Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AFR STUDY > B777 Limitations > Flashcards

B777 Limitations Flashcards

Memorize B772/773/77F Limitations

1
Q

B777-200ER (Rounded) Maximum Weights ?

A

Maximum Taxi Weight 298.0 t
Maximum Takeoff Weight 297.6 t
Maximum Landing Weight 208.6 t
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight 195.0 t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

B777-300ER (Rounded) Maximum Weights ?

A

Maximum Taxi Weight 342.0 t / 345.4 t
Maximum Takeoff Weight 341.1 t / 344.5 t
Maximum Landing Weight 251.3 t
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight 237.7 t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

B777F (Rounded) Maximum Weights ?

A

Maximum Taxi Weight 348.4 t
Maximum Takeoff Weight 347.5 t
Maximum Landing Weight 260.8 t
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight 248.1 t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component ?

A

15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude ?

A

43,100 feet pressure altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Minimum Takeoff Runway Width ?

A

45 m (Narrower runway may be authorized by OA.FB Boeing Long Haul Fleet Manager.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Minimum Landing Runway Width ?

A

40 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude ?

A

B772 & B773 8,400 feet

B77F 9,800 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum field elevation (B77F only) ?

A

9,650 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Limitation regarding Door Mounted Power Assists and Escape Slides ?

A

Main door emergency power assists and evacuation slide systems must be armed with the mode select handle in the ARMED position prior to taxi, takeoff and landing whenever passengers/supernumeraries are carried.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Limitation regarding Flight Deck Security Door ?

A

Verify that an operational check of the Flight Deck Access System has been accomplished according to approved procedures once each flight day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Limitation regarding Lower Crew Rest Compartment ?

A

The lower crew rest compartment may not be occupied, and the main entry hatch must be closed during taxi, takeoff, or landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Limitation regarding HF ?

A

Do not operate HF radios during refueling operations. .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Radar Limitations on the ground ?

A

Avoid weather radar operation in a hangar or within 50 feet (15.25 meters) of fueling operations or a fuel spill.

Avoid weather radar operation when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome.

Note: The hangar recommendation does not apply to the weather radar test mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Limitation regarding Hand Microphone ?

A

Remove any power cords from flight deck PC power outlets before using a hand microphone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Severe Turbulent Air Penetration Speed ?

A

Below 25000 feet : 270 kts
At or above 25000 feet : 280 kts or M.82 whichever is lower.
Maintain a Minimum Speed of 15 kts above the MMS at ALL ALTITUDES when airspeed is below M.82 !

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Contaminated Runway Definition ?

A

Runway of which more than 25% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:

  • Surface water, or slush, or loose snow, or wet snow more than 3 mm (0,125 in) deep
  • Compacted snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up.
  • Ice, including wet ice.

Note: All contaminants, except compacted snow and ice, with depth less than 3mm (0.125in) is considered as wet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Standing Water Definition ?

A

Standing water is caused by heavy rainfall and/or insufficient runway drainage with a surface water depth of more than 3 mm (0.125 in).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Slush Definition ?

A

Mixing more or less liquid which is formed by water and ice when melting. A recent dry snowfall on slush is equivalent to slush.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dry Snow Definition ?

A

Snow that can be blown if loose, or if compacted by hand, will fall apart again upon release. It is not a melting snow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Compacted Snow Definition ?

A

Snow that has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up. It is not a melting snow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Wet Snow Definition ?

A

Snow that has grains coated with liquid water, which bonds the mass together, but has no excess water in the pore space. A well-compacted, solid, snowball can be made, but water will not squeeze out.
* Wet Snow is not available in OPT. In case of Wet Snow use Slush in OPT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ice Definition ?

A

Runway is considered as icy when the runway surface is covered with no melting ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Taxi, Takeoff & Landing Mu (Friction Coefficient) Limitation ?

A

Mu 0.2 & below is prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Takeoff & Landing on Wet or Contaminated Runway Depth Conditions Restrictions ?

