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B777 Study (FedEx) > B777 SV Study Guide > Flashcards

B777 SV Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Alternate Action Switch

A

Two position switch, can be in or out, in is ON and flush, out is OFF

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2
Q

Momentary Action Switch

A

One position switch spring loaded to out

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3
Q

How many total AC sources of power does the B777 accommodate?

A

Seven (2 IDG, APU, PRI and SEC external power, 2 BUG)

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4
Q

How many MAIN sources of AC power are on the B777?

A

Five (2 IDG, APU, PRI and SEC external power)

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5
Q

What does the green AVAIL light indicate on the electrical panel?

A

Power is available and acceptable

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6
Q

What is ELMS?

A

Electrical Load Management System, manages load shed priority (galley first, utility bus second, then selected AC components)

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7
Q

How many batteries are on the B777?

A

2 (Main and APU)

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the APU battery?

A

Electric start of the APU

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9
Q

The APU can be started by what sources?

A

Electric and Pneumatic (can be started with ground air)

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10
Q

What does the APU fault light indicate?

A

Self test or fault in the APU

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11
Q

What does a white message on the EICAS indicate?

A

Memo

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12
Q

Does the APU have priority over secondary power?

A

Yes

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13
Q

When will the APU AUTO START message appear?

A

Dual transfer bus fail

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14
Q

What is the APU max operating altitude for electric?

A

43,100 ft (service ceiling)

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15
Q

What is the APU max operating altitude for air?

A

22,000 ft

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16
Q

What does OF indicate next to a fluid level? (Ex: 1.20of)

A

Overfill

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17
Q

What does RF indicate next to a fluid level? (Ex: 1.00rf)

A

Refill

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18
Q

What does LO indicate next to a fluid level? (Ex: .45lo)

A

Low

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19
Q

Are status messages controlling prior to engine start?

A

Yes

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20
Q

Are status messages controlling after engine start?

A

No

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21
Q

What happens if you switch off the ADIRU in flight?

A

Nothing, it stays powered

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22
Q

What happens to the font and background with an oil LO2 message?

A

Produces a negative font illustration to highlight font (black font on white background)

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23
Q

Can you reset a circuit breaker in flight?

A

Not recommended, but if the safety of flight dictates, it can be reset once with a two minute cool down

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24
Q

What is TAC?

A

Thrust Asymmetry Compensation - system kicks in rudder when it senses a minimum of 10% thrust level difference, armed OVER 70 kts

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25
Q

What are the different flight control modes?

A

Normal, Secondary, Direct

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26
Q

What messages are present in Direct flight control mode?

A

DISC illuminates on the primary flight computer switch button and PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS caution on EICAS

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27
Q

Can both backup generators be utilized at the same time?

A

No, both can run, but only one can be used at a time since they share the same frequency converter

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28
Q

What does DRIVE on the IDG switch or on the synoptic page indicate?

A

Low oil pressure

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29
Q

What does an X on the IDG on the electrical synoptic page indicate?

A

Disconnect

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30
Q

Will the IDG disconnect automatically for high temperature?

A

Yes

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31
Q

How many oxygen masks drop in the supernumerary compartment?

A

Four in the crew rest compartment, and two in the lavatory (each generator drops a pair)

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32
Q

Which windows have anti-ice and back-up anti-fog?

A

Forward two

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33
Q

RAT supplies hydraulic pressure to where?

A

C system flight controls

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34
Q

Does electric power has priority over hydraulic power from the RAT?

A

No, hydraulic has priority, and if electric is shed, only the CA instrument bus is powered through the main battery

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35
Q

When will the RAT auto-deploy?

A

Both transfer busses unpowered, all three hydraulic systems low, both engines fail and C hydraulic system low

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36
Q

What is the minimum brake accumulator pressure?

A

1000 psi (amber band)

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37
Q

Can the parking brake be set with accumulator pressure only?

A

Yes

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38
Q

What is indicated by the BRAKE SOURCE light?

A

Both R and C pressure is low

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39
Q

What does the storm switch activate?

A

Sets the dome, flood and illuminated indicator lights to maximum

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40
Q

How are cargo fires detected?

A

Optical sensors (except the FSS)

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41
Q

What does the main deck fire suppression switch do?

A

When ARMED, shuts down the right pack, then the DEPR/DISCH switch depressurizes the deck

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42
Q

How many bottles are activated using the lower cargo fire switches?

A

5 (2 immediate, 3 delay)

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43
Q

What does the EEC control?

A

N1

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44
Q

Does the EEC have over-boost protection?

A

Yes

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45
Q

Is over-boost protection available in ALTN mode?

A

No

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46
Q

How is soft mode entered by the EEC?

A

Automatically (NORM and ALTN are displayed in the button switch on the engine control panel)

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47
Q

How is ALTN mode entered by the EEC?

A

Manually (only ALTN is displayed in the button switch on the engine control panel)

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48
Q

Where are the override fuel pumps located?

A

Center tank

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49
Q

What pumps must be ON for fuel jettison?

A

Center pumps (override fuel pumps, fuel will not jettison without these pumps in the ON position)

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50
Q

What is the correct action for a FUEL IN CENTER message?

A

Turn on the center pumps

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51
Q

What is the correct action for a FUEL LO CENTER message?

A

Turn off the center pumps

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52
Q

Can you transfer fuel from tank to tank in the B777?

A

No (only cross-feed engines)

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53
Q

What does the VALVE light indicate in the cross-feed button switch?

A

The valve is not in the commanded position, or the valve is in transit to the commanded position

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54
Q

With only one AC power source available on the ground, will both center pumps operate?

A

No, one or both may load shed (both operate only when two power sources are available)

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55
Q

What surfaces is bleed anti-ice delivered to?

A

3 panels on the wings, and the engine cowls

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56
Q

What constitutes icing conditions?

A

10 deg or less and visible moisture

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57
Q

How is the equipment cooled if both fans fail?

A

Cabin differential pressure venting (avoid flying low for long periods due to insufficient cooling ability)

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58
Q

What do the packs do if you turn OFF the recirc fans?

A

They go to HIGH, increasing fuel burn

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59
Q

Does the temp controller in the supernumerary compartment override the cockpit temp controller for the cabin?

A

Yes

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60
Q

On the temperature synoptic page, what color is the commanded temperature?

A

Magenta (white is the actual temperature)

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61
Q

What is TRIM air?

A

Unconditioned bleed air blended with pack air

62
Q

How are bleed valves controlled?

A

Electrically (pneumatically operated, must have pressure to work)

63
Q

What does the amber M mean on the outflow valve indicator?

A

Manual

64
Q

Are the CCD cursors the same for the CA and FO?

A

No (CA has a box, FO is a double-cross)

65
Q

What is a closed loop item in the ECL?

A

System monitored item (no requirement for the crew to manually verify)

66
Q

What is an open loop item in the ECL?

A

Crew required manual verification item

67
Q

What color is an over-ridden item in the ECL?

A

Blue (and boxed)

68
Q

Where are un-annunciated checklists found?

A

Non-normal checklists (Ex: Fuel Jettison)

69
Q

Where is the Fuel Jettison checklist found?

A

Un-annunciated checklists (Non-normal checklists)

70
Q

What does the DOORS message indicate?

A

Two or more doors are not closed and latched and locked

71
Q

What does the DOORS MANUAL message indicate?

A

Both entry doors are in the disarmed mode

72
Q

What does the DOORS AUTO message indicate?

A

Both entry doors are in the armed mode

73
Q

What does a blank door box on the doors synoptic page indicate?

A

An open door

74
Q

What does no door indication on the doors synoptic page indicate?

A

Closed door

75
Q

What does a white box on the doors synoptic page indicate?

A

The associated door indicator has failed

76
Q

Does autostart monitor oil pressure or temperature?

A

No, the pilot must do this

77
Q

What does the pointer on the tiller indicate?

A

Displacement from center up to 70 deg

78
Q

How many degrees can the rudders steer?

A

7 deg

79
Q

Can the rudders steer the aft main gear?

A

No

80
Q

What control steers the aft main gear?

A

Tiller (after 13 deg of steering)

81
Q

How are the nose gear tires numbered?

A

13 and 14

82
Q

How are the main truck tires numbered?

A

Left to right and front to back (1-12)

83
Q

Is aileron trim available with the autopilot on?

A

No

84
Q

Is rudder trim available with the autopilot on?

A

Yes

85
Q

What measurement is trim displayed?

A

Units

86
Q

When can non-normal checklists be asked for?

A

Aircraft under control, all phase ones complete, non-critical phase of flight

87
Q

How are alerts prioritized?

A

Warning, Caution, Advisory, then most recent first

88
Q

How does the flap symbology change with secondary mode?

A

Split with colors

89
Q

How does flap symbology change with alternate mode?

A

Split with no colors

90
Q

What does anti-skid provide?

A

Locked wheel and hydroplane protection

91
Q

What does the EICAS message AUTOBRAKE indicate?

A

Autobrakes are disarmed

92
Q

When are auto brakes enabled one takeoff?

A

Thrust levers idle and above 85 kts

93
Q

When are auto brakes enabled one landing?

A

Thrust levers at idle and main wheels spun up

94
Q

What disables auto brakes?

A

Use of pedal brakes, speed brake lever DOWN, thrust lever forward, auto brake selector OFF

95
Q

When do takeoff speed brakes deploy?

A

On ground and either reverse in idle detent

96
Q

What does SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED message indicate?

A

Speed brake extended and either radio altimeter between 15-800 ft, flap lever in the landing position, either thrust lever not at idle

97
Q

What does CONFIG GEAR message indicate?

A

Landing gear not down and locked and either below 800 RA with thrust levers at idle, or flaps in landing position

98
Q

When can max thrust of an engine be reached short of the full forward position?

