B777 SV Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Alternate Action Switch

A

Two position switch, can be in or out, in is ON and flush, out is OFF

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2
Q

Momentary Action Switch

A

One position switch spring loaded to out

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3
Q

How many total AC sources of power does the B777 accommodate?

A

Seven (2 IDG, APU, PRI and SEC external power, 2 BUG)

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4
Q

How many MAIN sources of AC power are on the B777?

A

Five (2 IDG, APU, PRI and SEC external power)

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5
Q

What does the green AVAIL light indicate on the electrical panel?

A

Power is available and acceptable

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6
Q

What is ELMS?

A

Electrical Load Management System, manages load shed priority (galley first, utility bus second, then selected AC components)

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7
Q

How many batteries are on the B777?

A

2 (Main and APU)

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the APU battery?

A

Electric start of the APU

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9
Q

The APU can be started by what sources?

A

Electric and Pneumatic (can be started with ground air)

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10
Q

What does the APU fault light indicate?

A

Self test or fault in the APU

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11
Q

What does a white message on the EICAS indicate?

A

Memo

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12
Q

Does the APU have priority over secondary power?

A

Yes

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13
Q

When will the APU AUTO START message appear?

A

Dual transfer bus fail

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14
Q

What is the APU max operating altitude for electric?

A

43,100 ft (service ceiling)

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15
Q

What is the APU max operating altitude for air?

A

22,000 ft

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16
Q

What does OF indicate next to a fluid level? (Ex: 1.20of)

A

Overfill

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17
Q

What does RF indicate next to a fluid level? (Ex: 1.00rf)

A

Refill

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18
Q

What does LO indicate next to a fluid level? (Ex: .45lo)

A

Low

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19
Q

Are status messages controlling prior to engine start?

A

Yes

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20
Q

Are status messages controlling after engine start?

A

No

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21
Q

What happens if you switch off the ADIRU in flight?

A

Nothing, it stays powered

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22
Q

What happens to the font and background with an oil LO2 message?

A

Produces a negative font illustration to highlight font (black font on white background)

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23
Q

Can you reset a circuit breaker in flight?

A

Not recommended, but if the safety of flight dictates, it can be reset once with a two minute cool down

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24
Q

What is TAC?

A

Thrust Asymmetry Compensation - system kicks in rudder when it senses a minimum of 10% thrust level difference, armed OVER 70 kts

