Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

B747-400 SKV > B747-400 SKV > Flashcards

B747-400 SKV Flashcards

1
Q

What turns on the emergency lighting system?

AOM 1-51

A

Loss of DC power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fully charged emergency lighting batteries should provide light for how long?
AOM 1-51

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the wingspan of the B747-400?

AOM 1-1

A

211 feet 5 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When are the landing lights at their max intensity?

AOM 1-28

A

Landing Gear Down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of the flight deck access lights?

AOM 1-25

A

Illuminates exit or entry path to or from the flight deck when Ground Handling Bus is powered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do NO SMOKING / FASTEN SEATBELT signs automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?
AOM 1-49

A

When Supernumerary Oxygen is on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the advantage of selecting LWR on the beacon light switch?

A

Won’t flash during low visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the turning radius with body steering armed?

AOM 1-2

A

153 (wing clearance radius is 170 ft)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the emergency equipment located on the BCFs?

AOM 1-65

A

Bulkhead just forward of Left Upper Deck Door.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The escape rope at door L1 is located where?

AOM 1-66

A

Above the door.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bleed air is used in what systems?

AOM 2-34

A 
PAWS HAD SALT
Pressurization 
Anti-Ice
Water (potable)
Smoke detection (cargo)
Hydraulic reservoir pre-pressure 
Air conditioning 
Demand hydraulic pumps
Starter
Aft cargo heat
Leading edge flaps
Thrust reversers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? Up to what altitude?
AOM 7-36

A

Yes, for one pack up to 15,000 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Turning an Engine Bleed air switch off does what?

AOM 2-13

A

Closes the engine bleed air valve, PRV, and HP bleed valve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If the switch is OFF is nacelle anti-icing available for that engine?
AOM 2-35

A

Yes. (Except when the PRV has failed closed, or the PRV has been closed due to a bleed air overheat, or the start valve is not closed, or the HP bleed valve is failed open.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What will illuminate the SYS Fault light?

AOM 2-12

A

Bleed air overheat, or bleed air over pressure, or HP bleed valve open when commanded closed, PRV open when commanded closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

With the light SYS FAULT illuminated, is reversing available on landing?
AOM 2-35

A

Not if light is on due to an overheat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What unit in the bleed air system reduces bleed air temperature?
(AOM 2-34)

A

Fan Air Pre-Cooler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

With a BLD 1,2,3,4 OVHT/PRV, what systems are no longer available?
QRH 2-3

A

Nacelle Anti-Ice

Reverse Thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

APU bleed air is supplied to which duct?

AOM 2-35

A

Center section of the bleed air duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is duct pressure displayed?

AOM 2-15

A

Primary EICAS and ECS Synoptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What areas receive anti-ice protection?

AOM 3-5

A

Engine nacelles
Wings
Forward windshields
Probe heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Under what weather conditions is NAC anti-ice required to be on?
AOM SP-107

A

When the OAT on the and for takeoff, or TAT in flight is 10C (50F) or below, and visible moisture is present such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals.

On ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by those engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are TAT probes heated? When?

AOM 3-9

A

Yes. Inflight only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What indications do we have that NAC anti-ice is on? Wing?

AOM 3-6,7

A

NAI/WAI icon displayed on Primary EICAS and ECS page.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What section of the wing is anti-iced?

AOM 3-7

A

Leading edge with LE flaps retracted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

At flaps 5, what portion of the leading edge is being de-iced with WAI on?
AOM 3-7

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which windows are provided anti-ice and anti-fogging protection?
AOM 3-9

A

Forward windshields (side windows are electrically heated for anti-fog only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is anti-fogging available to the windows?

AOM 3-9

A

When WSHLD AIR switches (on the auxiliary panels) are turned on, air for anti-fogging is drawn from the flight deck conditioned air supply and directed across the windshields.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do we reset a windshield heat controller fault?

AOM 3-9

A

Turn the window heat switches off for 10 seconds then back on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where is the windshield washer fluid reservoir located?