A

In Secondary or Alternate mode

99
Q

What ways can you interact with the EFB?

A

Buttons, Touch, CCD

100
Q

Where must all takeoff data be calculated?

A

APS

101
Q

What is the difference between THR and THR REF?

A

THR gives you a min of 2000 ft/min whereas THR REF gives you full thrust available

102
Q

Where does MAG switch to TRUE automatically?

A

If in the FMC polar region

103
Q

Can you switch from MAG to TRUE manually?

A

Yes (push the HDG REF button)

104
Q

Where is the FMC computed position indicated on the map?

A

Tip of the triangle

105
Q

What is the priority order for FMC navigation?

A

GPS, NAV/RADIO, ADIRU

106
Q

Which MFD selections give you range rings?

A

TERR, WXR, TFC

107
Q

What is RNP?

A

Required Navigation Path

108
Q

What is ANP?

A

Actual Navigation Path

109
Q

How do you know the difference between the VOR L/R needle display?

A

VOR L is the skinny needle and VOR R is the fat needle

110
Q

What does the head of the VOR needle indicate?

A

Course TO

111
Q

Can you use an identifier to tune an ILS?

A

No, you must use the frequency and course (111.10/235)

112
Q

Can you display WXR and TERR on the same screen at the same time?

A

No

113
Q

What does an airport symbol with an integrated “A” indicate?

A

Alternate airport in database

114
Q

What functions are lost when in PLAN, VOR CTR, and APP CTR mode?

A

No WXR, TERR, TFC, or PWS

115
Q

How do you return to autotune if you have manually tuned a navaid in line 1 of the FMC?

A

Just delete line 1

116
Q

What do the green colored VOR symbols indicate on the ND?

A

VOR’s tuned by the FMC

117
Q

What does HOLD mode indicate on the auto throttles?

A

Auto throttle servos are inhibited (pilot has thrust levers, no stall protection supported)

118
Q

What altitude does VNAV engage?

A

400 ft

119
Q

What altitude does LNAV engage?

A

50 ft

120
Q

Are flap maneuvering speeds displayed above 20,000ft?

A

No

121
Q

What does L/R indicate by the IN/HPA setting?

A

Indicates which side is delivering the information

122
Q

What to the green hash marks on the ALT tape indicate?

A

10,000 ft place holder

123
Q

When does digital information on the ALT tape begin to display?

A

400 ft

124
Q

When does radio altimeter information begin to display?

A

Below 2500 ft

125
Q

When does the rising runway trapezoid symbol appear?

A

Below 2500 ft on the ILS (rises at 200 ft)

126
Q

When do you get the auto land status?

A

Passing 1500 ft AGL

127
Q

What does LAND3 indicate?

A

Fail operational, no see to land, back-up generator starts for redundancy

128
Q

What does LAND2 indicate?

A

Fail passive, must see to land

129
Q

When does the LARB appear on the ALT tape?

A

1000 ft (begins white and turns amber at 500 ft)

130
Q

What does the green TO/GA indicate?

A

Ground track guidance

131
Q

What does the green LNAV indicate?

A

Active route guidance

132
Q

When are MOST alerts inhibited for the caution light and beeper?

A

Below 200 ft

133
Q

What does the ATT:RST message indicate in the ISFD?

A

Press RST to realign the horizon with the airplane (must be in stable unaccelerated flight)

134
Q

GPWS PWS uses radar, but must have what to be effective?

A

Moisture or particulates

135
Q

Are alerts automatically enabled for PWS?

A

Yes, below a pre-determined altitude

136
Q

What is other traffic indicated by on TCAS?

A

Open white diamond

137
Q

What is proximate traffic indicated by on TCAS?

A

Solid white diamond

138
Q

What is a TA indicated by on TCAS?

A

Solid yellow dot

139
Q

What is an RA indicated by on TCAS?

A

Solid red square

140
Q

What does no symbol indicate on TCAS?

A

No bearing traffic

141
Q

What does the CLB CON button do?

A

Manual intervention for climb power or max continuous power for single engine

142
Q

What does the flashing amber pointer on the fuel gauge indicate?

A

Fuel transfer is in the wrong direction

143
Q

Can you close the engine parameters display if any of the parameters are out of normal?

A

No (will always display in full or compact mode)

144
Q

Does the SAARU provide position data?

A

No (must update heading every three minutes)

145
Q

Does the galley water shutoff isolate the lav water as well?

A

No (separate shutoffs)

146
Q

What are the primary exit doors?

A

1 R/L (secondary exits are cockpit windows)

147
Q

Where is fuel jettison time found?

A

On the fuel synoptic page

148
Q

What is the first indication that fuel balancing is complete?

A

Blinking FUEL BALANCED message

149
Q

What is the first indication that fuel jettison is complete?

A

Blinking TO REMAIN fuel amount

150
Q

Will the fuel jettison system keep you in CG?

A

Yes

B777 Study (FedEx) (3 decks)

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