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25
What are the different flight control modes?
Normal, Secondary, Direct
26
What messages are present in Direct flight control mode?
DISC illuminates on the primary flight computer switch button and PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS caution on EICAS
27
Can both backup generators be utilized at the same time?
No, both can run, but only one can be used at a time since they share the same frequency converter
28
What does DRIVE on the IDG switch or on the synoptic page indicate?
Low oil pressure
29
What does an X on the IDG on the electrical synoptic page indicate?
Disconnect
30
Will the IDG disconnect automatically for high temperature?
Yes
31
How many oxygen masks drop in the supernumerary compartment?
Four in the crew rest compartment, and two in the lavatory (each generator drops a pair)
32
Which windows have anti-ice and back-up anti-fog?
Forward two
33
RAT supplies hydraulic pressure to where?
C system flight controls
34
Does electric power has priority over hydraulic power from the RAT?
No, hydraulic has priority, and if electric is shed, only the CA instrument bus is powered through the main battery
35
When will the RAT auto-deploy?
Both transfer busses unpowered, all three hydraulic systems low, both engines fail and C hydraulic system low
36
What is the minimum brake accumulator pressure?
1000 psi (amber band)
37
Can the parking brake be set with accumulator pressure only?
Yes
38
What is indicated by the BRAKE SOURCE light?
Both R and C pressure is low
39
What does the storm switch activate?
Sets the dome, flood and illuminated indicator lights to maximum
40
How are cargo fires detected?
Optical sensors (except the FSS)
41
What does the main deck fire suppression switch do?
When ARMED, shuts down the right pack, then the DEPR/DISCH switch depressurizes the deck
42
How many bottles are activated using the lower cargo fire switches?
5 (2 immediate, 3 delay)
43
What does the EEC control?
N1
44
Does the EEC have over-boost protection?
Yes
45
Is over-boost protection available in ALTN mode?
No
46
How is soft mode entered by the EEC?
Automatically (NORM and ALTN are displayed in the button switch on the engine control panel)
47
How is ALTN mode entered by the EEC?
Manually (only ALTN is displayed in the button switch on the engine control panel)
48
Where are the override fuel pumps located?
Center tank
49
What pumps must be ON for fuel jettison?
Center pumps (override fuel pumps, fuel will not jettison without these pumps in the ON position)
50
What is the correct action for a FUEL IN CENTER message?
Turn on the center pumps
51
What is the correct action for a FUEL LO CENTER message?
Turn off the center pumps
52
Can you transfer fuel from tank to tank in the B777?
No (only cross-feed engines)
53
What does the VALVE light indicate in the cross-feed button switch?
The valve is not in the commanded position, or the valve is in transit to the commanded position
54
With only one AC power source available on the ground, will both center pumps operate?
No, one or both may load shed (both operate only when two power sources are available)
55
What surfaces is bleed anti-ice delivered to?
3 panels on the wings, and the engine cowls
56
What constitutes icing conditions?
10 deg or less and visible moisture
57
How is the equipment cooled if both fans fail?
Cabin differential pressure venting (avoid flying low for long periods due to insufficient cooling ability)
58
What do the packs do if you turn OFF the recirc fans?
They go to HIGH, increasing fuel burn
59
Does the temp controller in the supernumerary compartment override the cockpit temp controller for the cabin?
Yes
60
On the temperature synoptic page, what color is the commanded temperature?
Magenta (white is the actual temperature)
61
What is TRIM air?
Unconditioned bleed air blended with pack air
62
How are bleed valves controlled?
Electrically (pneumatically operated, must have pressure to work)
63
What does the amber M mean on the outflow valve indicator?
Manual
64
Are the CCD cursors the same for the CA and FO?
No (CA has a box, FO is a double-cross)
65
What is a closed loop item in the ECL?
System monitored item (no requirement for the crew to manually verify)
66
What is an open loop item in the ECL?
Crew required manual verification item
67
What color is an over-ridden item in the ECL?
Blue (and boxed)
68
Where are un-annunciated checklists found?
Non-normal checklists (Ex: Fuel Jettison)
69
Where is the Fuel Jettison checklist found?
Un-annunciated checklists (Non-normal checklists)
70
What does the DOORS message indicate?
Two or more doors are not closed and latched and locked
71
What does the DOORS MANUAL message indicate?
Both entry doors are in the disarmed mode
72
What does the DOORS AUTO message indicate?
Both entry doors are in the armed mode
73
What does a blank door box on the doors synoptic page indicate?
An open door
74
What does no door indication on the doors synoptic page indicate?
Closed door
75
What does a white box on the doors synoptic page indicate?
The associated door indicator has failed
76
Does autostart monitor oil pressure or temperature?
No, the pilot must do this
77
What does the pointer on the tiller indicate?
Displacement from center up to 70 deg
78
How many degrees can the rudders steer?
7 deg
79
Can the rudders steer the aft main gear?
No
80
What control steers the aft main gear?
Tiller (after 13 deg of steering)
81
How are the nose gear tires numbered?
13 and 14
82
How are the main truck tires numbered?
Left to right and front to back (1-12)
83
Is aileron trim available with the autopilot on?
No
84
Is rudder trim available with the autopilot on?
Yes
85
What measurement is trim displayed?
Units
86
When can non-normal checklists be asked for?
Aircraft under control, all phase ones complete, non-critical phase of flight
87
How are alerts prioritized?
Warning, Caution, Advisory, then most recent first
88
How does the flap symbology change with secondary mode?
Split with colors
89
How does flap symbology change with alternate mode?
Split with no colors
90
What does anti-skid provide?
Locked wheel and hydroplane protection
91
What does the EICAS message AUTOBRAKE indicate?
Autobrakes are disarmed
92
When are auto brakes enabled one takeoff?
Thrust levers idle and above 85 kts
93
When are auto brakes enabled one landing?
Thrust levers at idle and main wheels spun up
94
What disables auto brakes?
Use of pedal brakes, speed brake lever DOWN, thrust lever forward, auto brake selector OFF
95
When do takeoff speed brakes deploy?
On ground and either reverse in idle detent
96
What does SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED message indicate?
Speed brake extended and either radio altimeter between 15-800 ft, flap lever in the landing position, either thrust lever not at idle
97
What does CONFIG GEAR message indicate?
Landing gear not down and locked and either below 800 RA with thrust levers at idle, or flaps in landing position
98
When can max thrust of an engine be reached short of the full forward position?
In Secondary or Alternate mode
99
What ways can you interact with the EFB?
Buttons, Touch, CCD
100
Where must all takeoff data be calculated?
APS
101
What is the difference between THR and THR REF?
THR gives you a min of 2000 ft/min whereas THR REF gives you full thrust available
102
Where does MAG switch to TRUE automatically?
If in the FMC polar region
103
Can you switch from MAG to TRUE manually?
Yes (push the HDG REF button)
104
Where is the FMC computed position indicated on the map?
Tip of the triangle
105
What is the priority order for FMC navigation?
GPS, NAV/RADIO, ADIRU
106
Which MFD selections give you range rings?
TERR, WXR, TFC
107
What is RNP?
Required Navigation Path
108
What is ANP?
Actual Navigation Path
109
How do you know the difference between the VOR L/R needle display?
VOR L is the skinny needle and VOR R is the fat needle
110
What does the head of the VOR needle indicate?
Course TO
111
Can you use an identifier to tune an ILS?
No, you must use the frequency and course (111.10/235)
112
Can you display WXR and TERR on the same screen at the same time?
No
113
What does an airport symbol with an integrated "A" indicate?
Alternate airport in database
114
What functions are lost when in PLAN, VOR CTR, and APP CTR mode?
No WXR, TERR, TFC, or PWS
115
How do you return to autotune if you have manually tuned a navaid in line 1 of the FMC?
Just delete line 1
116
What do the green colored VOR symbols indicate on the ND?
VOR's tuned by the FMC
117
What does HOLD mode indicate on the auto throttles?
Auto throttle servos are inhibited (pilot has thrust levers, no stall protection supported)
118
What altitude does VNAV engage?
400 ft
119
What altitude does LNAV engage?
50 ft
120
Are flap maneuvering speeds displayed above 20,000ft?
No
121
What does L/R indicate by the IN/HPA setting?
Indicates which side is delivering the information
122
What to the green hash marks on the ALT tape indicate?
10,000 ft place holder
123
When does digital information on the ALT tape begin to display?
400 ft
124
When does radio altimeter information begin to display?
Below 2500 ft
125
When does the rising runway trapezoid symbol appear?
Below 2500 ft on the ILS (rises at 200 ft)
126
When do you get the auto land status?
Passing 1500 ft AGL
127
What does LAND3 indicate?
Fail operational, no see to land, back-up generator starts for redundancy
128
What does LAND2 indicate?
Fail passive, must see to land
129
When does the LARB appear on the ALT tape?
1000 ft (begins white and turns amber at 500 ft)
130
What does the green TO/GA indicate?
Ground track guidance
131
What does the green LNAV indicate?
Active route guidance
132
When are MOST alerts inhibited for the caution light and beeper?
Below 200 ft
133
What does the ATT:RST message indicate in the ISFD?
Press RST to realign the horizon with the airplane (must be in stable unaccelerated flight)
134
GPWS PWS uses radar, but must have what to be effective?
Moisture or particulates
135
Are alerts automatically enabled for PWS?
Yes, below a pre-determined altitude
136
What is other traffic indicated by on TCAS?
Open white diamond
137
What is proximate traffic indicated by on TCAS?
Solid white diamond
138
What is a TA indicated by on TCAS?
Solid yellow dot
139
What is an RA indicated by on TCAS?
Solid red square
140
What does no symbol indicate on TCAS?
No bearing traffic
141
What does the CLB CON button do?
Manual intervention for climb power or max continuous power for single engine
142
What does the flashing amber pointer on the fuel gauge indicate?
Fuel transfer is in the wrong direction
143
Can you close the engine parameters display if any of the parameters are out of normal?
No (will always display in full or compact mode)
144
Does the SAARU provide position data?
No (must update heading every three minutes)
145
Does the galley water shutoff isolate the lav water as well?
No (separate shutoffs)
146
What are the primary exit doors?
1 R/L (secondary exits are cockpit windows)
147
Where is fuel jettison time found?
On the fuel synoptic page
148
What is the first indication that fuel balancing is complete?
Blinking FUEL BALANCED message
149
What is the first indication that fuel jettison is complete?
Blinking TO REMAIN fuel amount
150
Will the fuel jettison system keep you in CG?
Yes