AOM 3-9

A

Behind the door in the book storage area on the Captain’s side panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the purpose of the OBS Audio System switch on the overhead panel?
AOM 5-8

A

Allows Captain or FO to use Observer’s audio panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When illuminated, what does the Offside Tuning light indicate?
AOM 5-21

A

a. The panel is selected to a radio normally associated with another radio tuning panel.
b. A comm radio not normally associated with that radio tuning panel has been selected and may be tuned by another radio tuning panel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many VHF radios are installed?

AOM 5-22

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off?
AOM 5-2

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can you monitor for an IM signal during a CAT II approach?
AOM 5-2

A

On ACP, select MKR and APP volume knob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How can we tune DATA in the C VHF?

AOM 5-22

A

Dial beyond the frequency range until DATA appears and select transfer switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How is the oxygen mask microphone operation verified during preflight?
NP-32

A

Select FLT on ACP, speaker on, select Push to Test on O2 panel along with EMER knob, simultaneously push interphone switch on ACP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What should be seen when pushing the cockpit voice recorder test button?
AOM NP-25

A

Push Test switch and observe pulsating indications on meter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many PTT switches are in the cockpit?

AOM 5-21

A

11 (2 on yoke, 2 on glare shield, 3 on ACP, 4 handhelds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Selecting the SERV interphone switch to ON does what?

AOM 5-28

A

Provides voice comm between ground crew stations at various locations around the airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does IDG stand for?

AOM 6-5

A

Integrated Drive Generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many AC power sources are available to the AC?

AOM 6-10

A

8 (2 external, 2 APU generators, 4 IDGs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What turns on an IDG DRIVE light?

AOM 6-6

A

High oil temp
Low oil pressure
GCB open due to uncorrectable freq fault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the purpose of the utility buses?

AOM 6-13

A

Each utility bus is controlled by an electrical load control unit (ELCU) that protects the electrical system from utility bus faults and provides load management through automatic or manual load shedding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What buses are powered with #1&2 external power available but not on?
AOM 6-13,14

A

AC Bus 1 is normal source

Ground handling is alternative source via switch at Door 1L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The APU and Main Standby buses are normally powered from which bus(es)?
AOM 6-14,15

A

AC Bus 3 (APU standby bus is from AC Bus 3 through the captain’s transfer bus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

With the loss of #3 AC Bus, the APU standby bus is powered from which source?
AOM 6-15

A

AC Bus 1 (Again, through the captain’s transfer bus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How can I isolate the #4 DCIR?

AOM 6-20

A

Deselect #4 Bus Tie switch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What will power the cargo bus with #2 external available and #2 APU gen available?
AOM 6-14

A

2 Ext power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch?

AOM NP-30

A

16 qts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If EGT limit is exceeded, what is indicated? On takeoff?

AOM 7-25,26

A

When EGT reaches the continuous limit, the indicator turns AMBER
When EGT reaches the Takeoff limit, the indicator turns RED
After an exceedance, the box around the temperature remains RED
After Takeoff (TO/GA activation), the AMBER continuous limitation is inhibited for 5 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The amber line on the N1 indicator represents what?

AOM 7-26

A

Max N1 (EEC Overboost Protection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What valves are controlled by the fuel control switch?

AOM 7-18,33

A

Spar and engine fuel valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?

AOM 7-32

A

With loss of AC power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When will continuous ignition come on automatically?

AOM 7-32

A

Nacelle anti-ice selected on
Flaps out of UP
N2 below 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What protections are provided by the EEC?

AOM 7-28

A

Overspeed and overboost

57
Q

When is approach idle active? (in flight only)

A

Nacelle anti-ice on
Flaps in landing position
Continuous ignition on

58
Q

With the APU running, turning off the APU selector does what?
AOM 7-22

A

Closes APU bleed air isolation valve
Initiates normal shutdown
Resets auto shutdown fault logic except when shutdown due to APU bleed duct leak

59
Q

What are the 5 thrust references selectable from the CDU?

AOM 7-2

A

TO, CLB, CRZ, CON, GA

60
Q

How many fire bottles are on the BCF?

AOM 8-10,11

A

11

61
Q

After a fire test pass, what 2 (fire detection integrity) systems are no longer being monitored by the AC?
AOM 8-12

A

Wheel well loop and bleed duct leak detector loop

62
Q

With the engine fuel control switch in run, can the fire switch be pulled?
AOM 8-1

A

No (They can be pulled if there is a fire signal, or they are unlocked)

63
Q

Pulling the #1 ENGINE FIRE SWITCH does what?

AOM 8-1

A 
Trips engine generator
Closes engine and spar fuel valves
Closes bleed air valves
Close hyd. SOV
Depressurizes engine driven hydraulic pump
Arms both related fire extinguisher
64
Q

With a main cargo fire, arming the main deck fire switch does what?
AOM 8-4

A
  • Enable main deck fire suppression
  • Turns off two packs
  • Configure equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
  • Closes master trim air valve
65
Q

With a lower forward cargo fire, pressing the cargo fire discharge switch does what? How many minutes of protection is provided?
AOM 8-11

A

Discharges two bottles, then after 30 minutes or upon landing, meter flows other 4 bottles.
Gives 334 minutes of protection

66
Q

Are the engine fire loops an AND or OR logic system? AOM 8-8

A

AND

67
Q

What fire protection do we have in the wheel well?

AOM 8-10

A

None

68
Q

How many overheat loops are installed for the APU?

AOM 8-9

A

None

69
Q

Where is the APU ground control panel located?

AOM 8-7

A

Right body gear wheel well

70
Q

The stabilizer is powered from what hydraulic systems?

AOM 9-15

A

2 & 3

71
Q

What is the AUTO position of the stab trim cutout switch for?
AOM 9-16

A

Allows auto cutout of respective system if unscheduled stab trim is detected.

72
Q

When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited?
AOM 9-17

A

Multiple auto pilots engaged

73
Q

When do the outboard ailerons unlock?

AOM 9-18

A

Flaps out of up or low airspeed below 232 KIAS ( They lock when flaps are up and speed is greater than 238 KIAS

74
Q

With the speed brake in arm, when do the speed brakes deploy on landing? Not armed?
AOM 9-22

A

Thrust levers 1 and 3 near closed and main gear touch down

Thrust levers 1 and 3 closed and main gear touch down and 2 or 4 reverse levers pulled up to idle detent

75
Q

What flap protection is provided in secondary mode?

AOM 9-24

A

Asymmetry only

76
Q

What will occur if the the trailing edge flap group is in the secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available?
AOM 9-24

A

The group remains in secondary mode until fully retracted

77
Q

In the alternate control mode, how is flap extension sequenced?
AOM 9-25

A

Extend all at the same time

78
Q

On landing, why does the flap position indicator change from green to magenta?
AOM 9-25

A

Due to inboard and mid-span LE flaps retract when reverse thrust is commanded

79
Q

What is the max altitude for flap extension?

AOM L-16

A

FL200

80
Q

When is the pitch limit indicator displayed on the PFD and what is its purpose?
AOM 10-5

A

Flaps out of up and it is the stick shaker activation point

81
Q

What is the input source/s for the command speed display on the PFD?
AOM 10-2

A

Airspeed set in the MCP IAS/Mach window

FMC computed speed when window is blank

82
Q

What identifies the active waypoint on the ND?

AOM 10-64

A

It is named in the top right corner of the screen

83
Q

The altitude range arc (green arc) displays what information?
AOM 10-69

A

Position where MCP altitude will be reached based on vertical and ground speed

84
Q

The WXR, STA, WPT, APRT, DATA, POS, TERR switches on the EFIS control panel display what information when pushed (each individually)?

A

WXR - powers radar transceivers selected on wx radar control panel
STA - displays high/low VORs when ND range is in 40 nm or less and high VORs when ND range is over 40 nm
WPT - In MAP and MAP CTR modes displays waypoints when ND range selector 40 nm or less
ARPT - In MAP and MAP CTR modes displays airports in all ranges that have runways at least 6000’
DATA - In PLAN, MAP, and MAP CTR modes displays FMC ETA altitude at each waypoint and altitude constraints at each waypoint
POS - In MAP/MAP CTR modes displays where the GPSs, IRUs, and tuned VORs think you are located. Also tells you what your most accurate navigation source is. When collocated DME data is received, tick mark display at DME distance. Radial extends to edge of display if no valid DME data received.
TERR - Activates GPWS look-ahead terrain mode

85
Q

If the Captain’s INBD and LWR EICAS CRT is inoperative, how and where could the HYD synoptic information be displayed?
AOM 10-32

A

On FO’s INBD CRT

86
Q

In what ND mode will weather radar not be displayed?

AOM 10-29

A

PLAN, VOR, CTR, APPR CTR

87
Q

What indicates a route modification on the ND?

AOM 10-69

A

A white dashed line

88
Q

The standby horizon is powered from what source?

AOM 10-51

A

Main battery bus

89
Q

When will the GS and LOC indicators/scales display and when will they fill to a solid magenta?
AOM 10-9,10

A

Both indicators display when frequency is tuned and fills in solid when within 2 1/3 dots from the center

90
Q

What is the maximum amount of fuel we can carry in pounds with a fuel density of 6.7 pounds per gallon?
AOM 12-9

A

359,414 lbs

91
Q

With the A/C completely full of fuel, discuss the different fuel configurations beginning with engine start through landing.

A

a. All boost pump switches are on. OVRD/JETT pumps 2&3 are armed. CWT feeds all engines. (center to all)
b. When flaps reach 10 degrees xfeed valves 2&3 close (center to 1&4, inboard to engine)
c. After takeoff when the flaps are up, crossfeed valves are commanded open (center to all)
d. In climb, if FUEL LO CTR L/R is displayed (tank quantity is approx. 7,000 lbs) select CWT pumps to off
e. In cruise when FUEL OVD CTR L/R is displayed and tank quantity is 4000 lbs or more, CWT pumps should be selected back on
f. When FUEL LOW CTR is displayed and CWT is less than 3000 lbs pumps should be selected off. Ovrd/Jett pumps 2&3 activate when CWT pumps are selected off.
g. With approx. 40,200 lbs in main tanks 2&3 the reserve tank transfer valves open allowing fuel to gravity transfer to main tanks 2&3 and a scavenge pump activates in the CWT and scavenges fuel to main tank 2.
h. When all tanks are equal in quantity (approx. 29,000) FUEL TANK/ENG is displayed. Override/Jet pumps should be selected off and crossfeed valves 1&4 closed. All main pumps are now feeding respective engines. (tank to engine)

92
Q

How do we, and what happens when, we jettison fuel?

A

a. Jettison is initiated by rotating jettison selector knob to A or B. When A or B is selected fuel temp is replaced by “To Remain”
b. If a failure occurs in one channel you must select the other channel
c. Jettison time to dump is displayed on fuel synoptic.
d. Allow 90 sec. for system to calculate dump time
e. Rotating fuel to remain knob decreases or increases quantity
f. Pushing either jettison nozzle valve switch on activates all ovrd/jett pumps in the tanks containing fuel (pump switches be on)
g. Jettison control system controls fuel balancing between tanks 2&3
h. If balancing is required ovrd/jett pumps in low tank deactivate until tanks are balanced
i. Reserve transfer valves open when main tanks 2 or 3 qty is decreased to 40,000 lbs. Fuel transfers from reserve tanks 2&3 to respective main tanks
j. When either main tank 2 or 3 qty decreases to 20,000 lbs during jettison both main tank 1&4 transfer valves open. Jettison terminates when fuel too remain has been reached, Fuel to Remain qty changes color from magenta to white and flashes for 5 seconds. Jettison control system deactivates all operating pumps

93
Q

What is the difference between total fuel and calculated fuel? When are the values different?
AOM 11-131

A

a. Total fuel is the fuel onboard as indicated by the fuel qty system
b. Calculated Fuel = Before Start Total Fuel - fuel burned as measured by fuel flow signal rate
c. Fuel Leak

94
Q

Prior to engine start, with usable fuel in the CWT, after fuel pump configuration are 2&3 OVRD/JETT on or armed?
AOM 12-14

A

Armed

95
Q

What is the purpose of the #1&4 transfer valves?

AOM 12-14

A

a. Fuel gravity transfers from outboard to inboard main tank to approx. 7,000 lbs remaining in each outboard main tank
b. During fuel jettison, the valves open when either main tank 2 or 3 decrease to 20,000 lbs
c. Valves may be opened manually using fuel transfer main 1&4 switch on overhead panel

96
Q

Does the flow bar disappear in the cross feed # 2&3 valve switches when the flaps are selected to the takeoff position?
AOM 12-1

A

No

97
Q

After positioning the fuel jettison selector to A or B, where does the fuel jettison value display?
AOM 12-16

A

Replace fuel temp on Primary EICAS

98
Q

Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate.

AOM 12-15

A

Until the pressure switch for the fuel scavenge pump senses low pressure, or the total time of pump operation exceeds 120 minutes

99
Q

What 3 things will illuminate the System Fault light?

AOM 13-1

A

a. Low hydraulic system pressure
b. Low reservoir quantity
c. Excessive hydraulic fluid temperature

100
Q

What will turn on the #4 demand pump if the switch is in auto?
AOM 13-1

A

a. Engine pump output pressure is low
b. #4 fuel control switch in CUTOFF
c. Flaps are in transit
d. Flaps out of up in flight

101
Q

0n decent into KLAX, the # 4 hydraulic quantity goes to 0. What systems will be affected for the approach and landing?
QHR 13-9

A

a. Right outboard elevator
b. Outboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation
c. 2 inboard spoiler panels on each wing
d. Wing gear hydraulic extension and retraction
e. Normal brake source
f. Autobrake

R - right outboard elevator
A - autobrakes
W - wing gear

T - two inboard spoilers
O - outboard trailing edge flaps
N - normal brakes

102
Q

With the loss of #1 hyd. qty., what systems will be affected for the approach and landing?
QRH 13-8

A

a. Center autopilot
b. Left outboard elevator
c. Inboard training edge flap hydraulic operation
d. Nose and body gear hydraulic extension and retraction
e. Nose and body gear steering
f. System 1 alternate brake source

I - inboard trailing edge flap
C - center autopilot
O - outboard left elevator
N - nose and body gear actuation

A - alt. brakes
S - steering (nose and body gear)

103
Q

With the loss of systems 2&3, why is there a speed additive for the approach?
QRH 13-11

A

To alleviate excessive elevator control load at landing speed. (Speed additive for inop stab trim is applied automatically in the Aerodata solution for 2 hydraulic systems inoperative).

104
Q

On landing the Brake Source light illuminates, what does that mean?
AOM 14-6

A

Active brake hydraulic sources (hydraulic systems 4, 1, 2) have low pressure
(Basically you have no brakes)

105
Q

The demand pumps are powered how?

AOM 13-5

A

a. 1&4 are pneumatic

b. 2&3 are electric

106
Q

The Aux pump(s) is powered from which source?

AOM 6-13

A

Ground Handling Bus

107
Q

With the #4 Aux pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be on our off?
(AOM 13-1)

A

Off

108
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? Where do you read that value?
AOM NP-30

A

0.80 is desired minimum quantity. No RF on the STAT page or the hydraulic synoptic

109
Q

How many tires do we have and what is their numerical order?

AOM 14-11

A

18

110
Q

Selecting value 3 on the Auto Brake selector does what? From which source does the auto brake system receive deceleration inputs?
AOM 14-14

A

a. Maintains the selected airplane deceleration rate
b. Captain’s IRU (Automaker pressure is reduced as other controls, such as thrust reversers and spoilers, contribute to total deceleration. The system provide braking to a complete stop, or until disarmed)

111
Q

What does EICAS message GEAR TILT mean?

AOM 14-9

A

Main gear trucks not in full tilt position

112
Q

How do we alternately extend the gear? Where are the switches located?
AOM 14-1

A

Selection of the Alternate Nose/Body and Wing Gear. Switches located on the Landing Gear Panel

113
Q

You have a wheel well fire, what speed should you be at before extending the gear?
QRH 8-8

A

270 kts/M0.82

114
Q

On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? What kind of braking is provided?
AOM 14-14

A

85 kts, max braking

115
Q

What does a white hashed box displayed on the (expanded) gear position indicator indicate?
AOM 14-7

A

Related landing gear in transit

116
Q

How long does the gear up indication remain in the EICAS?

AOM 14-11

A

10 sec

117
Q

At what speed does the body gear steering disarm?

AOM 14-12

A

20 kts

118
Q

What does the brake torque limiting system do?

AOM 14-13

A

The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to landing gear. When excessive torque is detected, a signal is sent to the antiskid valve to release brake pressure to that wheel

119
Q

What are the 3 levels of EICAS alerting?

AOM 15-17

A

Warning, caution, advisory

120
Q

Can a Warning EICAS message be cancelled?

AOM 15-18

A

No

121
Q

When are the fire bell and master warning lights inhibited?

AOM 15-49

A

V1 until 400 ft RA or 25 sec after V1 whichever occurs first

122
Q

What items will activate the Takeoff Configuration Warning?

AOM 15-27

A

Flaps not in takeoff position, or body gear not centered, or parking brake set, or speed brake lever not in DN detent, or stabilizer trim not in takeoff range, when airplane is on the ground, and FUEL CONTROL switches are in RUN position, and engine 2 or 3 thrust is in the takeoff range, and airspeed is less than V1

123
Q

When is the (Reactive) windshear alert system active?

AOM 15-41

A

Vr - 1,500 ft
Predictive windshear - New warning alerts are inhibited on the ground above 100 KIAS until reaching until reaching 50’ AGL. New caution alerts are inhibited from 80 KIAS until reaching 400’ AGL. PWS alerts that occurred prior to the inhibit range are not removed. During approach and landing, new caution alerts are inhibited below 50’ AGL. Existing PWS alerts that occurred prior to the inhibit range are not removed. All caution and warning alerts are inhibited above 1200’ AGL

124
Q

In what phase of flight will you get a GPWS “Sink Rate” warning?
AOM 15-37

A

Excessive descent rate during approach

125
Q

What is the purpose of the Event Record switch? How many events can be recorded?
AOM 15-51

A

Pushing the EICAS EVENT RCD switch records currently displayed engine indications and additional EICAS maintenance information. Up to 5 events may be recorded by the first five pushes ( The system also records out of limits parameters and related conditions automatically when a system parameter is exceeded)

126
Q

What is a status message?

AOM 15-18

A

All EICAS status messages are listed in the Dispatch Deviation Guide (DDG) and provide a cross reference to the MEL for dispatch capability

127
Q

What does the TCAS alert “Traffic, Traffic” mean?

AOM 15-30

A

A TA is a prediction another aircraft will enter the conflict airspace in 25 to 45 seconds

128
Q

What switch turns on TCAS advisories on the ND?

AOM 10-29

A

TFC button on EFIS control panel

129
Q

What is the max wind allowed when operating the main cargo door?
AOM L-2

A

40 kts (65 kts when open)

130
Q

What is the max ZFW of the BCFs?

AOM L-7

A

610,000 lbs

131
Q

What is the max tailwind for takeoff and landing?

AOM L-9

A

15 kts

132
Q

Max takeoff crosswind component for a dry runway? Landing?

AOM L-9

A

40/36 kts

133
Q

Max depth of slush for landing?

AOM L-10

A

0.5”

134
Q

What is the max landing weight of the ERF?

AOM L-7

A

653,000 lbs

135
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen dispatch pressure?

AOM L-21

A

1400 psi (Walkarounds are 1200 psi)

136
Q

What is the minimum TCH?

AOM L-15

A

40’

137
Q

Max N1?

AOM L-23

A

117.5% (max N2 is 112.5%)

138
Q

Max engine start EGT?

AOM L-23

A

750C

B747-400 SKV (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions