wheel contact on landing.

At high speeds with landing flaps selected, decreases spoiler and flaperon droop for F20, F25 and F30 landings.

41
Q

5-UNIQUE FAIL CONSIDERATION

AOM 9.20.2

A

In the event of the loss of all hydraulics…
Roll control
-Elec power for 4 spoilers
Pitch control
-Uses primary and alternate pitch trim
-With complete loss of signaling, only alternate pitch trim available

42
Q

6-HUD…WHAT INDICATIONS ARE ON HUD BUT NOT PFD?

AOM 10.12.20

A
  • Pitch Scale Compression and Chevrons
  • Unusual Attirude
  • Digital Heading
  • Ground Deviation HUD takeoff
  • TOGA Reference Line
  • Flight Path Vector Symbol and Guidance Cue
  • AOA Limit Symbol
  • Slip/Skid Indicators
  • TCAS Fly To Symbology
  • Speed error tape and Flight Path Acceleration
  • Glide Slope Reference Line
  • Runway Edge Lines
  • Ground Deceleration (Rate) Scale
43
Q

7-HUD…WHAT ARE THE INDICATIONS WHEN TCAS OPERATING?

AOM 15.10.20

A
  • Single Lined AVOID Regions

- Double Lined CORRECTIVE Boxes

44
Q

8-HUD…WHAT ARE UNUSUAL ATTITUDE INDICATIONS?

AOM 10.22.3

A
  • Pitch Scale Compressions are replaced by UA Symbology and Chevrons
  • Zenith Symbol at +90 and Nadir Symbol at -90
45
Q

9-IN WHAT CASE IS THE VSD NOT INDICATED?

AOM 10.10.32

A

-In Plan Mode

46
Q

10-WHAT IS THE DISPLAY RANGE OF VSD?

AOM 10.10.34

A

-2560 nm (2x range of ND)

47
Q

11-WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE BALANCE SYSTEM AND THE CROSSFEED VALVE SYSTEM?
AOM 12.20.3

A
  • FUEL BALANCE is achieved by utilizing defueling/jettison valves from one Main Tank DIRECTLY to the other Main Tank
  • FUEL CROSSFEED is from one Main Tank to opposite Engine
48
Q

12-ANY LIMITATION FOR CROSSFEED VALVE?

AOM L.3.12

A

-Yes. Normally closed but opened for minimum fuel operation

49
Q

13- WHEN DO YOU USE THE CROSSFEED VALVE?

AOM 12.20.3

A

-When Balance System fails

50
Q

14-WHAT ARE THE FUELS PROHIBITED TO USE?

AOM L.3.9

A
  • JP-4

- Jet B

51
Q

15-CAN YOU USE BALANCE SYSTEM ANYTIME?

AOM 12.20.3

A

-No. Inhibited for…
Refueling, defueling and ground transfer using the refueling control panel
Prior to Engine Start and the APU is off
Fuel Balance System failed
A Center Tank Pump is ON
On ground and one or both Engines running
In Flight and fuel jettison system is active or the FUEL DISAGREE or FUEL QTY LOW on

52
Q

16-WHERE ARE THE REFUELING PROCEDURES IN THE MANUALS?

AOR 12.2.1

A

-AOR Chapter 12 Section 2

53
Q

17-HOW MANY IRS ON B787?

AOM 10.20.17

A

2

54
Q

18-HOW DOES THE INDICATION CHANGE WHEN EICAS NAV AIR DATA SYS HAS SHOWN?
AOM 11.20.9

A
-PFD Indications 
AOA Airspeed GPS Altitude 
-Primary Flight Controls  to Secondary Mode 
-AFDS INOP 
-Autopilot INOP 
-Autothrottles INOP
55
Q

19-HOW DOES THE INDICATION CHANGE WHEN EICAS NAV AIRSPEED DATA HAS SHOWN?
AOM 11.20.10

A
  • Same as above but…

- PFD utilizes ADRS for Altitude instead of GPS

56
Q

20 AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE…
WHAT IS IT LIKE?
QRH 10.1

A

-Goal is to determine reliable Airspeed Indicator

LOST…

  • Auto Pilot
  • Auto Throttle
  • Flight Directors
  • Flight Path Vector
  • V/S
  • Max Speed
  • Min Speed
  • Reference TPR
  • Max TPR
  • Wind Indications
  • Auto EAI and Wing AI
  • Thrust Asymmetry Protection (min speed 130 kts)
  • Normal Flight Controls
  • EEC Normal (Use ALTN Mode)
  • No Max Thrust Limiting
  • GPWS
  • Envelope Protections
  • Degraded Yaw Damper
  • Maneuver margeins limited from Flaps UP to F5
  • TOGA for Go Around
  • Auto Speedbrake on landing

MAY BE ERRONEOUS…

  • GPS Altitude
  • XPNDR Altitudes (use ALT OFF)

RELIABLE…

  • Groundspeed
  • RA
  • Pitch/Thrust Airspeed table

-Plan to…

  • Use initial Pitch/Thrust settings…
  • Flaps extended 10 and 85%
  • Flaps retracted 4 and 70%
  • Alternate Flaps and Slats
  • Flap 20 Landing
  • Manual Speed Brake after Landing
  • Minimum Speed 130 kts
57
Q

21-AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE…
WHAT DO YOU DO?
QRH 10.1

A

-Recall Items and then AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE NNC

58
Q

22- AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE…
WHAT IS THE MATTER?
AOM 10.1

A

Airspeed or Mach disagree with AOA Calculated Airspeed

59
Q

Dimensions? 

A

60.1m wide 
56.7m long (6.1 longer) 
16.9m high 
(AOM 1.10.1) 

60
Q

Turning Radius? Minimum required width? How to do it in 45m RWY? 

A

45.9m Procedure (AOM PT.1.1) 

61
Q

What are the Documents to be carried in the airplane? 

A
Registration certificate  
Airworthiness certificate  
Designation for operating limitations  
Radio station licence  
Emergency documents  
QRH  
Journey log  
MEL/CDL log  
  
Earth station licence  
  
Airplane operations manual  
Operations policy – vol 2  
MEL/CDL Manual  
Operations manual  
Route manual  
  
Enroute charts  
  
Air operator certificate true transcript  
  
Civil aircraft landing permit  
Emergency response guide for dangerous goods  
Operations specifications  
Noise documents  
(OM 2.S.3) 
62
Q

How many emergency equipments are there in the cockpit? 

A
Crash axe  
Descent device 4  
Fire resistant gloves  
Flash light 2  
Halon fire extinguisher  
Life vest 4  
Oxygen mask 4  
Signal kit  
Smoke hood  
(QRH Equip 1.1) 
63
Q

Say all preliminary pre-flight procedures? 

A
Log & Doc  
F/D access  
Emergency equipment  
Evac & interphone check  
Crew oxygen mask microphone check  
(AOM NP.21.1) 
64
Q

What items in not originating flight? 

A

Log & Doc  
Emergency equipment 
Oxygen pressure 

65
Q

What items do you check in status page? 

A

OXY PRESS 860 / 1250 
HYD QTY RF 
OIL QTY 16 
(AOM NP.21.2) 

66
Q

Take-off thrust and take-off flaps selection? 

A

TO, TO 1, TO 2, 
(OM 11.32.2) 
Flap 5, 15, 20 (10, 17, 18) 
(OM 9.20.23) 

67
Q

What is the OPT V1? 

A

An unbalanced V1. It is the V1 which allows the highest field length limited take off weight 

68
Q

What’s the threat of OPT V1 operation? 

A

Lower stop margin, Accelerate stop longer. 

69
Q

What is the major point of OPT V1? 

A

Increased take off weight available 

70
Q

What systems use pneumatic ?

A

Engine Anti-ice (AOM 3.20.1)

Cooling and sealing airflow to intermediate pressure turbine (AOM 7.20.7)

71
Q

For what is the AFT EXT PWR used ?

A

The aft external power system can assist the forward system when starting the right engine first. (AOM6.20.3)

72
Q

What is the PECS ?

A

Power Electronics Cooling System, which is a liquid cooling system for the large motor power distribution system located in the aft E/E compartment. It also provides liquid cooling to the supplemental cooling units and associated motor controllers of the Integrated Cooling System (AOM 2.20.14)

73
Q

How can you grasp what is going on in PECS ?

A

You can not, as there is no Flight Deck control for the liquid cooling system, it is fully automated (AOM 2.20.14)

74
Q

What system will be affected if PECS fails ?

A

Depending on whether one or both systems fail : Both packs, both Center Fuel pumps, all electric HYD pumps (QRH 2.30/2.31)

75
Q

Where does the large motor power supply electricity ?

A

Hydraulic pumps, Cabin Air Compressors, Ram fans, Engine and APU start, Center tank Fuel pumps, NGS (AOM 6.20.7)