A

Standing water>12.7mm (0.5inch) TO&LDG forbidden
Slush, wet snow>12.7mm (0.5inch) TO&LDG forbidden
Dry snow>101.6mm(4inch) TO&LDG forbidden
Ice Melting or Wet Ice: NO DEPTH TO&LDG forbidden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maximum takeoff steady-state crosswind component is limited to ?

A

40 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reduce all takeoff crosswind guidelines by 5 knots if thrust is above ??% N1 at brake release for takeoff roll.

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Landing Crosswind Limitations (Gust Included)

A 
RCC 6 = 45kts
RCC 5/BA GOOD =40kts
RCC 4/BA GOOD to MEDUIM =35kts
RCC 3/BA MEDIUM =25kts
RCC 2/BA MEDIUM to POOR =17kts
RCC 1/BA POOR=15kts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Reduce landing crosswind guidelines by 5 knots on wet or contaminated runways whenever ??? is used.

A

Asymmetric reverse thrust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Landing on untreated ice or snow should only be attempted when ??? is present.

A

No melting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sideslip only (zero crab) landings are not recommended with crosswind components in excess of ?

A

28 knots.

This recommendation ensures adequate ground clearance and is based on maintaining adequate control margin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Approved tire limitation ?

A

Capable of a maximum of 204 kts takeoff speed must be installed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RVSM Operations CPT or F/O altimeter limitation ?

A

Prior to takeoff the maximum allowable difference between Captain’s or First Officer’s altitude display and field elevation is 75 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

RVSM Operations Standby altimeter limitation ?

A

The Standby altimeter does not meet altimeter accuracy requirements of RVSM airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

RVSM Operations Gear limitation ?

A

RVSM operations are prohibited when conducting landing gear extended operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

RVSM Operations Required Equipment ?

A

*2 Static Air Data Modules (for the independent altitude measurement) and the following EICAS messages are not displayed :
[AIR DATA SYS and/or SGL SOURCE AIR DATA]
*2 PFD (for altitude indications)
*1 AP (for automatic altitude-control)
*1 XPDR (with altitude reporting system)
*1 WES (for altitude alerting system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Demonstrated RNP Capability LNAV with Autopilot Engaged ?

A

FMC GPS Operational 0.11 NM

FMC GPS Not Operational 0.28 NM

38
Q

Demonstrated RNP Capability LNAV with Flight Director ?

A

FMC GPS Operational 0.11 NM

FMC GPS Not Operational 0.28 NM

39
Q

Demonstrated RNP Capability Manual Flight with MAP on the ND (only) ?

A

FMC GPS Operational 0.80 NM

FMC GPS Not Operational 1.00 NM

40
Q

RNAV 10 Required Equipment ?

A 
1 GPS
1 FMC
2 CDU
1 AFDC
1 FD
1 ADIRU

if NAT
1 HF
TCAS
SATCOM

41
Q

RNAV 10 Sensor ?

A

In Inertial, after 5 hours from last update, consider ANP greater then 10 NM

42
Q

RNAV 5 Required Equipment ?

A 
1 GPS
1 FMC
1 CDU
2 ND Map Mode on Both Sides
1 AFDC
1 FD
1 ADIRU
43
Q

RNAV 5 Sensor ?

A

GPS with at least 22 satellites required or either DME-DME or VOR-DME to update position.

44
Q

RNAV 2 Required Equipment ?

A 
1 GPS
1 FMC
1 CDU
2 ND Map Mode on Both Sides
1 AFDC
1 FD
1 ADIRU
45
Q

RNAV 2 Sensor ?

A

GPS with at least 22 satellites required or DME-DME to update position.

46
Q

RNAV 1 Required Equipment ?

A 
1 GPS
1 FMC
1 CDU
2 ND Map Mode on Both Sides
1 AFDC
1 FD
1 ADIRU
47
Q

RNAV 1 Sensor ?

A

GPS with at least 23 satellites required or DME-DME to update position.

48
Q

RNP Operations EICAS Message Requirements ?

A

The NAV UNABLE RNP or NAV ADIRU INERTIAL EICAS message must not be displayed prior to RNP operations.

49
Q

RNP 4 Required Equipment ?

A 
2 GPS
2 FMC
2 CDU
1 AFDC
1 FD
1 ADIRU
1 HF

if NAT
TCAS
SATCOM DATALINK

50
Q

RNP 4 Sensor ?

A

GPS with at least 22 satellites required to update position

51
Q

RNP 1 & 2 Required Equipment ?

A 
2 GPS
2 FMC
2 CDU
2 ND Map Mode on Both Sides
1 AFDC
1 FD
1 ADIRU
1 HF
52
Q

RNP 1 & 2 Sensor ?

A

GPS with at least 23 satellites required to update position

53
Q

RNP APCH (0.3) Required Equipment ?

A 
2 GPS
2 FMC
2 CDU
2 ND Map Mode on Both Sides
1 AFDC
1 FD
1 ADIRU
54
Q

RNP APCH (0.3) Sensor ?

A

GPS with at least 24 satellites required to update position

55
Q

RNP AR (<=0.3) Required Equipment ?

A 
2 GPS (L&amp;R)
2 FMC (L&amp;R)
2 MFD
2 AFDS with 2 FD
ADIRU+SAARU with Air Data Reference Function
2 RA
EGPWS
Current Navigation DB
56
Q

RNP AR (<=0.3) Sensor ?

A

At least 24 satellites and RAIM prediction is necessary prior to begin the approach

57
Q

PBCS Performance Requirements (B773 & B777F) ?

A

Required Communication Performance RCP 240

Required Surveillance Performance RSP 180

58
Q

PBCS Required Equipment (B773 & B777F) ?

A 
2 GPS
2 FMC
2 CDU
ADIRU
SATCOM DATALINK
Current Navigation DB

if NAT
CPDLC/ADS-C
TCAS

59
Q

Most Conservative Oxygen Requirement for Dispatch (50*) ?

A

CREW 1102 PSI

PAX 1770 PSI

60
Q

A/P Minimum Engagement Altitude ?

A

The autopilot must not be engaged below a minimum engage altitude of 200 feet AGL after takeoff
B77F Only : Do not use the autopilot below 100 feet radio altitude at airport field elevations above 8,500 feet.

61
Q

A/P Disengagement Requirement ?

A

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below 200 feet AGL

62
Q

Automatic Landing Max Allowable Wind Speeds ?

A

HW 25 kts
CW 25 kts
TW 15 kts

63
Q

Automatic Landing Max & Min G/S Angle ?

A

3.25* Max & 2.5* Min

64
Q

Automatic Landing Available Flaps ?

A

Automatic landings can be made using flaps 20 or 30, with both engines operative or one engine inoperative

65
Q

Automatic Landing ASA Requirement ?

A

The autopilot flight director system (AFDS) autoland status annunciation must display LAND 2 or LAND 3

66
Q

Automatic Landing Required Equipment ?

A

Equipment / CAT2&CAT3A / CAT3B
ASA 1 2
AP DISC SW 1 CAPT 2
ATHL* 0 1
(*ON 1 ENG w 2 ATHL DISC SW OPR!)

67
Q

Automatic Landing EICAS Message Requirement ?

A

SLATS DRIVE
SINGLE SOURCE ILS
SINGLE SOURCE RAD ALT
SINGLE SOURCE DISPLAY

68
Q

FLCH Limitation ?

A

Do not use FLCH on Final Approach Below 1000 ft AFE

69
Q

Engine Limit Display Markings ?

A

Maximum and Minimum Limits Are RED

Caution Limit are Amber

70
Q

Engine Oil Quantity Requirement ?

A

If the airplane will fly for 6 or more flight hours on the next flight, the engine oil tanks must be FULLY filled.
(For information, at full capacity at least 20 liters will be displayed on the EICAS.)
If the airplane will fly for less than 6 flight hours on the next flight, the minimum engine oil level is 17 liters on the EICAS display.

71
Q

Reverse Thrust Limitation ?

A

Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is prohibited.
Backing the airplane with use of reverse thrust is prohibited.

72
Q

Wind and Thrust Level Limitation (300ER only) ?

A

For ground operation (exclusive of takeoff) in tailwinds and crosswinds between 30 and 45 knots, engine power should be limited to a maximum of 70% N1. Avoid thrust levels above that required for normal taxi operation in all tailwinds and crosswinds greater than 45 knots.

73
Q

APU Electric Starter Motor & Air Turbine Starter Limitation ?

A

3 starts attempts in a 60 minute period each. Wait 1 minute minimum btw each start attempts.

74
Q

Flight Controls VA Limitation ?

A

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g. large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below VA.

75
Q

Flaps Altitude Limitation ?

A

The maximum altitude with flaps extended is 20,000 feet.

76
Q

VFEs 200ER ?

A 
200 ER        
1-255 kts
5-235 kts
15-215 kts
20-195 kts
25-185 kts
30-170kts
77
Q

VFEs 300ER ?

A 
300 ER &amp; F       
1-265 kts
5-245 kts
15-230 kts
20-225 kts
25-200 kts
30-180kts
78
Q

Ground Maneuver Camera System Limitation ?

A

The ground maneuver cameras should not be used during takeoff, approach, and landing.

79
Q

ADIRU Alignment Limitation ?

A

ADIRU alignment must not be attempted at latitudes greater than 78*14.75 minutes.

80
Q

Fuel Loading Limitation ?

A

Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if center tank fuel is loaded.
The center tank may contain up to 1360 kgs (3000 lbs) of fuel with less than full main tanks provided center tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight, and center of gravity limits are observed.

81
Q

Fuel Density Bracket ?

A

Must Remain btw 0.73 & 0.85

82
Q

Fuel Imbalance Limitation ?

A

Fuel imbalance between main tanks for taxi, takeoff and landing must not exceed:

  • 1360 kg (3000 lbs) when total main tank fuel exceeds 51,710 kg (777-200 ER) or 55,792 kg (777-300ER or 777F)
  • 2041 kg (5000 lbs) when total main tank fuel is less than or equal to 22,680 kg (777-200 ER) or 40,823 kg (777-300ER or 777F)

(A linear interpolation between 2041 kg and 1360 kg when main tank fuel is between the main tank fuel limits specified above for the particular 777 model.)

83
Q

Authorized Fuels & Fuel Freezing Point ?

A

Jet A (-40), Jet A-1 (-47), JP-5 (-46), JP-8 (-47).

84
Q

Forbidden fuels ?

A

JP-4, Jet B.

85
Q

Maximum Tank Fuel Temperature ?

A

The maximum tank fuel temperature is 49 degrees C.

86
Q

Minimum Tank Fuel Temperature ?

A

Prior to takeoff Tank fuel temperature must not be less than -40 degrees C or 3 degrees C above the fuel freezing point, whichever is higher.
In-flight tank fuel temperature must be maintained at least 3 degrees C above the freezing point of the fuel being used.

87
Q

Fuel System Icing Inhibitor Effect ?

A

The use of Fuel System Icing Inhibitor additives does not change the minimum fuel tank temperature limit.

88
Q

GPWS Limitation ?

A

Do not use the terrain display for navigation.
The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within 15 NM of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.
All airports and runways installed in the FMC database are contained in the installed GPWS database.

89
Q

TCAS Limitation ?

A

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS II resolution advisory.

90
Q

Weather Radar Total Loss Limitation ?

A

In case of the total loss of the weather radars in-flight, the pilots must obtain the meteorological conditions of the flown-over airfields.
*Meteorological forecasts must ensure that the rest of the flight is flown in VMC.
*The planned route must be cleared of any convective weather or any potentially dangerous precipitation
*Do not cross the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
*The remaining flight time must not exceed:
6 hours for a day flight
3 hours for a night flight

AFR STUDY (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions