Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

GCSE BIOLOGY B4-6 > B6.3 > Flashcards

B6.3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
GCSE Religious Studies - Eduqas Route A flashcards GCSE Religious Studies - Eduqas Route B flashcards GCSE Religious Studies - Edexcel Route B flashcards GCSE Religious Studies - Edexcel Route A flashcards GCSE Geography - AQA flashcards AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is a disease?

A

a condition which is caused by any pert of the body not functioning properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the two main categories of disease?

A

communicable and non communicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are communicable diseases?

A

diseases which can be spread between organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the majority of communicable diseases spread by?

A

microorganisms which can cause disease known as pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a pathogen?

A

a disease causing microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

give an example of a fungal infection in plants

A

powdery mildew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

give an example of a fungal infection in animals

A

athletes foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

give an example of bacterial infection in plants

A

crown gall disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

give an example of a bacterial infection in animals

A

tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

give an example of a viral infection in plants

A

tobacco mosaic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

give an example of a viral infection in animals

A

influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

give an example of a protozoa infection in plants

A

coffee phloem necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

give an example of a protozoa infection in animals

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are non-communicable diseases?

A

diseases which cant be spread between organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

give 4 causes of non-communicable diseases

A

poor diet, obesity, inheriting genetic disorder, body processes not operating correclty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what can poor diet cause?

A

a diet without enough fresh fruit/ vegetables can cause vitamin and mineral deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what 4 things can obesity lead to?

A

arthritis, type 2 diabetes, heart disease, stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is cystic fibrosis?

A

a genetic disorder passed on through genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what could cells rapidly dividing uncontrollably due to body processes not working properly cause?

A

cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what 2 conditions contain both communicable and none communicable disease?

A

human papilloma virus (HPV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does HPV cause?

A

cell changes that leads to most forms of cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what treatment is there for HPV?

A

routine vaccination in girls in the UK has significantly decreased the number of cases. people with HPV also usually recover without long term problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does HIV cause?

A

AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does HIV do to the person with it?

A

it weakens their immune system making it easier for other microorganisms to cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what happens to most people with HIV?

A

they get infected with tuberculosis causing bacteria and die from it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is high blood pressure caused by?

A

excess salt intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is pneumonia caused by

A

bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is measles caused b?

A

morbillivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is haemophilia caused by?

A

inherited gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the 4 main ways pathogens can spread between animals?

A

cuts in the skin, digestive system, respiratory system, reproductive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what o organisms living closely increase the risk of?

A

increases the risk of disease being passed on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what three ways can pathogens spread between plants?

A

vectors, direct contact, wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are vectors in terms of spreading disease?

A

insects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how could disease in plants be spread through direct contact?

A

direct contact of sap from a healthy to unhealthy plant which can be released from agricultural damage or through animals feeding on the plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how could disease in plants be spread through the wind?

A

fungal spores can be blown between plants and infected seeds can be blown across long distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is incubation period?

A

time between contracting a disease and the disease symptoms showing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what happens in the incubation period?

A

pathogens reproduce rapidly causing cell damage and some produce toxic waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what do toxins produced by microorganisms cause?

A

symptoms such as fever, rashes and sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how do viruses reproduce?

A

they take over a hosts cells to make more viruses and cant replicate on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the five steps to virus reproduction?

A

1) virus attacks cells
2) virus inserts genes
3) “tells” nucleus to copy its genes
4) new viruses are made
5) cell bursts releasing new viruses and destroying the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the incidence of a disease?

A

the number of new cases of a disease per unit of population per time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what do the resulats from studying the incidence of a disease provide?

A

provide scientists with evidence of the effectiveness of the disease treatment and prevention techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the shape of a graph if you were to plot the growth of a bacterial colony

A

exponential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what 8 ways can you prevent disease from spreading?

A

1) covering your mouth/nose when coughing/sneezing
2) not touching infected people/objects
3) using protection in sex
4) not sharing needles
5) washing hands
6) cooking food properly
7) drinking clean water
8) protecting yourself from animal bites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how can you cover your mouth/nose when coughing/sneezing to prevent spreading disease?

A

using a tissue and discarding of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how can not touching infected people/objects prevent the spread of disease?

A

some diseases can be spread through direct and indirect contact eg. chicken pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how can using protection in sex prevent the spread of disease?

A

exchange of bodily fluids can spread disease and protection such as condoms prevent STIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how can not sharing needles prevent spreading disease?

A

HIV and hepatitis can be spread through blood on needles so disposing of them immediately prevents this risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how can washing hands prevent spreading disease spreading?

A

it kills pathogens on your hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how does cooking food properly prevent disease spreading?

A

cooking food can prevent food poisoning as it kills harmful bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how does drinking clean water prevent disease spreading ?

A

untreated water can contain dangerous microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how does protecting yourself from animal bites prevent diseases from spreading?

A

it prevents pathogens from the animal being spread into your bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how are diseases identified? 3 ways

A

1) identifying change to an organisms appearance
2) identifying pathogens in DNA
3) antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are antigens?

A

proteins on the surface of a microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what 7 ways can farmers prevent disease in plants and animals spreading?

A

1) burning diseased plants
2) treating animals with vaccines
3) slaughtering herds with incurable diseases
4) not moving livestock
5) installing chemical dips on farms to kill pathogens on footwear
6) spraying fungicides
7) vaccinating animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is athletes foot caused by?

A

parasitic fungi called dermatophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

why does it usually occur on your feet?

A

they provide the perfect humid environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are the effects of athletes foot?

A

cracked, flaking and itchy skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how can athletes foot be treated?

A

anti fungal cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how is athletes foot spread?

A

it is contagiously spread thorough direct and indirect contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is food poisoning caused by?

A

caused by the growth of microorganisms in food - most serious type by bacteria and their toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are the three main groups of food poisoning ?

A

1) campylobacter
2) salmonella
3) e.coli ( only some types)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what 3 things is campylobacter found in?

A

1) raw meat
2) unpasteurised milk
3) untreated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what 4 things is salmonella found in?

A

1) raw meat
2) eggs
3) raw unwashed vegetables
4) unpasteurised milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what 3 things is e.coli found in?

A

1) raw/under-cooked meat
2) unpasteurised milk
3) dairy products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how can you kill food poisoning bacteria?

A

cooking them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what are the 4 symptoms of food poisoning ?

A

1) stomach pains
2) diarrhoea
3) vomiting
4) fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are the three possible outcomes from food poisoning ?

A

1) quick recovery
2) use of a drip by a doctor
3) death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

how are STIs spread?

A

thorough unprotected sex/ genital contact through bodily fluids or skin on skin contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how can people protect themselves from STIs?

A

avoiding sex/ using condoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what makes it easy for STIs to spread?

A

they initially have no symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what type of infection is chlamydia?

A

bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what type of infection is gonorrhoea?

A

bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what type of infection is genital herpes?

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what type of infection is HIV?

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the 2 symptoms of chlamydia ?

A

1) pain when urinating

2) discharge from penis/ vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what are the 2 symptoms of gonorrhoea?

A

1) burning pain when urinating

2) vaginal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what are the symptoms of genital herpes?

A

painful blisters/sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what are the symptoms of HIV?

A

weakened immune system often resulting in AIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

antibiotis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the treatment for genital herpes?

A

no cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the treatment for HIV?

A

no cure but can be controlled with antiretoviral drugs and lifetime treatment is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is HIV?

A

a virus that invades white blood cells and reproduces inside the cells weakening the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what does HIV do to the immune system?

A

it weakens it as the affected cells that should be producing antibodies can’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is AIDs?

A

the final stage of HIV when the body can no longer fight disease and becomes the target of everyday infections/ cell changes causing cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

how does tobacco mosaic virus effect plants?

A

causes leaves to be mottled/ discoloured by preventing chloroplasts from forming preventing the growth of plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what does tobacco mosaic virus do to the yield of crops?

A

it never kills them but lowers their quality and quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

how can you prevent the spread of plant viral disease?

A

removing infected plants and washing equipment between planting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

how can you prevent re infecting soil with a virus?

A

planting crops that are resistant to tobacco mosaic virus in previously infected areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is an example of bacterial plant disease?

A

a. tumefaciens - a bacteria with causes crown gall disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is a. tumefaciens?

A

a bacterium with a large plasmid (aka tumour inducing plasmid) that contains genes that cause crown gall disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how does a. tumefaciens enter a plant?

A

through a wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what does a. tumefaciens cause to happne in the plant?

A

its plasmid integrates into the hosts genome causing the reproduction of greater amounts of growth chemicals than normal leading to the production of large tumour like galls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what happens as crown gall disease progresses?

A

the galls totally encircle the plants stem/trunk cutting of the flow of sap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what can crown gall disease cause?

A

stunted growth and eventual death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

how can the spread of crown gall disease be prevented? 2 ways

A

1) destroying and removing infected plants

2) avoiding planting other susceptible plants in the area for two years until the bacteria die due to lack of host plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what is an example of fungal plant disease?

A

powdery mildew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is powdery mildew disease?

A

a fungal disease that affects a wide range of plants caused by many species of fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what does powdery mildew disease cause?

A

white powdery spots on the leaves and stems of the plant which reduces growth causing leaves to drop off early reducing the crop yeild.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

how much does powdery mildew reduce crop yield by?

A

10 - 15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

where does powdery mildew grow best?

A

in areas of high humidity and moderate temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

where does powdery mildew survive between seasons?

A

on plant residues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

how does powdery mildew spread?

A

it is released from spores which are spread by the wind to infect the new crop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

how can powdery mildew be controlled?

A

by spraying the crop with fungicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what are the two ways in which plants can protect themselves against communicable diseases?

A

physical and chemical defences

107
Q

what are physical defences in plants?

A

physical barriers in plants that prevent microorganisms entering

108
Q

what are chemical defences in plants?

A

substances secreted by the plant that kill microorganisms

109
Q

what are 2 examples of physical defence in plants?

A

cuticles and cell walls

110
Q

what cells are covered in waxy cuticle? where in the plant are they found?

A

epidermal cells which are in most parts on the plant above ground

111
Q

what 2 things do the waxy cuticles prevent?

A

1) prevents water loss

2) prevent pathogens coming in direct contact with the epidermal cells limiting the chance of infection

112
Q

what is the difference between the waxy cuticle layer on aquatic plants against that of a cactus

A

on aquatic plants the cuticle is thin but on cacus’s it is thick

113
Q

name the layers of a cross section of a leaf from top to bottom

A

1) waxy cuticle
2) epidermis
3) palisade layer
4) spongy layer

114
Q

what about a cuticle prevents water collecting on the leaf surface?

A

its hydrophobic nature (water repelling)

115
Q

why is the hydrophobic nature of cuticles important?

A

defence against fungal pathogens because most require withstanding water on the leaf surface for pore germination

116
Q

what is the cell wall a major defence against?

A

fungal and bacterial pathogens

117
Q

what do cell walls provide?

A

a structual barrier

118
Q

what do all plant cells have? what does it provide?

A

primary cell wall providing structural support

119
Q

what are primary cell walls made form? why?

A

cellulose fibres to give strength and flexibility

120
Q

how are cells able to cement together?

A

by cross linking pectin and cellulose fibres gel is formed to glue neighbouring cells together

121
Q

where does the secondary cell wall form? why is it needed?

A

develops inside some primary cell walls for further structural barriers

122
Q

what do cell walls contain enabling them to detect pathogens?

A

contain chemical defences which can be rapidly activated

123
Q

name 5 chemical defences of plants

A

1) insect repellents
2) insecticides
3) antibacterial compounds
4) anti fungal compounds
5) cyanide

124
Q

what do insect repellents in plants do?

A

repel insect vectors that carry disease eg pine resin/ citronella from lemon grass

125
Q

what do insecticides in plants do?

A

kill insects eg pyrethins made by chryanthemums

126
Q

what do antibacterial compounds in plants do?

A

kill bacteria eg phenols that disrupt the bacterium’s cell walls/ defensins which disrupt the cell membrane

127
Q

what do anti-fungal compounds in plants do?

A

kill fungi eg caffeine which is toxic to insects/fungi / chitinases which are enzymes that break down the chitin in fungal cell walls

128
Q

what does cyanide in plants do?

A

some plants make chemicals that break down to form cyanide if attacked which is toxic to most living things

129
Q

what is diagnosis?

A

identifying a disease in a plant/ animal

130
Q

what are the two ways which you can diagnose plant treatment?

A

observation and microscopy

131
Q

what is observation of plant disease?

A

looking at the visual symptoms to find a diagnosis

132
Q

give three examples of diseases that can be observed in plants

A

1) strawberry mottle disease
2) bacterial soft rot
3) powdery mildew

133
Q

how can you observe to see if a plant has strawberry mottle disease?

A

looking for discolouration of the leaves in strawberry plants caused by a virus

134
Q

how can you observe to see if a plant has bacterial soft rot?

A

looking for rotting in the leaves or fruit of a plant

135
Q

how can you observe to see if a plant has powdery mildew?

A

looking for powdery white deposit on the plant and repeated fungal infection will weaken the plant/ reduce its yeild

136
Q

why is microscopy sometimes vital in diagnosis of plant disease?

A

some symptoms are very similar so the pathogens need to be identified by their shape

137
Q

what are 2 disadvantages when identifying plant diseases?

A

1) sometimes expensive electron microscopes are needle to correctly identify the pathogen
2) plant infections can only be identified in the fields once the infections symptoms have become apparent and the plants are infected

138
Q

what two ways can plant disease be identified in the laboratory?

A

1) DNA analysis

2) identification of antigens

139
Q

how does DNA analysis identify plant diseases?

A

all plant pathogens have unique genomes and scientists identify them through DNA fingerprinting

140
Q

what does the map created by DNA analysis show and what is it called?

A

it shows the map of the pathogens genome and is known as the profile

141
Q

how do scientists use DNA analysis to identify plant diseases?

A

by comparing unknown genomes map against a known DNA profile and if a match is found accurate diagnosis can be made

142
Q

what specific things can DNA analysis be used to identify?

A

individual strains of a microorganism

143
Q

what does chemical analysis identify?

A

the specific antigens carried on the surface of the pathogen

144
Q

what have scientists developed to help farmers identify common crop pathogens?

A

diagnostic kits

145
Q

what is the key advantage of laboratory based idnetification techniques?

A

you are able to identify the pathogen before it causes significant damage to the crop

146
Q

what can happen if you cut/ graze your skin?

A

pathogens are able to enter your body

147
Q

what does the body do when you cut yourself? why?

A

forms a scab to prevent pathogens entering our body and too much blood being lost

148
Q

what are platelets? why are they needed?

A

fragments of cell made from bone marrow carried in the blood to help it clot

149
Q

what are the 5 steps to forming a scab? i

A

1) skin is cut and starts to bleed - blood leaks out of body
2) platelets change the blood protein fibrinogen into fibrin forming a network of fibres in the cut
3) red blood cells are trapped in the fibres causing a blood clot
4) the clot hardens and thickens to form a scab keeping the skin clean and giving it time to heal
5) scab falls off

150
Q

name 5 ways in which the body prevents microorganisms entering

A

1) skin
2) acid in stomach
3) cilia and mucus in airways
4) nasal hairs
5) tears

151
Q

how does the skin prevent microorganisms entering the body?

A

it is a physical barrier with a dry dead outer layer which is difficult to penetrate and sweat glands produce oils that help kill microorganisms

152
Q

how does the acid in the stomach prevent microorganisms entering the body?

A

kills pathogens in contaminated food/ drink

153
Q

how does cilia and mucus in airways prevent microorganisms form entering the body?

A

sticky mucus traps the microorganisms and the cilia then move the mucus up the throat where it is swallowed

154
Q

how do nasal hairs prevent microorganisms from entering the body?

A

they keep out dust and larger microorgansisms

155
Q

how do tears prevent microorganisms entering the body?

A

they contain lysozyme enzymes which destroy bacteria

156
Q

what are the two types of white blood cells in the immune system?

A

pagocytes and lymphocytes

157
Q

what do phagocytes do?

A

engulf microorganisms and then make enzymes to digest the microorganisms

158
Q

what do lymphocytes do?

A

make antitoxins and antibodies

159
Q

what are antibodies?

A

proteins that bind to antigens on the surface of microorganisms

160
Q

what happens white the antibodies bind to the antigens?

A

the pathogen is ingested by a phagocyte cell and then destroyed

161
Q

why is the defence of antibodies specific?

A

because each antibody only binds to one type of antigen and therefore only one microorganism

162
Q

what happens each time a new microorganism enters the body ?

A

a different lymphocyte makes a new antibody to fight it

163
Q

what is immunity?

A

the ability for the body to be able to “fight off” a disease that has previously infected that body because the white blood cells are able to create the antibodies quickly again preventing them from causing the illness

164
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies produced?

A

produced in the laboratory using special cells

165
Q

what are the names of the three special cells used to create monoclonal antibodies?

A

hybridomas melanomas (cancer cells) and lymphocytes

166
Q

why are they called monoclonal antibodies?

A

they are produced by a single clone of cells

167
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies designed to do?

A

target a specific type of cell and bind to the antigens of target cells

168
Q

what do monoclonal antibodies do to their target cells?

A

kill them or prevent them from operating effectively

169
Q

how are GM mice used to produce monoclonal antibodies?

A

they are injected with the required antigen which causes their body to produce an immune response producing antibodies to the specific antigens

170
Q

what do scientists collect from the GM mice once they have been injected with the correct antigens?

A

the antibody producing lymphocyte cells

171
Q

what happens to the lymphocyte cells collected from GM mice? why?

A

they are fused with myeloma cells from bone marrow which reproduce infinitely because the lymphocytes cant survive outside the body

172
Q

what is the name of the fused cell produced through combing cancerous cells and lymphocyte together?

A

hybridomia

173
Q

what happens to hybridomia as it reproduces? why is this useful?

A

clones are created which produce the required antibody (monoclonal antibodies) which is harvested

174
Q

name three situations when monoclonal antibodies used?

A

pregnancy testing, detecting disease, treating cancer

175
Q

what hormone do women produce after becoming pregnant? when is it produced in the pregnancy?

A

hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) which is poduced two weeks after pregnancy

176
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in pregnancy testing?

A

they are produced to bind to the hCG protein causing a colour changing reaction

177
Q

how do home pregnancy tests work?

A

the short stick contains monoclonal antibodies so when urine containing hCG contacts the antibodies the colour changes indicating pregnancy

178
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in detecting disease

A

some can act as marker by binding to a specific antigen to confirm its presence

179
Q

give an example of when monoclonal antibodies have been used in medicine to identify disease

A

they have been developed to bind to the antigens of prostate cancer cells in men

180
Q

why are monoclonal antibodies helpful to doctors when diagnosing and detecting disease?

A

it allows doctors to diagnose the disease at an early stage in order to get successful treatment

181
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used to treat cancer?

A

they target specific cells killing them or preventing them from operating effectively

182
Q

how can monoclonal antibodies increase the effectiveness of cancer treatment?

A

they can carry drugs/ radioactive substances directly to radioactive caner cells and minimising damage to surrounding tissue

183
Q

what 3 types of cancer can monoclonal antibodies be used to treat?

A

breast cancer, stomach cancer and bowel cancer

184
Q

what are vaccines?

A

small amounts of weakened or dead pathogens inserted into the body via injection

185
Q

what do vaccines do?

A

cause your lymphocyte cells to produce antibodies to the pathogen making you immune to the disease

186
Q

how do vaccines make you immune?

A

it enables your body to respond quicker to the real pathogen if you get infected and remove them before causing disease

187
Q

what are the 3 steps to vaccination ?

A

1) small amounts of dead/inactive pathogen inserted into body
2) antigens in the vaccine stimulate white blood cells to make antibodies which destroy the antigens without risk of you getting disease
3) you are now immune to that infection because your body can respond rapidly and make the correct antibody as if you already had the disease

188
Q

what are the risks of vaccination?

A

occasionally a vaccination causes severe reaction and sometimes death

189
Q

what has the UK child vaccination program lead to?

A

fewer children dying of infetious disease

190
Q

what 6 diseases do children get immunised against between 2-4 months old?

A

1) polio
2) diphtheria
3) tetanus
4) whooping cough
5) Hib meningitis
6) meningitis C

191
Q

what vaccination do children at 13 months old get? what three diseases does this vaccinate against?

A

MMR - measles mumps and rubella

192
Q

what 5diseases do children between 3-5 years old get immunised against?

A

1) MMR
2) polio
3) diphtheria
4) tetanus
5) whooping cough

193
Q

what disease do children between 10 and 14 years old get immunised against?

A

tuberculosis (TB)

194
Q

what disease do girls between 12 and 13 years old get immunised against?

A

human papilloma virus (HPV)

195
Q

what 3 disease do children between 13 and 18 years old get immunised against?

A

1) polio
2) diphtheria
3) tetanus

196
Q

what are antiseptics?

A

treatment which kills or neutralises all types of pathogen but don’t damage human tissue

197
Q

what are disinfectants?

A

treatment which are applied to non living surfaces but can harm human tissue

198
Q

what do different antiseptics act upon?

A

different microorganisms

199
Q

what do most antiseptics kills?

A

bacteria as it is the most common source of infection

200
Q

give two common examples of antiseptics

A

alcohol and iodine

201
Q

what are antivirals?

A

drugs that destry viruses by preventing them from replicating

202
Q

give three examples of infections antivirals are able to treat

A

HIV, herpies and hepatitus B

203
Q

what are antivirals designed to do?

A

act upon one type of virus because they are specific

204
Q

give 3 examples of what activity of an antiviral drug

A

1) blocking the virus from entering a host cell
2) preventing the virus from relaesing genetic material
3) preventing the virus from inserting its genetic data into the host cells DNA

205
Q

what are antibiotics?

A

drugs that kill bacteria without damaging cells and have no effect n fungus or viruses

206
Q

what do different types of antibiotic do?

A

kill different types of bacteria

207
Q

how do scientists identify which antibiotics you need?

A

by sending blood or stool samples to a lab where they are grown on agar plates which are then treated with different antibiotics and the patient would be treated with the most effective drug

208
Q

what is the zone of inhibition?

A

the area on an agar plate where bacteria cant grow

209
Q

what does aseptic mean?

A

“without microorganisms”

210
Q

what is aseptic tehnique?

A

a technique used to ensure no foreign microorganisms are introduced into a sample being tested ensuring the envrionment remains sterile

211
Q

what does streile mean?

A

environment free of microorganisms

212
Q

what are the 4 different ways you can ensure aseptic technique ?

A

1) washing working areas with alcohol before and after working
2) wearing gloves if at risk with pathogens
3) autoclave glassware and apparatus before after use
4) working close to a Bunsen burner flame

213
Q

how does washing working areas with alcohol before and after working ensure aseptic technique?

A

it ensures no microorganisms are present in the working area

214
Q

how does wearing gloves if at risk with pathogens ensure aseptic technique?

A

it prevenst microorgansisms pasing from the sample to the skin

215
Q

how does using autoclave on glassware and apparatus before after use ensure aseptic technique ?

A

it sterilises the apparatus preventing unwanted contamination of a sample

216
Q

how does working close to a Bunsen burner ensure aseptic technique ?

A

it prevents unwanted microorganisms from falling into an open sample

217
Q

how are microorganisms usually transferred from one medium to another using aseptic technique?

A

a wire loop that is streilised

218
Q

how do you sterilise the loop needed to transfer microorganisms in aseptic technique?

A

heat the loop in a Bunsen burner until it glows red and then cool before use but while cooling hold it close to the flame and away from the bench to keep it sterile

219
Q

what are the two ways in which new drugs are created?

A

from plant extracts and from being made in the laboratory

220
Q

what do scientists use to develop possible drugs?

A

computer modelling software

221
Q

how does computer modelling software enable scientists to create new drugs?

A

the software produces a list of compounds that may target a particular condition

222
Q

what do scientists do when they find a potentially useful substance fro a new drug?

A

perform laboratory tests to find out how it behave

223
Q

give examples of laboratory tests that scientists would carry out on possible substances for new drugs

A

tests on live cells/ bacteria/ tissue cultures

224
Q

what is preclinical testing

A

drug testing that happens before it is tried out on living organism

225
Q

what usually happens at preclinical testing?

A

the drugs fail as they damage cells or don’t work

226
Q

what are the two stages of dug testing ?

A

1) testing on animals

2) testing on humans

227
Q

what needs to happen in animal drug testing before it can be tested on humans?

A

it has to be sucessfully tested on two species of animal befre it can be tested on humans

228
Q

what is the name for testing on humans?

A

clinical trials

229
Q

what are the three stages of clinical trials?

A

1) drug tested o healthy volunteers
2) drug tested on a small sample of volunteers
3) drug tested on large number of people

230
Q

why are new drugs tested on healthy volunteers?

A

to look for unexpected side effects

231
Q

why are new drugs tested on a small group of volunteers

A

to see how effective the drug is on a few hundred with the condition

232
Q

why are new drugs tested on large groups of volunteers?

A

to see how well the drug works and check it is safe for everyone in this group of a few thousand people

233
Q

what is monitored when testing new drugs on large groups of people?

A

effectiveness, safety ,dosage and side effects

234
Q

what happens if the new drugs pass all the tests?

A

it is approved for use

235
Q

what happens once a new drug is approved?

A

re any unexpected side effects or if it causes problems to certain types of people studies continue to monitor the drug to see if there are any unexpected side effects or if it causes problems for certain groups of people

236
Q

what is a placeb effect?

A

where people feel better because they expect to feel better as a result of taking medicine

237
Q

how are placebo effects overcome in linical trials?

A

researchers use double blind trials where some patients get the drug while others get a replica of the drug and neither doctors or patients know which drug is the placebo

238
Q

what are the three Rs scientists are encouraged to follow when testing on animals?

A

reduction, refinement and replacement

239
Q

what does replacement mean in terms of the 3Rs?

A

replacing the use of animals where possibel with other techniques

240
Q

what culd scientis use instead of animals in drug testing?

A

cell cultures and computer models

241
Q

what is reduction in terms of the 3Rs?

A

using the smallest amount of animals as possible eg scientists share results of research

242
Q

what is refinement in terms of the 3Rs?

A

improving experiments t avoid unnecessary suffering and improve the way animals are cared for

243
Q

what two thigs increase the chances of developing non communicabel diseases?

A

smoking and drinking alcohol

244
Q

what 5 harmful substances does tobacco contain?

A

1) tar
2) nicotine
3) carbon monoxide
4) particulates
5) their substances

245
Q

what is harmful about tar in tobacco?

A

it collects in the lungs when the smoke cools and is carcinogenic (can cause cancer)

246
Q

what is harmful about nicotine in tobacco?

A

it is an addictive drug affecting the nervous system making the heart beat faster and blood vessels narrow

247
Q

what is harmful about carbon monoxide in tobacco?

A

it is a poisonous gas that attaches to the haemoglobin in red blood cells in place of oxygen causing the heart to have to work harder as there is less oxygen in the blood which can lead to heart disease

248
Q

what is harmful about particulates?

A

they are small pieces of sold which are engulfed by white blood cells causing an enzyme to be released which weakens the alveoli meaning they don’t inflate properly when a person inhales so less oxygen passes into the blood making them breathless

249
Q

what disease is caused by particulates in tobacco?

A

emphysema

250
Q

what is harmful about other substances in tobacco ?

A

hey paralyse the ciliated cells lining the airways allowing mucus into the lungs which can cause infections such as bronchitis

251
Q

what drug does alcohol contain?

A

ethanol

252
Q

what type of drug is ethanol?

A

it is a depressantcausing the nerous sytem to slow down

253
Q

what effects can alcohol have upon people?

A

feeling happy/ relaxed or aggressive or sad

blurred vision/ loss of balance and increase reaction time

254
Q

what does the liver do to ethanol?

A

breaks it down into waste products which are excreted from you body as ethanol is toxic

255
Q

hat happen to the livers of heavy drinkers?

A

they become scarred

256
Q

what is crirrhosis?

A

where healthy cells are replaced with fat or fibrous tissue causing the liver to be less effective which can be fatal

257
Q

what can heavy drinking cause over months and years?

A

stomach ulcers, heart disease, brain damage (memory loss/ depression)

258
Q

what is cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

A

a general term to describe a disease of the heart or blood vessels

259
Q

what is atherosclerosis

A

the hardening or narrowing of the arteries which reduces blood flow to the heart/brain /body due to a build up of fatty deposits

260
Q

what is thrombosis?

A

blood clot causing CVD

261
Q

what 2 things can thrombosis cause?

A

1) if it happens in an artery supplying a heart muscle it can cause heart attack
2) if it occurs in an artery in the brain it can cause a stroke

262
Q

what 4 things can increase the risk of CVD?

A

1) poor diet - too much flt/ saturated fats
2) little exercise
3) smoking - carbon monoxide causes increase in blood pressure
4) high blood pressure - can damage blood vessels

263
Q

how does too much salt increase the risk f CVD?

A

it causes more water to be absorbed back into the blood flowing filtration of the kidney and the extra water causes high blood pressure

GCSE BIOLOGY B4-6 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions